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  • Can't read some attributes with SAX

    - by akappa
    Hi all, I'm trying to parse that document with SAX: <scxml version="1.0" initialstate="start" name="calc"> <datamodel> <data id="expr" expr="0" /> <data id="res" expr="0" /> </datamodel> <state id="start"> <transition event="OPER" target="opEntered" /> <transition event="DIGIT" target="operand" /> </state> <state id="operand"> <transition event="OPER" target="opEntered" /> <transition event="DIGIT" /> </state> </scxml> I read all the attributes well, except "initialstate" and "name"... I get the attributes with the startElement handler, but the size of the attribute list for scxml is zero. Why? How I can overcome that problem? Edit: public void startElement(String uri, String localName, String qName, Attributes attributes){ System.out.println(attributes.getValue("initialstate")); System.out.println(attributes.getValue("name")); } that, when parsing the first tag, doesn't work (prints "null" two times). In fact, attributes.getLength(); evaluates to zero. Thanks

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  • Can I compare a template variable to an integer in App Engine templates?

    - by matt b
    Using Django templates in Google App Engine (on Python), is it possible to compare a template variable to an integer in an {% if %} block? views.py: class MyHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): def get(self): foo_list = db.GqlQuery(...) ... template_values['foos'] = foo_list template_values['foo_count'] = len(foo_list) handler.response.out.write(template.render(...)) My template: {% if foo_count == 1 %} There is one foo. {% endif %} This blows up with 'if' statement improperly formatted. What I was attempting to do in my template was build a simple if/elif/else tree to be grammatically correct to be able to state #foo_count == 0: There are no foos. #foo_count == 1: There is one foo. #else: There are {{ foos|length }} foos. Browsing the Django template documents (this link provided in the GAE documentation appears to be for versions of Django far newer than what is supported on GAE), it appears as if I can only actually use boolean operators (if in fact boolean operators are supported in this older version of Django) with strings or other template variables. Is it not possible to compare variables to integers or non-strings with Django templates? I'm sure there is an easy way to workaround this - built up the message string on the Python side rather than within the template - but this seems like such a simple operation you ought to be able to handle in a template. It sounds like I should be switching to a more advanced templating engine, but as I am new to Django (templates or any part of it), I'd just like some confirmation first.

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  • NHibernate Mapping and Querying Where Tables are Related But No Foreign Key Constraint

    - by IanT8
    I'm fairly new to NHibernate, and I need to ask a couple of questions relating to a very frequent scenario. The following simplified example illustrates the problem. I have two tables named Equipment and Users. Users is a set of system administrators. Equipment is a set of machinery. Tables: Users table has UserId int and LoginName nvarchar(64). Equipment table has EquipId int, EquipType nvarchar(64), UpdatedBy int. Behavior: System administrators can make changes to Equipment, and when they do, the UpdatedBy field of Equipment is "normally" set to their User Id. Users can be deleted at any time. New Equipment items have an UpdatedBy value of null. There's no foreign key constraint on Equipment.UpdatedBy which means: Equipment.UpdatedBy can be null. Equipment.UpdatedBy value can be = existing User.UserId value Equipment.UpdatedBy value can be = non-existent User.UserId value To find Equipment and who last updated the Equipment, I might query like this: select E.EquipId, E.EquipName, U.UserId, U.LoginName from Equipment E left outer join Users U on. E.UpdatedBy = U.UserId Simple enough. So how to do that in NHibernate? My mappings might be as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="Data" assembly="Data"> <class name="User" table="Users"> <id name="Id" column="UserId" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="LoginName" unique="true" not-null="true" /> </class> <class name="Equipment" table="Equipment"> <id name="Id" column="EquipId" type="int" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="EquipType" /> <many-to-one name="UpdatedBy" class="User" column="UpdatedBy" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So how do I get all items of equipment and who updated them? using (ISession session = sessionManager.OpenSession()) { List<Data.Equipment> equipList = session .CreateCriteria<Data.Equipment>() // Do I need to SetFetchmode or specify that I // want to join onto User here? If so how? .List<Data.Equipment>(); foreach (Data.Equipment item in equipList) { Debug.WriteLine("\nEquip Id: " + item.Id); Debug.WriteLine("Equip Type: " + item.EquipType); if (item.UpdatedBy.Country != null) Debug.WriteLine("Updated By: " + item.UpdatedBy.LoginName); else Debug.WriteLine("Updated by: Nobody"); } } When Equipment.UpdatedBy = 3 and there is no Users.UserId = 3, the above fail I also have a feeling that the generated SQL is a select all from Equipment followed by many select columns from Users where UserId = n whereas I'd expected NHibernate to left join as per my plain ordinary SQL and do one hit. If I can tell NHibernate to do the query in one hit, how do I do that? Time is of the essence on my project, so any help you could provide is gratefully received. If you're speculating about how NHibernate might work in this scenario, please say you're not absolutely sure. Many thanks.

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  • jQuery Validation error...

    - by Povylas
    Hi, I have been struggling with this jQuery Validation Plugin. Here is the code: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { var validator = $('#signup').validate({ errorElement: 'span', rules: { username: { required: true, minlenght: 6 //remote: "check-username.php" }, password: { required: true, minlength: 5 }, confirm_password: { required: true, minlength: 5, equalTo: "#password" }, email: { required: true, email: true }, agree: "required" }, messages: { username: { required: "Please enter a username", minlength: "Your username must consist of at least 6 characters" //remote: "Somenoe have already chosen nick like this." }, password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long" }, confirm_password: { required: "Please provide a password", minlength: "Your password must be at least 5 characters long", equalTo: "Please enter the same password as above" }, email: "Please enter a valid email address", agree: "Please accept our policy" } }); var root = $("#wizard").scrollable({size: 1, clickable: false}); // some variables that we need var api = root.scrollable(); $("#data").click(function() { validator.form(); }); // validation logic is done inside the onBeforeSeek callback api.onBeforeSeek(function(event, i) { if($("#signup").valid() == false){ return false; }else{ return true; } $("#status li").removeClass("active").eq(i).addClass("active"); }); //if tab is pressed on the next button seek to next page root.find("button.next").keydown(function(e) { if (e.keyCode == 9) { // seeks to next tab by executing our validation routine api.next(); e.preventDefault(); } }); $('button.fin').click(function(){ parent.$.fn.fancybox.close() }); }); </script> And here is the error: $.validator.methods[method] is undefined http://www.vvv.vhost.lt/js/jquery-validate/jquery.validate.min.js Line 15 I am completely confused... Maybe some kind of handler is needed? I would be grateful for any kind of answer.

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  • Is it possible to make a persistent connection between a Python web service and a .Net WCF Client?

    - by Ad Hock
    I have a .Net 3.5 SOAP client written in C# using the WCF. It's expecting basicHTTPBinding and a persistent connection with HTTP/1.1. I'm trying to create a Python 2.6 application that will act as a web-service for the client. My problem is that the client keeps closing the connection and opening a new one for every command to the web service. How does the .Net WCF client know to stay open when connecting with a .Net Service? When I create a dummy .Net web service the client connects fine and the connection remains persistent. From what I can tell, when connected to a .Net server, there are no special HTTP headers being sent, that makes sense since HTTP/1.1 assumes a persistent connection unless otherwise specified (right?). However, with the python web service I accept/open a connection and eventually the client will send a TCP FIN and the connection will close (the client never sends a FIN or RST when connecting to a .Net service). The communication goes something like this: Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #1 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- Body of Command #1 Outgoing -- ACK Command #1 (HTTP headers and body) Incoming -- HTTP Header for SOAP Command #2 Outgoing -- HTTP Header with a Continue Incoming -- TCP FIN <Connection closes> <New connection opens and SOAP command #2 (with full HTTP headers) is sent> I'm using a SocketServer.ThreadingTCPServer as the server and a BaseHTTPServer.BaseHTTPRequestHandler for any requests. The handler is actually a derived class of that with a do_POST method to handle the HTTP headers. I've looked at WireShark captures and I'm stumped. I've tried setting socket options to SO_KEEPALIVE and SO_REUSEADDR in the server but that didn't seem to change anything. What am I missing?

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  • How to route tree-structured URLs with ASP.NET Routing?

    - by Venemo
    Hello Everyone, I would like to achieve something very similar to this question, with some enhancements. There is an ASP.NET MVC web application. I have a tree of entities. For example, a Page class which has a property called Children, which is of type IList<Page>. (An instance of the Page class corresponds to a row in a database.) I would like to assign a unique URL to every Page in the database. I handle Page objects with a Controller called PageController. Example URLs: http://mysite.com/Page1/ http://mysite.com/Page1/SubPage/ http://mysite.com/Page/ChildPage/GrandChildPage/ You get the picture. So, I'd like every single Page object to have its own URL that is equal to its parent's URL plus its own name. In addition to that, I also would like the ability to map a single Page to the / (root) URL. I would like to apply these rules: If a URL can be handled with any other route, or a file exists in the filesystem in the specified URL, let the default URL mapping happen If a URL can be handled by the virtual path provider, let that handle it If there is no other, map the other URLs to the PageController class I also found this question, and also this one and this one, but they weren't of much help, since they don't provide an explanation about my first two points. I see the following possible soutions: Map a route for each page invidually. This requires me to go over the entire tree when the application starts, and adding an exact match route to the end of the route table. I could add a route with {*path} and write a custom IRouteHandler that handles it, but I can't see how could I deal with the first two rules then, since this handler would get to handle everything. So far, the first solution seems to be the right one, because it is also the simplest. I would really appreciate your thoughts on this. Thank you in advance!

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  • Silverlight - Get the ItemsControl of a DataTemplate

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have a Silverlight application that is using a DataGrid. Inside of that DataGrid I have a DataTemplate that is defined like the following: <Grid x:Name="myGrid" Tag="{Binding}" Loaded="myGrid_Loaded"> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding MyItems}" Tag="{Binding}"> <ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" Width="138"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Type}" /> <TextBox x:Name="myTextBox" TextChanged="myTextBox_TextChanged" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemTemplate> </ItemsControl> </Grid> When a user enters text into the TextBox, I have an event (myTextBox_TextChanged) that must be fired at this point. When that event gets fired, I would like to get the ItemsControl element that is the container for this TextBox. How do I get that ItemsControl from my event handler? Please note: Because the ItemsControl is in the DataTemplate of DataGrid, I don't believe I can just add an x:Name and reference it from my code-behind. Or is there a way to do that? Thank you!

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  • .NET assembly loading problem

    - by Simon
    I'm maintaining the build process for our application which consist of an ASP.Net application, two different Win32 services and other sysadmin related applications. I want to end up with the following configuration to be used both when debugging & deploying. libraires/ -- Contains shared assemblies used by all other apps. web/ -- ASP.Net site service1/ -- Win32 service 1 (seen under the service control manager) service2/ -- Win32 service 2 adminstuff/ -- Sysadmin / support stuff used for troubleshooting The problem is assembly probing privatePath in the app.config does not support relative directories outside the application root. Ie: can't use ../libraries. Very frustating... If I strong name our assemblies, I could use codeBase config element which seems to support absolute path but you need to specify each assembly individually. I also tried hooking into AppDomain.AssemblyResolve event, but I'm getting FileNotFoundException from the .Net Fusion before I can even register the event handler in Main(). I don't like the idea of registering the assemblies in the GAC. Too much hassle when deploying / upgrading application. Is there another to do this without having the specify the path of each requiered assembly ?

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  • Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

    - by Richard
    Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

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  • Insane Graphics.lineStyle behavior

    - by Simon
    Hi all, I'd like some help with a little project of mine. Background: i have a little hierarchy of Sprite derived classes (5 levels starting from the one, that is the root application class in Flex Builder). Width and Height properties are overriden so that my class always remembers it's requested size (not just bounding size around content) and also those properties explicitly set scaleX and scaleY to 1, so that no scaling would ever be involved. After storing those values, draw() method is called to redraw content. Drawing: Drawing is very straight forward. Only the deepest object (at 1-indexed level 5) draws something into this.graphics object like this: var gr:Graphics = this.graphics; gr.clear(); gr.lineStyle(0, this.borderColor, 1, true, LineScaleMode.NONE); gr.beginFill(0x0000CC); gr.drawRoundRectComplex(0, 0, this.width, this.height, 10, 10, 0, 0); gr.endFill(); Further on: There is also MouseEvent.MOUSE_WHEEL event attached to the parent of the object that draws. What handler does is simply resizes that drawing object. Problem: Screenshot When resizing sometimes that hairline border line with LineScaleMode.NONE set gains thickness (quite often even 10 px) + it quite often leaves a trail of itself (as seen in the picture above and below blue box (notice that box itself has one px black border)). When i set lineStile thickness to NaN or alpha to 0, that trail is no more happening. I've been coming back to this problem and dropping it for some other stuff for over a week now. Any ideas anyone? P.S. Grey background is that of Flash Player itself, not my own choise.. :D

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  • Binding event handlers to specific elements, using bubbling (JavaScript/jQuery)

    - by Bungle
    I'm working on a project that approximates the functionality of Firebug's inspector tool. That is, when mousing over elements on the page, I'd like to highlight them (by changing their background color), and when they're clicked, I'd like to execute a function that builds a CSS selector that can be used to identify them. However, I've been running into problems related to event bubbling, and have thoroughly confused myself. Rather than walk you down that path, it might make sense just to explain what I'm trying to do and ask for some help getting started. Here are some specs: I'm only interested in elements that contain a text node (or any descendant elements with text nodes). When the mouse enters such an element, change its background color. When the mouse leaves that element, change its background color back to what it was originally. When an element is clicked, execute a function that builds a CSS selector for that element. I don't want a mouseover on an element's margin area to count as a mouseover for that element, but for the element beneath (I think that's default browser behavior anyway?). I can handle the code that highlights/unhighlights, and builds the CSS selector. What I'm primarily having trouble with is efficiently binding event handlers to the elements that I want to be highlightable/clickable, and avoiding/stopping bubbling so that mousing over a (<p>) element doesn't also execute the handler function on the <body>, for example. I think the right way to do this is to bind event handlers to the document element, then somehow use bubbling to only execute the bound function on the topmost element, but I don't have any idea what that code looks like, and that's really where I could use help. I'm using jQuery, and would like to rely on that as much as possible. Thanks in advance for any guidance!

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  • How to Bind Data and manipulate it in a GridView with MVP

    - by DotNetDan
    I am new to the whole MVP thing and slowly getting my head around it all. The a problem I am having is how to stay consistent with the MVP methodology when populating GridViews (and ddls, but we will tackle that later). Is it okay to have it connected straight to an ObjectDataSourceID? To me this seems wrong because it bypasses all the separation of concerns MVP was made to do. So, with that said, how do I do it? How do I handle sorting (do I send over handler events to the presentation layer, if so how does that look in code)? Right now I have a GridView that has no sorting. Code below. ListCustomers.aspx.cs: public partial class ListCustomers : System.Web.UI.Page, IlistCustomer { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { //On every page load, create a new presenter object with //constructor recieving the // page's IlistCustomer view ListUserPresenter ListUser_P = new ListUserPresenter(this); //Call the presenter's PopulateList to bind data to gridview ListUser_P.PopulateList(); } GridView IlistCustomer.UserGridView { get { return gvUsers; } set { gvUsers = value; } } } Interface ( IlistCustomer.cs): is this bad sending in an entire Gridview control? public interface IlistCustomer { GridView UserGridView { set; get; } } The Presenter (ListUserPresenter.cs): public class ListUserPresenter { private IlistCustomer view_listCustomer; private GridView gvListCustomers; private DataTable objDT; public ListUserPresenter( IlistCustomer view) { //Handle an error if an Ilistcustomer was not sent in) if (view == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("ListCustomer View cannot be blank"); //Set local IlistCustomer interface view this.view_listCustomer = view; } public void PopulateList() { //Fill local Gridview with local IlistCustomer gvListCustomers = view_listCustomer.UserGridView; // Instantiate a new CustomerBusiness object to contact database CustomerBusiness CustomerBiz = new CustomerBusiness(); //Call CustomerBusiness's GetListCustomers to fill DataTable object objDT = CustomerBiz.GetListCustomers(); //Bind DataTable to gridview; gvListCustomers.DataSource = objDT; gvListCustomers.DataBind(); } }

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  • Array of Objects

    - by James
    Complete and utter neophyte to Objective-C and the entire Mac platform so don't flame me please =). Basically I'm trying to create a simple game. The game has a board which I've created a class for and a board is comprised of squares which I also created a class for (board and square respectively). In my view controller I'm trying to instantiate a board and add boardSize^2 squares to said object. board contains an NSMutableArray *squares. I've also created a convenience method which sets an NSNumber *boardSize called initWithDimension. In my touchesBegan handler I have the following: board *game_board = [[board alloc] initWithDimension:10]; int size = [game_board.boardSize intValue]; for(int i = 0; i <= size; i++) { square *s = [[square alloc] init]; [game_board.squares addObject:s]; [s release]; } NSLog(@"%i", size); NSLog(@"%@", [game_board.squares objectAtIndex:0]); ...and I'm getting 10 (as expected) and then (null). This is probably glaringly obvious to an experienced developer, I've just struggled for an hour trying to solve it and have given up. I've tried it without the [s release] as well, same result. I've also imported square.h and board.h. Any ideas what's wrong here? Any other comments on what I'm brutalizing? Thanks.

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  • What am I doing wrong with HttpResponse content and headers when downloading a file?

    - by Slauma
    I want to download a PDF file from a SQL Server database which is stored in a binary column. There is a LinkButton on an aspx page. The event handler of this button looks like this: protected void LinkButtonDownload(object sender, EventArgs e) { ... byte[] aByteArray; // Read binary data from database into this ByteArray // aByteArray has the size: 55406 byte Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.ClearContent(); Response.BufferOutput = true; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=" + "12345.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; using (BinaryWriter aWriter = new BinaryWriter(Response.OutputStream)) { aWriter.Write(aByteArray, 0, aByteArray.Length); } } A "File Open/Save dialog" is offered in my browser. When I store this file "12345.pdf" to disk, the file has a size of 71523 Byte. The additional 16kB at the end of the PDF file are the HTML code of my page (as I can see when I view the file in an editor). I am confused because I was believing that ClearContent and ClearHeaders would ensure that the page content is not sent together with the file content. What am I doing wrong here? Thanks for help!

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  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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  • Delphi 6 OleServer.pas Invoke memory leak

    - by Mike Davis
    There's a bug in delphi 6 which you can find some reference online for when you import a tlb the order of the parameters in an event invocation is reversed. It is reversed once in the imported header and once in TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke. you can find more information about it here: http://cc.embarcadero.com/Item/16496 somewhat related to this issue there appears to be a memory leak in TServerEventDispatch.Invoke with a parameter of a Variant of type Var_Array (maybe others, but this is the more obvious one i could see). The invoke code copies the args into a VarArray to be passed to the event handler and then copies the VarArray back to the args after the call, relevant code pasted below: // Set our array to appropriate length SetLength(VarArray, ParamCount); // Copy over data for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do VarArray[I] := OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]); // Invoke Server proxy class if FServer <> nil then FServer.InvokeEvent(DispID, VarArray); // Copy data back for I := Low(VarArray) to High(VarArray) do OleVariant(TDispParams(Params).rgvarg^[I]) := VarArray[I]; // Clean array SetLength(VarArray, 0); There are some obvious work-arounds in my case: if i skip the copying back in case of a VarArray parameter it fixes the leak. to not change the functionality i thought i should copy the data in the array instead of the variant back to the params but that can get complicated since it can hold other variants and seems to me that would need to be done recursively. Since a change in OleServer will have a ripple effect i want to make sure my change here is strictly correct. can anyone shed some light on exactly why memory is being leaked here? I can't seem to look up the callstack any lower than TServerEventDIspatch.Invoke (why is that?) I imagine that in the process of copying the Variant holding the VarArray back to the param list it added a reference to the array thus not allowing it to be release as normal but that's just a rough guess and i can't track down the code to back it up. Maybe someone with a better understanding of all this could shed some light?

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  • Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

    - by Channel72
    I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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  • C# COM Cross Thread problem

    - by user364676
    Hi, we're developing a software to control a scientific measuring device. it provides a COM-Interface defines serveral functions to set measurement parameters and fires an event when it measured data. in order to test our software, i'm implementing a simulation of that device. the com-object runs a loop which periodically fires the event. another loop in the client app should now setup up the com-simulator using the given functions. i created a class for measuring parameters which will be instanciated when setting up a new measurement. // COM-Object public class MeasurementParams { public double Param1; public double Param2; } public class COM_Sim : ICOMDevice { public MeasurementParams newMeasurement; IClient client; public int NewMeasurement() { newMeasurment = new MeasurementParam(); } public int SetParam1(double val) { // why is newMeasurement null when method is called from client loop newMeasurement.Param1 = val; } void loop() { while(true) { // fire event client.HandleEvent; } } } public class Client : IClient { ICOMDevice server; public int HandleEvent() { // handle this event server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } void loop() { while(true) { // do some stuff... server.NewMeasurement(); server.SetParam1(0.0); } } } both of the loops run in independent threads. when server.NewMeasurement() is called, the object on the server is set to a new instance. but in the next function, the object is null again. do the same when handling the server-event, it works perfectly, because the method runs in the servers thread. how to make it work from client-thread as well. as the client is meant to be working with the real device, i cannot modify the interfaces given by the manufactor. also i need to setup measurements independent from the event-handler, which will be fired not regulary. i assume this problem related to multithreaded-COM behavior but i found nothing on this topic.

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  • Dynamically Resizing an Iframe

    - by regex
    Hello All, I can see that this question has been asked several times, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work for the site I am building, so I am reopening the thread. I am attempting to size an iframe based on the height of it's content. Both the page that contains the iframe and it's source page exist on the same domain. I have tried the proposed solutions in each of the following threads: Resize iframe height according to content height in it Resizing an iframe based on content I believe that the solutions above are not working because of when the reference to body.clientHeight is made, the browser has not actually determined the height of the document. Here is the code I am using: var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBlue"); ifmBlue.onload = resizeIframe; function resizeIframe() { var ifmBlue = document.getElementById("ifmBluePill"); var ifmDiv = ifmBlue.contentDocument.getElementById("main"); var height = ifmDiv.clientHeight; ifmBlue.style.height = (ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.scrollHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.offsetHeight || ifmBlue.contentDocument.body.parentNode.clientHeight || height || 500) + 5 + 'px'; } If I debug the script using fire debug, the client height of the iframe.contentDocument's main div is 0. Additionally, body.offsetHieght, & body.scrollHeight are 0. However, after the script is finished running, if I inspect the DOM of the HTML iframe element (using fire debug) I can see that the body's clientHeight is 456 and the inner div's clientHeight is 742. This leads me to believe that these values are not yet set when iframe.onload is fired. So, per one of the threads above, I moved the code into the body.onload event handler of the iframe's source page. This solution also did not work. Any help you can provide is much appreciated. Thanks, CJ

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  • What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms?

    - by Simon
    What is the 'page lifecycle' of an ASP.NET MVC page, compared to ASP.NET WebForms? I'm tryin to better understand this 'simple' question in order to determine whether or not existing pages I have in a (very) simple site can be easily converted from ASP.NET WebForms. Either a 'conversion' of the process below, or an alternative lifecycle would be what I'm looking for. What I'm currently doing: (yes i know that anyone capable of answering my question already knows all this -- i'm just tryin to get a comparison of the 'lifecycle' so i thought i'd start by filling in what we already all know) Rendering the page: I have a master page which contains my basic template I have content pages that give me named regions from the master page into which I put content. In an event handler for each content page I load data from the database (mostly read-only). I bind this data to ASP.NET controls representing grids, dropdowns or repeaters. This data all 'lives' inside the HTML generated. Some of it gets into ViewState (but I wont go into that too much!) I set properties or bind data to certain items like Image or TextBox controls on the page. The page gets sent to the client rendered as non-reusable HTML. I try to avoid using ViewState other than what the page needs as a minimum. Client side (not using ASP.NET AJAX): I may use JQuery and some nasty tricks to find controls on the page and perform operations on them. If the user selects from a dropdown -- a postback is generated which triggers a C# event in my codebehind. This event may go to the database, but whatever it does a completely newly generated HTML page ends up getting sent back to the client. I may use Page.Session to store key value pairs I need to reuse later So with MVC how does this 'lifecycle' change?

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  • Bind Command to MenuItem

    - by Neir0
    Hi I have ListView and i am trying to bind command to ContextMenu of ListView. <ListView x:Name="listView1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Persons}"> <ListView.Resources> <ContextMenu x:Key="ItemContextMenu"> <MenuItem Header="Add" /> <MenuItem Header="Edit"/> <Separator/> <MenuItem Header="Delete" Command="{Binding Msg}" /> </ContextMenu> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="ListViewItem"> <!--<EventSetter Event="PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown" />--><!--Handler="OnListViewItem_PreviewMouseLeftButtonDown" />--> <Setter Property="ContextMenu" Value="{StaticResource ItemContextMenu}"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch" /> </Style> </ListView.ItemContainerStyle> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Name}" /> <GridViewColumn Header="Sur Name" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=SurName}" /> <GridViewColumn Header="Age" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Path=Age}" /> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> <Button Content="Message" Command="{Binding Msg}" /> Binding to Button works well but when i click to delete item in ContextMenu, command is not working! Why?

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  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

    - by Graham
    All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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  • IE problem: keyboard interaction with checkbox

    - by Bobby Eickhoff
    I have an HTML table, and each row has a checkbox for selecting or deselecting its row. Whenever a checkbox changes value, I need to add or remove highlighting to the row and also ensure that the page's submit button is only enabled when at least one row is selected and disabled otherwise. The checkbox event handler is defined by the following function: function getCheckboxCallback() { return function () { var parentRow = getParentRow(this); if (!parentRow) { return; // No parent row found; abort } // Adjust the appearance of the row setSelected(parentRow, this.checked); // Count the number of selected table rows, and disable the submit // button whenever no rows are selected enforceInvariants(); return true; }; } Elsewhere in the same module, the checkboxes are given the event handlers: checkbox.onchange = getCheckboxCallback(); checkbox.onclick = getCheckboxCallback(); // alleged IE fix I'm working in Windows XP, and everything works fine in both Firefox 3 and Opera 9. However, IE 7 does not handle keyboard interaction well (mouse interaction works fine). The problem is that if a checkbox has the focus and I hit the spacebar, the checkbox doesn't get checked -- instead it gets half checked (it has the same shadowed appearance that it would get immediately after a mousedown). I have to press the spacebar a second time to actually check the box. Similarly, it requires two key presses to uncheck it. Oddly enough, if I hold down the spacebar for a few moments, then a single press works as expected. Can anyone explain what is going on here? Is there something I'm doing wrong in the JavaScript code that is causing this behavior? How can I fix this?

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