Search Results

Search found 729 results on 30 pages for 't1'.

Page 14/30 | < Previous Page | 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21  | Next Page >

• MySQL where condition but not limited by it

  - by Manny Calavera

  Hello. I would like to run a query on my database like this: SELECT SUM( t1.value ) AS total1, SUM( t2.value ) AS total2, SUM( t3.value ) AS total3, SUM( t4.value ) AS total4 FROM pay1 t1, pay2 t2, pay3 t3, pay4 t4 WHERE t1.date = '2010-04-29' AND t2.date = '2010-04-29' AND t3.date = '2010-04-29' AND t4.date = '2010-04-29' I am generating a report on payments and I would like to see a total of payments from each table based on the matching date. The problem is that some of the tables would not meet the condition of date and I want them to show up with 0 value if not. Currently, if any of the tables does not match the date, I get 0 results. I want to display value of 0 anywhere the date is not met and other fields should appear with the found values. The perfect operand for me would be "ANDOR" so that it won't be limited by any date that doesn't math in any table. Unfortunately, ANDOR does not exist as I am aware of so what should I do ? Can anyone help ? Thanks.

  Read the article

• mysql dynamic cursor

  - by machaa

  Here is the procedure I wrote- Cursors c1 & c2. c2 is inside c1, I tried declaring c2 below c1 (outside the c1 cursor) but then I is NOT taking the updated value :( Any suggestions to make it working would be helpful, Thanks create table t1(i int); create table t2(i int, j int); insert into t1(i) values(1), (2), (3), (4), (5); insert into t2(i, j) values(1, 6), (2, 7), (3, 8), (4, 9), (5, 10); delimiter $ CREATE PROCEDURE p1() BEGIN DECLARE I INT; DECLARE J INT; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE c1 CURSOR FOR SELECT i FROM t1; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN c1; REPEAT FETCH c1 INTO I; IF NOT done THEN select I; DECLARE c2 CURSOR FOR SELECT j FROM t2 WHERE i = I; OPEN c2; REPEAT FETCH c2 into J; IF NOT done THEN SELECT J; END IF; UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE c2; set done = 0; END IF; UNTIL done END REPEAT; CLOSE c1; END$ delimiter ;

  Read the article

• JSON VIEW using GROUP_CONCAT question

  - by Dan Beam

  Hey DBAs and overall smart dudes. I have a question for you. We use MySQL VIEWs to format our data as JSON when it's returned (as a BLOB), which is convenient (though not particularly nice on performance, but we already know this). But, I can't seem to get a particular query working right now (each row contains NULL when it should contain a created JSON object with the values of multiple JOINs). Here's the general idea: SELECT CONCAT( "{", "\"some_list\":[", GROUP_CONCAT( DISTINCT t1.id ), "],", "\"other_list\":[", GROUP_CONCAT( DISTINCT t2.id ), "],", "}" ) cool_json FROM table_name tn INNER JOIN ( some_table st ) ON st.some_id = tn.id LEFT JOIN ( another_table at, another_one ao, used_multiple_times t1 ) ON st.id = at.some_id AND at.different_id = ao.different_id AND ao.different_id = t1.id LEFT JOIN ( another_table2 at2, another_one2 ao2, used_multiple_times t2 ) ON st.id = at2.some_id AND at2.different_id = ao2.different_id AND ao2.different_id = t2.id GROUP BY tn.id ORDER BY tn.name Anybody know the problem here? Am I missing something I should be grouping by? It was working when I was only doing 1 LEFT JOIN & GROUP_CONCAT, but now with multiple JOINs / GROUP_CONCATs it's messing it up. When I move the GROUP_CONCATs from the "cool_json" field they work as expected, but I'd like my data formatted as JSON so I can decode it server-side or client-side in one step.

  Read the article

• mysql and trigger usage question

  - by dhruvbird

  I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

  Read the article

• Why the performance of following code is degrading when I use threads ?

  - by DotNetBeginner

  Why the performance of following code is degrading when I use threads ? **1.Without threads int[] arr = new int[100000000]; //Array elements - [0][1][2][3]---[100000000-1] addWithOutThreading(arr); // Time required for this operation - 1.16 sec Definition for addWithOutThreading public void addWithOutThreading(int[] arr) { UInt64 result = 0; for (int i = 0; i < 100000000; i++) { result = result + Convert.ToUInt64(arr[i]); } Console.WriteLine("Addition = " + result.ToString()); } **2.With threads int[] arr = new int[100000000]; int part = (100000000 / 4); UInt64 res1 = 0, res2 = 0, res3 = 0, res4 = 0; ThreadStart starter1 = delegate { addWithThreading(arr, 0, part, ref res1); }; ThreadStart starter2 = delegate { addWithThreading(arr, part, part * 2, ref res2); }; ThreadStart starter3 = delegate { addWithThreading(arr, part * 2, part * 3, ref res3); }; ThreadStart starter4 = delegate { addWithThreading(arr, part * 3, part * 4, ref res4); }; Thread t1 = new Thread(starter1); Thread t2 = new Thread(starter2); Thread t3 = new Thread(starter3); Thread t4 = new Thread(starter4); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t3.Start(); t4.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); t3.Join(); t4.Join(); Console.WriteLine("Addition = "+(res1+res2+res3+res4).ToString()); // Time required for this operation - 1.30 sec Definition for addWithThreading public void addWithThreading(int[] arr,int startIndex, int endIndex,ref UInt64 result) { for (int i = startIndex; i < endIndex; i++) { result = result + Convert.ToUInt64(arr[i]); } }

  Read the article

• SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

  - by TheBlueSky

  Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Pairs from single list

  - by Apalala

  Often enough, I've found the need to process a list by pairs. I was wondering which would be the pythonic and efficient way to do it, and found this on Google: pairs = zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) I thought that was pythonic enough, but after a recent discussion involving idioms versus efficiency, I decided to do some tests: import time from itertools import islice, izip def pairs_1(t): return zip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_2(t): return izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) def pairs_3(t): return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) A = range(10000) B = xrange(len(A)) def pairs_4(t): # ignore value of t! t = B return izip(islice(t,None,None,2), islice(t,1,None,2)) for f in pairs_1, pairs_2, pairs_3, pairs_4: # time the pairing s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) t1 = time.time() - s # time using the pairs s = time.time() for i in range(1000): p = f(A) for a, b in p: pass t2 = time.time() - s print t1, t2, t2-t1 These were the results on my computer: 1.48668909073 2.63187503815 1.14518594742 0.105381965637 1.35109519958 1.24571323395 0.00257992744446 1.46182489395 1.45924496651 0.00251388549805 1.70076990128 1.69825601578 If I'm interpreting them correctly, that should mean that the implementation of lists, list indexing, and list slicing in Python is very efficient. It's a result both comforting and unexpected. Is there another, "better" way of traversing a list in pairs? Note that if the list has an odd number of elements then the last one will not be in any of the pairs. Which would be the right way to ensure that all elements are included? I added these two suggestions from the answers to the tests: def pairwise(t): it = iter(t) return izip(it, it) def chunkwise(t, size=2): it = iter(t) return izip(*[it]*size) These are the results: 0.00159502029419 1.25745987892 1.25586485863 0.00222492218018 1.23795199394 1.23572707176 Results so far Most pythonic and very efficient: pairs = izip(t[::2], t[1::2]) Most efficient and very pythonic: pairs = izip(*[iter(t)]*2) It took me a moment to grok that the first answer uses two iterators while the second uses a single one. To deal with sequences with an odd number of elements, the suggestion has been to augment the original sequence adding one element (None) that gets paired with the previous last element, something that can be achieved with itertools.izip_longest().

  Read the article

• error invoking store procedure with input parameter from ADO.Net

  - by George2

  Hello everyone, I am using VSTS 2008 + C# + .Net 3.5 + ADO.Net. Here is my code and related error message. The error message says, @Param1 is not supplied, but actually it is supplied in my code. Any ideas what is wrong? System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Procedure or function 'Pr_Foo' expects parameter '@Param1', which was not supplied. class Program { private static SqlCommand _command; private static SqlConnection connection; private static readonly string _storedProcedureName = "Pr_Foo"; private static readonly string connectionString = "server=.;integrated Security=sspi;initial catalog=FooDB"; public static void Prepare() { connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); _command = connection.CreateCommand(); _command.CommandText = _storedProcedureName; _command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; } public static void Dispose() { connection.Close(); } public static void Run() { try { SqlParameter Param1 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param1", SqlDbType.Int, 300101); Param1.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param2 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param2", SqlDbType.Int, 100); portal_SiteInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; SqlParameter Param3 = _command.Parameters.Add("@Param3", SqlDbType.Int, 200); portal_RoleInfoID.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; _command.ExecuteScalar(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e); } } static void Main(string[] args) { try { Prepare(); Thread t1 = new Thread(Program.Run); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.Message + "\t" + ex.StackTrace); } } } thanks in avdance, George

  Read the article

• (Oracle) How get total number of results when using a pagination query?

  - by BestPractices

  I am using Oracle 10g and the following paradigm to get a page of 15 results as a time (so that when the user is looking at page 2 of a search result, they see records 16-30). select * from ( select rownum rnum, a.* from (my_query) a where rownum <= 30 ) where rnum > 15; Right now I'm having to run a separate SQL statement to do a "select count" on "my_query" in order to get the total number of results for my_query (so that I can show it to the user and use it to figure out total number of pages, etc). Is there any way to get the total number of results without doing this via a second query, i.e. by getting it from above query? I've tried adding "max(rownum)", but it doesn't seem to work (I get an error [ORA-01747] that seems to indicate it doesnt like me having the keyword rownum in the group by). My rationale for wanting to get this from the original query rather than doing it in a separate SQL statement is that "my_query" is an expensive query so I'd rather not run it twice (once to get the count, and once to get the page of data) if I dont have to; but whatever solution I can come up with to get the number of results from within a single query (and at the same time get the page of data I need) should not add much if any additional overhead, if possible. Please advise. Here is exactly what I'm trying to do for which I receive an ORA-01747 error because I believe it doesnt like me having ROWNUM in the group by. Note, If there is another solution that doesnt use max(ROWNUM), but something else, that is perfectly fine too. This solution was my first thought as to what might work. SELECT * FROM (SELECT r.*, ROWNUM RNUM, max(ROWNUM) FROM (SELECT t0.ABC_SEQ_ID AS c0, t0.FIRST_NAME, t0.LAST_NAME, t1.SCORE FROM ABC t0, XYZ t1 WHERE (t0.XYZ_ID = 751) AND t0.XYZ_ID = t1.XYZ_ID ORDER BY t0.RANK ASC) r WHERE ROWNUM <= 30 GROUP BY r.*, ROWNUM) WHERE RNUM > 15

  Read the article

• JoinColumn name not used in sql

  - by Vladimir

  Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Sequential access to asynchronous sockets

  - by Lars A. Brekken

  I have a server that has several clients C1...Cn to each of which there is a TCP connection established. There are less than 10,000 clients. The message protocol is request/response based, where the server sends a request to a client and then the client sends a response. The server has several threads, T1...Tm, and each of these may send requests to any of the clients. I want to make sure that only one of these threads can send a request to a specific client at any one time, while the other threads wanting to send a request to the same client will have to wait. I do not want to block threads from sending requests to different clients at the same time. E.g. If T1 is sending a request to C3, another thread T2 should not be able to send anything to C3 until T1 has received its response. I was thinking of using a simple lock statement on the socket: lock (c3Socket) { // Send request to C3 // Get response from C3 } I am using asynchronous sockets, so I may have to use Monitor instead: Monitor.Enter(c3Socket); // Before calling .BeginReceive() And Monitor.Exit(c3Socket); // In .EndReceive I am worried about stuff going wrong and not letting go of the monitor and therefore blocking all access to a client. I'm thinking that my heartbeat thread could use Monitor.TryEnter() with a timeout and throw out sockets that it cannot get the monitor for. Would it make sense for me to make the Begin and End calls synchronous in order to be able to use the lock() statement? I know that I would be sacrificing concurrency for simplicity in this case, but it may be worth it. Am I overlooking anything here? Any input appreciated.

  Read the article

• jquery show / hide div on click even in a slideshow?

  - by KnockKnockWhosThere

  Is it possible to combine a slideshow and show / hide div functionality? My html structure is below, and basically, I'm trying to get the tabs a links to open up the div with the corresponding class if a user clicks on it. If a user doesn't click on it, it should still just cycle through each image. So, if the images are rotating, and I click on <a class="t2"> then would open. The thing is, it's unknown how many divs / tabs there will be, but they'll always be named t{n}. <div id="tab-content"> <div class="t1">content</div> <div class="t2">lorem ipsum</div> <div class="t3">knock knock</div> </div> <div id="nav"> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li class="t1"><a class="t1" href="#">tab 1</a></li> <li class="t2"><a class="t2" href="#">tab 2</a></li> <li class="t3"><a class="t3" href="#">tab 3</a></li> </ul> </div> </div>

  Read the article

• Stopping work from one thread using another thread

  - by 113483626144458436514

  Not sure if my title is worded well, but whatever :) I have two threads: the main thread with the work that needs to be done, and a worker thread that contains a form with a progress bar and a cancel button. In normal code, it would be the other way around, but I can't do that in this case. When the user clicks the cancel button, a prompt is displayed asking if he wants to really cancel the work. The problem is that work continues on the main thread. I can get the main thread to stop work and such, but I would like for it to stop doing work when he clicks "Yes" on the prompt. Example: // Main thread work starts here t1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(progressForm_Start)); t1.Start(); // Working for (i = 0; i <= 10000; i++) { semaphore.WaitOne(); if (pBar.Running) bgworker_ProgressChanged(i); semaphore.Release(); if (pBar.IsCancelled) break; } t1.Abort(); // Main thread work ends here // Start progress bar form in another thread void progressForm_Start() { pBar.Status("Starting"); pBar.ShowDialog(); } I could theoretically include a prompt in the cancelWatch() function, but then I would have to do that everywhere I'm implementing this class.

  Read the article

• explode is not working to split string

  - by pmms

  we unable to split the string following code.please Help us. <?php $i=0; $myFile = "testFile.txt"; $fh = fopen($myFile, 'a') or die("can't open file"); $stringData = "no\t"; fwrite($fh, $stringData); $stringData = "username \t"; fwrite($fh, $stringData); $stringData ="password \t"; fwrite ($fh,$stringData); $newline ="\r\n"; fwrite ($fh,$newline); $stringData1 = "1\t"; fwrite($fh, $stringData1); $stringData1 = "srinivas \t"; fwrite($fh, $stringData1); $stringData1 ="malayappa \t"; fwrite ($fh,$stringData1); fclose($fh); ?> $fh = fopen("testFile.txt", "r"); $ while (!feof($fh)) { $line = fgets($fh); echo $line; } fclose($fh); $Beatles = array('pmm','malayappa','sreenivas','PHP'); for($i=0;$i<count($Beatles);$i++) { if($i==2) { echo $Beatles[$i-1]; echo $Beatles[$i-2]; } } $pass_ar=array(); $fh = fopen("testFile.txt", "r"); while (!feof($fh)) { $line = fgets($fh); echo $line; $t1=explode(" ",$line); print_r($t1); array_push($pass_ar,t1); } fclose($fh); Thanks & Regards pmms

  Read the article

• .NET Error with Dynamic T-SQL

  - by Phillip Theriault

  I am trying to create a TableAdapter in .NET using a stored procedure, but I'm getting an error "Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'". I have narrowed down the problem in the stored procedure to the following lines: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber BETWEEN 1 and 10' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' @NumRows is an input parameter that defaults to 0. However, if I remove either of those lines everything works fine (both WHERE clauses work fine by themselves when there is no IF/ELSE statement). It almost looks like .NET is ignoring the IF/ELSE and attempting to add the WHERE clause twice. It also works fine if I change it like so: IF @NumRows > 0 SET @SQL += N'' ELSE SET @SQL += N' WHERE T1.RowNumber > 0' One of the WHERE clauses has been removed, and there's no longer a conflict on the .NET side. So I'm pretty sure it has to do with the 2 WHERE clauses, and not with anything else. The sproc runs perfectly fine in SQL Server, and it even runs in .NET despite the error if I click "Preview Data". The only problem is that it won't auto-populate the list of fields, which I need for creating a report. Has anybody seen this before and have a suggestion?

  Read the article

• Alter a function as a parameter before evaluating it in R?

  - by Shane

  Is there any way, given a function passed as a parameter, to alter its input parameter string before evaluating it? Here's pseudo-code for what I'm hoping to achieve: test.func <- function(a, b) { # here I want to alter the b expression before evaluating it: b(..., val1=a) } Given the function call passed to b, I want to add in a as another parameter without needing to always specify ... in the b call. So the output from this test.func call should be: test.func(a="a", b=paste(1, 2)) "1" "2" "a" Edit: Another way I could see doing something like this would be if I could assign the additional parameter within the scope of the parent function (again, as pseudo-code); in this case a would be within the scope of t1 and hence t2, but not globally assigned: t2 <- function(...) { paste(a=a, ...) } t1 <- function(a, b) { local( { a <<- a; b } ) } t1(a="a", b=t2(1, 2)) This is somewhat akin to currying in that I'm nesting the parameter within the function itself. Edit 2: Just to add one more comment to this: I realize that one related approach could be to use "prototype-based programming" such that things would be inherited (which could be achieved with the proto package). But I was hoping for a easier way to simply alter the input parameters before evaluating in R.

  Read the article

• Multithreading using pthread in C++ with shared variables

  - by Saviour Self

  I'm new to threading (and C/C++ for that matter), and I'm attempting to use multiple threads to access shared variables. In the main, I've created a variable char inputarray[100]; Thread 1: This thread will be reading data from stdin in 2 byte bursts, and appending them to the inputarray. (input by feeding a file in) Thread 2: This thread will be reading data 1 byte at a time, performing a calculation, and putting its data into an output array. Thread 3: This thread will be outputting data from the output array in 2 byte bursts. (stdout) I've attempted the input part and got it working by passing a struct, but would like to do it without using a struct, but it has been giving me problems. If I can get input down, I'm sure I'll be able to use a similar strategy to complete output. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Below is a rough template for the input thread. #include <stdio.h> #include <pthread.h> using namespace std; void* input(void* arg) { char reading[3]; fread(reading,1,2,stdin); //append to char inputarray[]..??? } int main() { char inputarray[100]; pthread_t t1; pthread_create(&t1, NULL, &input, &inputarray); void *result; pthread_join(t1,&result); return 0; }

  Read the article

• How to mimic polymorphism in classes with template methods (c++)?

  - by davide

  in the problem i am facing i need something which works more or less like a polymorphic class, but which would allow for virtual template methods. the point is, i would like to create an array of subproblems, each one being solved by a different technique implemented in a different class, but holding the same interface, then pass a set of parameters (which are functions/functors - this is where templates jump up) to all the subproblems and get back a solution. if the parameters would be, e.g., ints, this would be something like: struct subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter)=0; } struct subproblem0: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double& solution, double parameter){...}; } struct subproblem1: public subproblem { ... virtual void solve (double* solution, double parameter){...}; } int main{ subproblem problem[2]; subproblem[0] = new subproblem0(); subproblem[1] = new subproblem1(); double argument0(0), argument1(1), sol0[2], sol1[2]; for(unsigned int i(0);i<2;++i) { problem[i]->solve( &(sol0[i]) , argument0); problem[i]->solve( &(sol1[i]) , argument1); } return 0; } but the problem is, i need the arguments to be something like Arg<T1,T2> argument0(f1,f2) and thus the solve method to be something of the likes of template<T1,T2> solve (double* solution, Arg<T1,T2> parameter) which cant obviously be declared virtual ( so cant be called from a pointer to the base class)... now i'm pretty stuck and don't know how to procede...

  Read the article

• Replace beginning words(SQL SERVER 2005, SET BASED)

  - by Newbie

  I have the below tables. tblInput Id WordPosition Words -- ----------- ----- 1 1 Hi 1 2 How 1 3 are 1 4 you 2 1 Ok 2 2 This 2 3 is 2 4 me tblReplacement Id ReplacementWords --- ---------------- 1 Hi 2 are 3 Ok 4 This The tblInput holds the list of words while the tblReplacement hold the words that we need to search in the tblInput and if a match is found then we need to replace those. But the problem is that, we need to replace those words if any match is found at the beginning. i.e. in the tblInput, in case of ID 1, the words that will be replaced is only 'Hi' and not 'are' since before 'are', 'How' is there and it is not in the tblReplacement list. in case of Id 2, the words that will be replaced are 'Ok' & 'This'. Since these both words are present in the tblReplacement table and after the first word i.e. 'Ok' is replaced, the second word which is 'This' here comes first in the list of ID category 2 . Since it is available in the tblReplacement, and is the first word now, so this will also be replaced. So the desired output will be Id NewWordsAfterReplacement --- ------------------------ 1 How 1 are 1 you 2 is 2 me My approach so far: ;With Cte1 As( Select t1.Id ,t1.Words ,t2.ReplacementWords From tblInput t1 Cross Join tblReplacement t2) ,Cte2 As( Select Id, NewWordsAfterReplacement = REPLACE(Words,ReplacementWords,'') From Cte1) Select * from Cte2 where NewWordsAfterReplacement <> '' But I am not getting the desired output. It is replacing all the matching words. Urgent help needed*.( SET BASED )* I am using SQL SERVER 2005. Thanks

  Read the article

• Not Able to call The method Asynchronously in the Unit Test.

  - by user43838

  Hi everyone, I am trying to call a method that passes an object called parameters. public void LoadingDataLockFunctionalityTest() { DataCache_Accessor target = DataCacheTest.getNewDataCacheInstance(); target.itemsLoading.Add("WebFx.Caching.TestDataRetrieverFactorytestsync", true); DataParameters parameters = new DataParameters("WebFx.Core", "WebFx.Caching.TestDataRetrieverFactory", "testsync"); parameters.CachingStrategy = CachingStrategy.TimerDontWait; parameters.CacheDuration = 0; string data = (string)target.performGetForTimerDontWaitStrategy(parameters); TestSyncDataRetriever.SimulateLoadingForFiveSeconds = true; Thread t1 = new Thread(delegate() { string s = (string)target.performGetForTimerDontWaitStrategy(parameters); Console.WriteLine(s ?? String.Empty); }); t1.Start(); t1.Join(); Thread.Sleep(1000); ReaderWriterLockSlim rw = DataCache_Accessor.GetLoadingLock(parameters); Assert.IsTrue(rw.IsWriteLockHeld); Assert.IsNotNull(data); } My test is failing all the time and i am not able step through the method.. Can someone please put me in the right direction Thanks

  Read the article

• C++ Template Iterator error

  - by gprime

  I am going over some code i wrote in 2006 as an undergrad. It's a simple genetic algorithm library written in C++ using templates. It use to work in 2006 when i coded it with visual studio, but now when i am trying to run it in xcode i get compile errors. This function is giving me errors: friend bool operator==(const TSPGenome<T> & t1, const TSPGenome<T> & t2) { // loop through each interator and check to see if the two genomes have the same values if(t1.genome_vec->size() != t2.genome_vec->size()) return false; else { // iterate through each vector<T>::iterator it_t1; vector<T>::iterator it_t2; it_t1 = t1.genome_vec->begin(); for(it_t2 = t2.genome_vec->begin(); it_t2 != t2.genome_vec->end(); ++it_t2, ++it_t1) { if(*it_t2 != *it_t1) return false; } } // everything seems good return true; } xcode complains about these two lines not having ; before it_t1 and it_t2. vector<T>::iterator it_t1; vector<T>::iterator it_t2; Is it because the vector type it T? I declared it in the class as follows: template <typename T> class TSPGenome : public Genome { Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How can solve "Cross-thread operation not valid"?

  - by Phsika

  i try to start multi Thread but i can not it returns to me error: Cross-thread operation not valid: 'listBox1' thread was created to control outside access from another thread was. MyCodes: public DataTable dTable; public DataTable dtRowsCount; Thread t1; ThreadStart ts1; void ExcelToSql() { // SelectDataFromExcel(); ts1 = new ThreadStart(SelectDataFromExcel); t1 = new Thread(ts1); t1.Start(); } void SelectDataFromExcel() { string connectionString = @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\Source\Addresses.xlsx;Extended Properties=""Excel 12.0;HDR=YES;"""; OleDbConnection excelConnection = new OleDbConnection(connectionString); string[] Sheets = new string[] { "Sayfa1"}; excelConnection.Open(); // This code will open excel file. OleDbCommand dbCommand; OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter; // progressBar1.Minimum = 1; foreach (var sheet in Sheets) { dbCommand = new OleDbCommand("select * From[" + sheet + "$]", excelConnection); //progressBar1.Maximum = CountRowsExcel(sheet).Rows.Count; // progressBar2.Value = i + 1; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); **listBox1.Items.Add("Tablo ismi: "+sheet.ToUpper()+"Satir Adeti: "+CountRowsExcel(sheet).Rows.Count.ToString()+" ");** dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(dbCommand); dTable = new DataTable(); dataAdapter.Fill(dTable); dTable.TableName = sheet.ToUpper(); dTable.Dispose(); dataAdapter.Dispose(); dbCommand.Dispose(); ArrangedDataList(dTable); FillSqlTable(dTable, dTable.TableName); } excelConnection.Close(); excelConnection.Dispose(); }

  Read the article

• Is it possible to aggregate over differing where clauses?

  - by BenAlabaster

  Is it possible to calculate multiple aggregates based on differing where clauses? For instance: Let's say I have two tables, one for Invoice and one for InvoiceLineItems. The invoice table has a total field for the invoice total, and each of the invoice line item records in the InvoiceLineItems table contains a field that denotes whether the line item is discountable or not. I want three sum totals, one where Discountable = 0 and one where Discountable = 1 and one where Discountable is irrelevant. Such that my output would be: InvoiceNumber Total DiscountableTotal NonDiscountableTotal ------------- ----- ----------------- -------------------- 1 53.27 27.27 16.00 2 38.94 4.76 34.18 3... The only way I've found so far is by using something like: Select i.InvoiceNumber, i.Total, t0.Total As DiscountableTotal, t1.Total As NonDiscountableTotal From Invoices i Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount), From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 0 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t0 On i.InvoiceNumber = t0.InvoiceNumber Left Join ( Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) From InvoiceLineItems Where Discountable = 1 Group By InvoiceNumber ) As t1 On i.InvoiceNumber = t1.InvoiceNumber This seems somewhat cumbersome, it would be nice if I could do something like: Select InvoiceNumber, Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 1 As Discountable Sum(Amount) Where Discountable = 0 As NonDiscountable Group By InvoiceNumber I realize that SQL is completely invalid, but it logically portrays what I'm trying to do... TIA P.S. I need this to run on a SQL Server 2000 instance, but I am also interested (for future reference) if/how I would achieve this on SQL Server 2005/2008.

  Read the article

• Why can't I dynamically add rows to a HTML table using JavaScript in Internet Explorer?

  - by karlthorwald

  In Firefox it works, in my Internet Explorer 6 or 7 it doesn't: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function newLine() { var tdmod = document.createElement('td'); tdmod.appendChild(document.createTextNode("dynamic")); var tr = document.createElement('tr'); tr.appendChild(tdmod); var tt = document.getElementById("t1"); tt.appendChild(tr); } </script> </head> <body> <a href="#" onclick="newLine()">newLine</a> <table id="t1" border="1"> <tr> <td> static </td> </tr> </table> </body> The user clicks on the link "newLine" and new rows should be added to the table. How to make this work also in IE? Edit: Thanks to the accepted answer I changed it like this and now it works: <table border="1"> <tbody id="t1"> <tr> <td> static </td> </tr> </tbody> </table>

  Read the article

• changes in main.xml are not reflected in the android app in netbeans

  - by nitish712

  I am new to android apps. I am using the netbeans 7.0.1 IDE to develop android apps. I have written the following code in the main java file: package com.test.helloworld; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.TextView; public class helloworld extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); TextView t1=new TextView(this); t1.setText("hello world..!!!!"); setContentView(t1); } } This was working fine. I edited the main.xml file to display a textfield and button as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <Button android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/button_send"/> <EditText android:id="@+id/edit_message" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:hint="@string/edit_message"/> </LinearLayout> Of course I have added all the corresponding strings in strings.xml. But when I try to run my app these weren't displaying... :( . I mean the same string that was displayed previously was being displayed. Can anybody figure out what is the mistake? thanx...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21  | Next Page >