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  • Considerations when architecting an application using Dependency Injection

    - by Dan Bryant
    I've begun experimenting with dependency injection (in particular, MEF) for one of my projects, which has a number of different extensibility points. I'm starting to get a feel for what I can do with MEF, but I'd like to hear from others who have more experience with the technology. A few specific cases: My main use case at the moment is exposing various singleton-like services that my extensions make use of. My Framework assembly exposes service interfaces and my Engine assembly contains concrete implementations. This works well, but I may not want to allow all of my extensions to have access to all of my services. Is there a good way within MEF to limit which particular imports I allow a newly instantiated extension to resolve? This particular application has extension objects that I repeatedly instantiate. I can import multiple types of Controllers and Machines, which are instantiated in different combinations for a Project. I couldn't find a good way to do this with MEF, so I'm doing my own type discovery and instantiation. Is there a good way to do this within MEF or other DI frameworks? I welcome input on any other things to watch out for or surprising capabilities you've discovered that have changed the way you architect.

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  • proper way to dynamically assign backbone.js view el

    - by kikuchiyo
    I would like to create two ( or more ) view instances, each with different el attributes, and have events bound to them via backbone.js view's events hash ( not through jQuery ). Getting events to trigger when all instantiations have the same el is easy: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: '#someDiv', events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); So far, if I assign el in the initialize function, and set events normally as follows, events do not trigger: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); My first instinct was to have el be a function that returns the string representation of the dom element of interest: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: function(){ return '#someDiv-' + this.someNumber }, events: { 'click': 'someFunction' }, initialize: function( options ){ this.someNumber = options.someNumber }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); However, this triggers someFunction x times if I have x instantiations of someView. Next I tried setting both the el and events attributes in initialize: someView = Backbone.View.extend({ initialize: function( options ){ this.el = options.el this.events = { 'click': 'someFunction' } }, someFunction: function(){ //Do something here } }); but this does not trigger events. At this point I'm pretty much fishing. Does anyone know how instantiate a backbone.js view with an el specific to that instance that has events that only trigger for that instance, and not other instances of the View?

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  • Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

    - by Ira Cooke
    I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

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  • Help with copy and deepcopy in Python

    - by Az
    Hi there, I think I tried to ask for far too much in my previous question so apologies for that. Let me lay out my situation in as simple a manner as I can this time. Basically, I've got a bunch of dictionaries that reference my objects, which are in turn mapped using SQLAlchemy. All fine with me. However, I want to make iterative changes to the contents of those dictionaries. The problem is that doing so will change the objects they reference---and using copy.copy() does no good since it only copies the references contained within the dictionary. Thus even if copied something, when I try to, say print the contents of the dictionary, I'll only get the latest updated values for the object. This is why I wanted to use copy.deepcopy() but that does not work with SQLAlchemy. Now I'm in a dilemma since I need to copy certain attributes of my object before making said iterative changes. In summary, I need to use SQLAlchemy and at the same time make sure I can have a copy of my object attributes when making changes so I don't change the referenced object itself. Any advice, help, suggestions, etc.?

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  • Setting nested object to null when selected option has empty value

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a Class which models a User and another which models his country. Something like this: public class User{ private Country country; //other attributes and getter/setters } public class Country{ private Integer id; private String name; //other attributes and getter/setters } I have a Spring form where I have a combobox so the user can select his country or can select the undefined option to indicate he doen't want to provide this information. So I have something like this: <form:select path="country"> <form:option value="">-Select one-</form:option> <form:options items="${countries}" itemLabel="name" itemValue="id"/> </form:select> In my controller I get the autopopulated object with the user information and I want to have country set to null when the "-Select one-" option has been selected. So I have set a initBinder with a custom editor like this: @InitBinder protected void initBinder(WebDataBinder binder) throws ServletException { binder.registerCustomEditor(Country.class, "country", new CustomCountryEditor()); } and my editor do something like this: public class CustomCountryEditor(){ @Override public String getAsText() { //I return the Id of the country } @Override public void setAsText(String str) { //I search in the database for a country with id = new Integer(str) //and set country to that value //or I set country to null in case str == null } } When I submit the form it works because when I have country set to null when I have selected "-Select one-" option or the instance of the country selected. The problem is that when I load the form I have a method like the following one to load the user information. @ModelAttribute("user") public User getUser(){ //loads user from database } The object I get from getUser() has country set to a specific country (not a null value), but in the combobox is not selected any option. I've debugged the application and the CustomCountryEditor works good when setting and getting the text, thoughgetAsText method is called for every item in the list "countries" not only for the "country" field. Any idea? Is there a better way to set null the country object when I select no country option in the combobox? Thanks

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  • UAC need for console application

    - by Daok
    I have a console application that require to use some code that need administrator level. I have read that I need to add a Manifest file myprogram.exe.manifest that look like that : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> But it still doesn't raise the UAC (in the console or in debugging in VS). How can I solve this issue? Update I am able to make it work if I run the solution in Administrator or when I run the /bin/*.exe in Administrator. I am still wondering if it's possible to have something that will pop when the application start instead of explicitly right clickRun as Administrator?

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  • datepicker value is blank when disabled, jquery

    - by Mithil Deshmukh
    Hi. I'm fairly new to jQuery. I have a Jquery datepicker in a user control. I have added a "disable" property to the datepicker. Whenever I save the page(having this usercontrol) the datepicker with disable set to true is empty. All other datepickers save fine. Here is my code. ASPX < USERCONTROL:DATEPICKER id="dpBirthDate" startyear="1980" runat="server" Disable=true ASCX < input type="text" size="8" runat="server" id="txtDate" name="txtDate" onblur="ValidateForm(this.id);" / ASCX Code Behind Public Property Disable() As Boolean Get Return (txtDate.Disabled = True) End Get Set(ByVal bValue As Boolean) If (bValue = True) Then txtDate.Attributes.Add("Disabled", "True") Else txtDate.Attributes.Remove("Disabled") End If End Set End Property My Jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("input[id$=txtDate]").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings("BASE_DIRECTORY")%>/Images/el-calendar.gif', buttonImageOnly: true }); $("input[id$=txtDate]").mask("99/99/9999", { placeholder: " " }); //Disable datepicker if "disable=true" $("input[id$=txtDate]").each(function() { if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "True") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("disable"); } else if ($("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").attr("Disabled") == "False") { $("input[id$=" + this.id + "]").datepicker("enable"); } }); }); I am sorry, I am not sure how to format the code here. I apologies for the cluttered code. Can anybody tell me why the datepicker value is empty when it is disabled but works fine otherwise? Thanks is advance.

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  • stuck with enable session state

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi i have an application wherein i am accessing the Session object in the CommonCode.cs file that resides in the App_Code folder. But when the session object is accessed the application throws me an error: Session state can only be used when enableSessionState is set to true, either in a configuration file or in the Page directive. Please also make sure that System.Web.SessionStateModule or a custom session state module is included in the \\ section in the application configuration. Now i have already enabled the session state property in the web.config file, here is my code from the web.config file: <pages enableSessionState="true" autoEventWireup="true"> <controls> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> <add tagPrefix="asp" namespace="System.Web.UI.WebControls" assembly="System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </controls> </pages> I dont understand why am i still getting that error !! please help ! thanks a lot.

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  • Use jQuery to find and add an image tooltip

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey people Okay, what I'm trying to accomplish is a simple tool tip that, when you hover over the name of a color, shows a little image of that color. The html markup looks like this: <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" checked="" id="20" value="20" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title=" DinoBlack Mat " alt="DinoBlack Mat" src="images/attributes/color/dinoblack_mat.jpg">DinoBlack Mat </label> <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" id="874" value="874" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title="XrayBlue shiny" alt="XrayBlue shiny" src="images/attributes/color/xrayblue_shiny.jpg">XrayBlue shiny </label> I'm using the jQuery plugin "Tooltip" and I've added following to my main js-file: $('.colorPicker').tooltip({ track: true, delay: 0, showURL: false, fade: 250, bodyHandler: function() { return $("<img/>").attr("src", [THE SOURCE FOR THE IMAGE]); } }); The idea is simply that the image should be hidden by default. But when you hover over the text the little thumbnail shows up and makes it easy to recognize the color. The problem is I haven't got a clue how to get the src for the thumbnail. I don't know how to extract the src from the img inside the selected element. I've tried various combinations using the this keyword, but nothing seemed to work. I've also tried to add the src path as a rel attribute to the label, but also without any success. Should be needless to say I also control the PHP-output... I really hope you can help me. I've search the web for days without any luck. I'm getting desperate :D /Mikkel Lund

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  • Does XPath will return a object other than String

    - by Kalyan
    I have map xml as below. I can retrieve a value using XPath but can I retrieve object instead?. For example I want Map object to be retured if I say /list/* . Is it possible to retrieve as object. <list> <map> <val name="obj_type">USER</val> <val name="ret_name">user</val> <list name="attributes"> <map> <val name="obj_type">USER_ID</val> <val name="ret_name">userID</val> </map> <map> <val name="obj_type"> USER_UsernamePasswordCredential </val> <list name="attributes"> <map> <val name="obj_type">UNP_Username</val> <val name="ret_name">UserName</val> </map> <map> <val name="obj_type">UNP_Password</val> <val name="ret_name">Password</val> </map> </list> </map> </list> </map> </list>

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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  • Code Organization Connundrum: Web Project With Multiple Supporting DLLs?

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I am trying to get a handle on the best practice for code organization within my project. I have looked around on the internet for good examples and, so far, I have seen examples of a web project with one or multiple supporting class libraries that it references or a web project with sub-folders that follow its namespace conventions. Assuming there is no right answer, this is what I currently have for code organization: MyProjectWeb This is my web site. I am referencing my class libraries here. MyProject.DLL As the base namespace, I am using this DLL for files that need to be generally consumable. For example, my class "Enums" that has all the enumerations in my project lives there. As does class MyProjectException for all exception handling. MyProject.IO.DLL This is a grouping of maybe 20 files that handle file upload and download (so far). MyProject.Utilities.DLL ALl my common classes and methods bunched up together in one generally consumable DLL. Each class follows a "XHelper" convention such as "SqlHelper, AuthHelper, SerializationHelper, and so on... MyProject.Web.DLL I am using this DLL as the main client interface. Right now, the majority of class files here are: 1) properties (such as School, Location, Account, Posts) 2) authorization stuff ( such as custom membership, custom role, & custom profile providers) My question is simply - does this seem logical? Also, how do I avoid having to cross reference DLLs from one project library to the next? For example, MyProject.Web.DLL uses code from MyProject.Utilities.DLL and MyProject.Utilities.DLL uses code from MyProject.DLL. Is this solved by clicking on properties and selecting "Dependencies"? I tried that but still don't seem to be accessing the namespaces of the assembly I have selected. Do I have to reference every assembly I need for each class library? Responses appreciated and thanks for your patience.

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  • How to deploy ClickOnce .Net 3.5 application on 3.0 machine

    - by Buthrakaur
    I have .Net 3.5 SP1 WPF application which I'm successfully deploying to client computers using ClickOnce. Now I got new requirement - one of our clients need to run the application on machines equipped just with .Net 3.0 and it's entirely impossible to upgrade or install anything on the machines. I already tried to run the 3.5 application with some of the 3.5FW DLLs copied to the application directory and it worked without any problems. The only problem at the moment is ClickOnce. I already made it to include the 3.5FW System.*.dll files in list of application files, but it always aborts installation on 3.0 machine with this error message: Unable to install or run the application. The application requires that assembly System.Core Version 3.5.0.0 be installed in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC) first. Please contact your system administrator. I already tried to tweak prerequisites on Publish tab of my project, but no combination solved the issue. What part of ClickOnce is responsible for checking prerequisites? I already tried to deploy using mageui.exe, but the 3.5FW error is still present. What should I do to fore ClickOnce to stop checking any prerequisites at all? The project is created using VS2010.

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  • Authentification-None for one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications

    - by Sirius Lampochkin
    I have a WebApplication on asp.net 2.0 with namespace Admin. I have Form Authentification mode for the project. <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="ASP_XML_Form" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="30" path="/" requireSSL="false" slidingExpiration="true" cookieless="AutoDetect"> </forms> </authentication> Now, I try to share one folder (one inside page) for not Authentificatied users: <location path="Recovery"> <system.web> <roleManager enabled="false" > </roleManager> <authentication mode="None"> </authentication> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="GET" path="image.aspx" /> <remove verb="GET" path="css.aspx" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </location> But when I create the page inside the shared folder, it can't get access to the assembly. And I see the error like this: Could not load file or assembly 'Admin' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. It also shows me the error: ASP.NET runtime error: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Does anybody know how to share (Authentification None) one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications?

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  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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  • Intellisense for custom config section problem with namespaces

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    I have just rolled a custom configuration section, created an accompanying schema document for Intellisense and added it to the Web.config's Schemas property as per Michael Stum's answer to another similar question. Unfortunately, and possibly due to me creating the XSD by hand with limited knowledge, the Intellisense relies on an xmlns attribute pointing to my XSD file's namespace being present in the custom config element. However, when running the project I get an Unrecognized attribute 'xmlns'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive error. I could probably just modify my XSD file to define the xmlns attribute for that element, however I am wondering if this is just a bandaid fix to a larger problem. I must confess I don't have a very good understanding of XML namespaces so this might be an oppportunity to set me straight on a few things. Here is the attributes for my XSD file's root xs:schema element: <xs:schema id="awesomeConfig" targetNamespace="http://awesome.com/schemas" xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... </xs:schema> And on creating the element in the Web.config file, Visual Studio 2008 automatically appends: <awesomeConfig xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas"></awesomeConfig> So have I misunderstood the meaning of the xs:schema attributes at all, or is the proper solution as simple as it seems?

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  • WCF DataContract Upcasting

    - by Jarred Froman
    I'm trying to take a datacontract object that I received on the server, do some manipulation on it and then return an upcasted version of it however it doesn't seem to be working. I can get it to work by using the KnownType or ServiceKnownType attributes, but I don't want to roundtrip all of the data. Below is an example: [DataContract] public class MyBaseObject { [DataMember] public int Id { get; set; } } [DataContract] public class MyDerivedObject : MyBaseObject { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://My.Web.Service")] public interface IServiceProvider { [OperationContract] List<MyBaseObject> SaveMyObjects(List<MyDerivedObject> myDerivedObjects); } public class ServiceProvider : IServiceProvider { public List<MyBaseObject> SaveMyObjects(List<MyDerivedObject> myDerivedObjects) { ... do some work ... myDerivedObjects[0].Id = 123; myDerivedObjects[1].Id = 456; myDerivedObjects[2].Id = 789; ... do some work ... return myDerivedObjects.Cast<MyBaseObject>().ToList(); } } Anybody have any ideas how to get this to work without having to recreate new objects or using the KnownType attributes?

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  • Word characteristics tags

    - by theBlinker
    I want to do a riddle AI chatbot for my AI class. So i figgured the input to the chatbot would be : Something like : "It is blue, and it is up, but it is not the ceiling" Translation : <Object X> <blue> <up> <!ceiling> </Object X> (Answer : sky?) So Input is a set of characteristics (existing \ not existing in the object), output is a matched, most likely object. The domain will be limited to a number of objects, i could input all attributes myself, but i was thinking : How could I programatically build a database of characteristics for a word? Is there such a database available? How could i tag a word, how could i programatically find all it's attributes? I was thinking on crawling wikipedia, or some forum, but i can't see it build any reliable word tag database. Any ideas on how i could achieve such a thing? Any ideas on some literature on the subject? Thank you

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  • Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

    - by Kevin Ivarsen
    When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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  • Discover generic types

    - by vittore
    Thanks @dtb for help, he advised really need piece of code for generic service locator static class Locator { private static class LocatorEntry<T> where T : ... { public static IDataManager<T> instance; } public static void Register<T>(IDataManager<T> instance) where T : ... { LocatorEntry<T>.instance = instance; } public static IDataManager<T> GetInstance<T>() where T : ... { return LocatorEntry<T>.instance; } } However in my previous version I used reflection on assembly to discover a hundred of DataManager's I want to write an method discover like the following void Discover() { var pManager = new ProtocolSQLDataManager(); Register(pManager); var rManager = new ResultSQLDataManager(); Register(rManager); var gType = typeof(ISQLDataAccessManager<>); foreach (Type type in Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().GetTypes()) { if (type.IsSubclassOf(gType) && !type.IsAbstract)) { var manager = Activator.CreateInstance(type); // put something here in order to make next line of code works Register<T>(manager); } } } How to cast type to appropriate type in order to make Register working( and call appropriate Register ?

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

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  • Internet Explorer table 1 pixel spacing problem

    - by Dennis G.
    I've found a strange problem with Internet Explorer related to table spacing and cannot find a way to work around it. An empty table results in a single pixel white space with Internet Explorer (6 and 7, 8 not yet tested), while all other browsers ignore the empty table. Here's a picture of the problem: And here is the minimum HTML code to reproduce the issue (please note that there are more margin/padding css attributes and table attributes specified than really needed, I just tested if this fixes IE's behavior): <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <body> <div style="width: 200px; border: 1px black solid"> <table border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0" style="margin: 0pt; padding: 0pt; border-collapse: collapse;"> <tr> <td style="padding: 0; margin: 0"> </td> </tr> </table> <div style="background: red"> Test </div> </div> </body> </html> I'm not using an empty table as specified in the example above, but this was the minimum code that displays this behavior. Any ideas on how to fix this and remove the white space with IE?

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  • tail call generated by clang 1.1 and 1.0 (llvm 2.7 and 2.6)

    - by ony
    After compilation next snippet of code with clang -O2 (or with online demo): #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> int flop(int x); int flip(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+1)*flop(x-1); } int flop(int x) { if (x == 0) return 1; return (x+0)*flip(x-1); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { printf("%d\n", flip(atoi(argv[1]))); } I'm getting next snippet of llvm assembly in flip: bb1.i: ; preds = %bb1 %4 = add nsw i32 %x, -2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] %5 = tail call i32 @flip(i32 %4) nounwind ; <i32> [#uses=1] %6 = mul nsw i32 %5, %2 ; <i32> [#uses=1] br label %flop.exit I thought that tail call means dropping current stack (i.e. return will be to the upper frame, so next instruction should be ret %5), but according to this code it will do mul for it. And in native assembly there is simple call without tail optimisation (even with appropriate flag for llc) Can sombody explain why clang generates such code? As well I can't understand why llvm have tail call if it can simply check that next ret will use result of prev call and later do appropriate optimisation or generate native equivalent of tail-call instruction?

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  • How to Show detail section only with out any space in Active Report

    - by Sunil Naudiyal
    i have a active report without any Page Header , Report Header and no any Footer type section. for more detail see attached image. Now issue is that When we run this report we got space before report detail. for more detail see attached image Below is my code Assembly asm = Assembly.GetAssembly(this.GetType()); System.IO.Stream stre = asm.GetManifestResourceStream(asm.GetName().Name + ".CoverPage.rpx"); using (XmlTextReader xr = new XmlTextReader(stre)) { arCoverPage.LoadLayout(xr); } //Get detail for Cover Page AddingReportSection(report, HeaderType.CoverPage); arCoverPage.DataSource = lstCoverPage; arCoverPage.Run(); I want remove this space.so please give me any suggestion/idea I also tried to set height of page but i am not get sucess. arCoverPage.PageSettings.DefaultPaperSize = false; arCoverPage.PageSettings.Gutter = 3.0F; arCoverPage.PageSettings.Orientation = DataDynamics.ActiveReports.Document.PageOrientation.Portrait; arCoverPage.PageSettings.PaperHeight = 5.0F; this.viReport.Document = arCoverPage.Document;

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