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  • How to use git to manage one codebase but have different environments

    - by emostar
    I'm using git for a personal project at the moment and have run into a problem of having one codebase for two different environments and was wondering what the cleanest way to use git would be. Main Desktop I Use this machine for most of my development. I have a git repository here that I cloned off of an empty repository that I use on my internal server. I do most of my work here and push back to the internal server so I can use that as a master of truth and to ease making backups. Laptop I sometimes want to code on the road, so I did a clone from the internal server and created a new branch called "laptop-branch". Unfortunately some directories MSVC++ version are different than from the Main Desktop environment. I just modified the files in the "laptop-branch" and committed them there. Now I did a lot of changes while on vacation with my laptop, and want to push them to origin, but don't want the changes I made that were related to directories and compiler versions to be pushed back to origin. What would be the best way to get this done?

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  • Execute client & server side code with one click?

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am not sure if my design have flaw but would like to know what others have to say, i am in a situation where i am trying to acheive two things in one click. using : asp.net web form i have a web form with few textbox and a gridview control and a button. if i click on the button i am executing two things 1) asynchronously get data from server to client (working great) and able to display the data in the textboxes. 2) same click i want to bind the gridview. <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="cphMaster" runat="server"> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1' >Id:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtId" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <asp:Button ID="btnSubmit" OnClientClick="LoadDataById();" runat="server" Text="Submit" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" /> <br /> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtPurpose" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> <br /> <br /> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:Content> server side protected void btnSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { GridView1.DataSource = laodData(int.Parse(txtId.Text)); GridView1.DataBind(); } Jquery: function LoadVisitBasicByVisitId() { ContactServiceProxy.invoke({ serviceMethod: "GetDataById", data: { request: request }, callback: function(response) { processCompletedContactStore(response); }, error: function(xhr, errorMsg, thrown) { postErrorAndUnBlockUI(xhr, errorMsg, thrown); } }); return false; } recap: 1) jquery script execute asynchronously to get data from server to client and display in the textboxes 2) server side code to bind the gridview.

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  • when i set property(retain), one "self" = one "retain"?

    - by Walter
    although I'm about to finish my first app, I'm still confused about the very basic memory management..I've read through many posts here and apple document, but I'm still puzzled.. For example..I'm currently doing things like this to add a label programmatically: @property (retain, nonatomic) UILabel *showTime; @sythesize showTime; showTime = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(45, 4, 200, 36)]; [self.showTime setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", time]]; [self.showTime setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"HelveticaRoundedLT-Bold" size:23]]; [self.showTime setTextColor:numColor]; self.showTime.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self addSubview:self.showTime]; [showTime release]; this is my current practice, for UILabel, UIButton, UIImageView, etc... [Alloc init] it without self., coz I know this will retain twice.. but after the allocation, I put back the "self." to set the attributes.. My gut feel tells me I am doing wrong, but it works superficially and I found no memory leak in analyze and instruments.. can anyone give my advice? when I use "self." to set text and set background color, does it retain one automatically? THX so much!

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  • CSS: how to move element from one column to another one without changing the html ?

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm using css to edit the content of a page (NB. I cannot edit html code). I have 2 columns div1, div2. Each columns have several children (containing text). If the block has 2 or more lines of text all successive content is automatically moved down. I need to move a chidlren from the first column to the second one, in the middle. I was considering to use absolute positioning but then I realize how children are not anymore moving down as the number of text lines increases. How can I solve this ? <div id=div1> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> </div> <div id=div2> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> <div> blabla </div> </div> thanks

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  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

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  • Allowing user to type only one "."

    - by Tartar
    I am trying to implement a simple javascript-html calculator. What i want to do is,typing only one '.' by the user. How can i control this ? Here is the code that i tried. I can already find the number of '.' but i'am confused now also this replaceAll function is not replacing '.' with empty string. String.prototype.replaceAll = function(search, replace) { //if replace is null, return original string otherwise it will //replace search string with 'undefined'. if(!replace) return this; return this.replace(new RegExp('[' + search + ']', 'g'), replace); }; function calculate(){ var value = document.calculator.text.value; var valueArray = value.split(""); var arrayLenght = valueArray.length; var character = "."; var charCount = 0; for(i=0;i<arrayLenght;i++){ if (valueArray[i]===character) { charCount += 1; } } if(charCount>1){ var newValue=value.replaceAll(".",""); alert(newValue); } }

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  • WPF - Only want one expander open at a time in grouped Listbox

    - by Portsmouth
    I have a UserControl with a templated grouped listbox with expanders and only want one expander open at any time. I have browsed through the site but haven't found anything except binding the IsExpanded to IsSelected which isn't quite what I want. I am trying to put some code in the Expanded event that would loop through Expanders and close all the ones that aren't the expander passed in the Expanded event. I can't seem to figure out how to get at them. I've tried ListBox.Items.Groups but didn't see how to get at them and tried ListBox.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem (or Index) but nothing came back. Thanks <ListBox Name="ListBox"> <ListBox.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Border BorderBrush="CadetBlue" BorderThickness="1"> <Expander BorderThickness="0,0,0,1" Expanded="Expander_Expanded" Focusable="False" IsExpanded="{Binding IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType= {x:Type ListBoxItem}}}" > <Expander.Header> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="30" Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=Name}" Margin="5,0,0,0" MinWidth="200" Padding="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text=" Setups: " VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right"/> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=ItemCount}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Expander.Header> <Expander.Content> <Grid Background="white" > <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </Expander.Content> <Expander.Style > <Style TargetType="{x:Type Expander}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="true"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop Color="WhiteSmoke" Offset="0.0" /> <GradientStop Color="Orange" Offset="1.0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="false" <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value>

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  • Dynamic Overlays slowing down Google Maps (Android 2.1) on Nexus One

    - by Soumya Simanta
    Hi, I'm trying to create a dynamic ItemizedOverylay (please see the code below) on Google Maps (Android 2.1) on a Nexus One. In my Activity (that extends MapActivity) I'm creating a data thread that is receiving data from the network. A 'handler' is used to communicate the data from the receiving thread to map activity. This data contains the locations (lat, lon) of the markers that I want to overlay on my map. The location of each marker is dynamic (i.e., it changes every time I receive new data from the network.) refreshItems(ArrayList<OverlayItem> newItems) method in invoked inside the handleMessage() of the handler. There are around 11 markers in the ArrayList that is passed to refreshItems I can see the markers overlayed on the map. However, I've two issues: The old markers are not removed from the map. After a while I see a trail of markers. The map doesn't respond to any touch commands. I cannot move the map or zoom in or zoom out. After a while I see a system warning that my app is not responding message. Any idea what's wrong here ? Thanks. public class MyItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay { private ArrayList<OverlayItem> overlayItems; public CoTItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker) { super(boundCenter(defaultMarker)); overlayItems = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); populate(); } public void addNewItem(GeoPoint location, String markerText, String snippet) { overlayItems.add(new OverlayItem(location, markerText, snippet)); populate(); } public void removeItem(int index) { overlayItems.remove(index); populate(); } public void refreshItems(ArrayList<OverlayItem> newItems) { // remove all existing items for (int i = 0; i < cotoverlayItems.size(); i++) { overlayItems.remove(i); } // copy all the times if (newItems != null && cotoverlayItems.size() == 0) { overlayItems.addAll(newItems); } populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int index) { return overlayItems.get(index); } @Override public int size() { return overlayItems.size(); } }

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  • WPF - Only want one expander open at a time

    - by Portsmouth
    I have a UserControl with a templated grouped listbox with expanders and only want one expander open at any time. I have browsed through the site but haven't found anything except binding the IsExpanded to IsSelected which isn't quite what I want. I am trying to put some code in the Expanded event that would loop through Expanders and close all the ones that aren't the expander passed in the Expanded event. I can't seem to figure out how to get at them. I've tried ListBox.Items.Groups but didn't see how to get at them and tried ListBox.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem (or Index) but nothing came back. Thanks <ListBox Name="ListBox"> <ListBox.GroupStyle > <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Border BorderBrush="CadetBlue" BorderThickness="1"> <Expander BorderThickness="0,0,0,1" Expanded="Expander_Expanded" Focusable="False" IsExpanded="{Binding IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType= {x:Type ListBoxItem}}}" > <Expander.Header> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="30" Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=Name}" Margin="5,0,0,0" MinWidth="200" Padding="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text=" Setups: " VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right"/> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=ItemCount}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Expander.Header> <Expander.Content> <Grid Background="white" > <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </Expander.Content> <Expander.Style > <Style TargetType="{x:Type Expander}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="true"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop Color="WhiteSmoke" Offset="0.0" /> <GradientStop Color="Orange" Offset="1.0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="false" <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> </code>

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  • [How to] Checkbox :: Select one at a time

    - by neo-nant
    This is the code section from inno setup.My intention is to make two Checkbox where at a time one is being selected. But this code return error when first checkbox is clicked. [code] procedure CheckBoxOnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if CheckBox.Checked then ///error:"Could not call proc" [sud it be global if then how to or what to change?] BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END; end; procedure Box2OnClick(Sender: TObject); var Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin if Box2.Checked then ///error:same BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbChecked; Box2.State := cbUnchecked; END else BEGIN CheckBox.State := cbUnchecked; Box2.State := cbChecked; END; end; procedure CreateTheWizardPages; var Page: TWizardPage; Box2,CheckBox: TNewCheckBox; begin { TButton and others } Page := CreateCustomPage(wpWelcome, '', ''); CheckBox := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); CheckBox.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(50); CheckBox.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; CheckBox.Height := ScaleY(17); CheckBox.Caption := 'Do this'; CheckBox.Checked := True; CheckBox.OnClick := @CheckBoxOnClick; CheckBox.Parent := Page.Surface; Box2 := TNewCheckBox.Create(Page); Box2.Top :=ScaleY(8)+ScaleX(70); Box2.Width := Page.SurfaceWidth; Box2.Height := ScaleY(17); Box2.Caption := 'No,Thanks.'; Box2.Checked := False; Box2.OnClick := @Box2OnClick; Box2.Parent := Page.Surface; end; procedure InitializeWizard(); //var begin { Custom wizard pages } CreateTheWizardPages; end; Please tell me where to change..

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  • .NET Application broken on one PC, unhandleable exception

    - by Bobby
    Hello people. I have a .NET 2.0 application with nothing fancy in it. It worked until yesterday on every PC I installed or copied it to, no matter if 2.0, 3.0, 3.5 or 3.5 SP1 was installed, no matter if it was Win2000, XP or even Win7 (in total 100+ machines). Yesterday I did my normal installation procedure and wanted to start it one time to check if everything is working...and it wasn't. The program crashed hard leaving me with the uninformative "Do you wanna report this error?" dialog. The problem is an exception in the Main(String[] args) routine of my application. The event viewer is showing the following entry: Event Type: ErrorEvent Source: .NET Runtime 2.0 Error Reporting Event Category: None Event ID: 5000 Date: 05/05/2010 Time: 16:09:09 User: N/A Computer: myClientPC Description: EventType clr20r3, P1 apomenu.exe, P2 1.4.90.53, P3 4bdedea4, P4 system.configuration, P5 2.0.0.0, P6 4889de74, P7 1a6, P8 136, P9 ioibmurhynrxkw0zxkyrvfn0boyyufow, P10 NIL. Well...great information. After a lot of searching I finally was able to get further information about this exception (by adding a handler for UnhandledExceptions directly in My.MyApplication.New(), Application.Designer.vb): System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Configuration system failed to initialize at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.EnsureInit(String configKey) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.PrepareClientConfigSystem(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigSystem.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Net.Configuration.SettingsSectionInternal.get_Section() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.InitializeSockets() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.get_SupportsIPv4() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.get_HostName() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.RegisterChannel(Boolean SecureChannel) at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.Run(String[] commandLine) at MyAppNameHere.My.MyApplication.Main(String[] Args) in 17d14f5c-a337-4978-8281-53493378c1071.vb:Line 81. And at this point I'm stuck...I'm out of ideas. I'm not using any kind of configuration system from the framework (no reference to System.Configuration, and there never was a MyAppnameHere.exe.config generated or distributed, nor have I seen this error before). I also found a bug report at Microsoft (Google Cache) about this bug (in another context, though). But as it seems, they won't even look at it. Every help is greatly appreciated! Edit: I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Prof.. Crash happens in Release- and Debug-Build on the client machine. Debugging the application directly on this machine is out of question I fear, 300+ Miles and they only have two computers to work with.

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  • JPA One To Many Relationship Persistence Bug

    - by Brian
    Hey folks, I've got a really weird problem with a bi-directional relationship in jpa (hibernate implementation). A User is based in one Region, and a Region can contain many Users. So...relationship is as follows: Region object: @OneToMany(mappedBy = "region", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Set<User> getUsers() { return users; } public void setUsers(Set<User> users) { this.users = users; } User object: @ManyToOne(cascade = {CascadeType.PERSIST, CascadeType.MERGE}, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name = "region_fk") public Region getRegion() { return region; } public void setRegion(Region region) { this.region = region; } So, the relationship as you can see above is Lazy on the region side, ie, I don't want the region to eager load all the users. Therefore, I have the following code within my DAO layer to add a user to an existing user to an existing region object... public User setRegionForUser(String username, Long regionId){ Region r = (Region) this.get(Region.class, regionId); User u = (User) this.get(User.class, username); u.setRegion(r); Set<User> users = r.getUsers(); users.add(u); System.out.println("The number of users in the set is: "+users.size()); r.setUsers(users); this.update(r); return (User)this.update(u); } The problem is, when I run a little unit test to add 5 users to my region object, I see that the region.getUsers() set always stays stuck at 1 object...somehow the set isn't getting added to. My unit test code is as follows: public void setUp(){ System.out.println("calling setup method"); Region r = (Region)ManagerFactory.getCountryAndRegionManager().get(Region.class, Long.valueOf("2")); for(int i = 0; i<loop; i++){ User u = new User(); u.setUsername("username_"+i); ManagerFactory.getUserManager().update(u); ManagerFactory.getUserManager().setRegionForUser("username_"+i, Long.valueOf("2")); } } public void tearDown(){ System.out.println("calling teardown method"); for(int i = 0; i<loop; i++){ ManagerFactory.getUserManager().deleteUser("username_"+i); } } public void testGetUsersForRegion(){ Set<User> totalUsers = ManagerFactory.getCountryAndRegionManager().getUsersInRegion(Long.valueOf("2")); System.out.println("Expecting 5, got: "+totalUsers.size()); this.assertEquals(5, totalUsers.size()); } So the test keeps failing saying there is only 1 user instead of the expected 5. Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? thanks very much, Brian

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  • One click to trigger several search forms?

    - by Christian
    Hello, I have 1 main search form with a submit button and several secondary search forms with submit buttons. What I would like to do is when I enter text and click on the submit button of the main search form, the same text gets copied in all of the secondary search forms and all the submit buttons of the secondary search forms get automatically hit. The HTML code for the mains earch form is shown below: <form action="query.php" method="get"> Search: <input type="text" name="item" size="30"> <input type="submit" value="send"> </form> One of the several secondary search forms is shown below: <FORM action="http://www.dpbolvw.net/interactive" method="GET" target="_blank"> <div style="float: left; padding: 0 3px 0 0;"> <INPUT type="text" name="src" size="9" value="<?php $input = $_GET['item']; echo $input;?>" style="width: 110px; height: 22px;margin:0; padding: 0; font-size:140%;"> </div> <div style="float: left; padding: 0 3px 0 0;"> <input type="image" name="submit" value="GO" src="http://images.guitarcenter.com/Content/GC/banner/go.gif" alt="Search" style="font-size:140%"> /div> <input type="hidden" name="aid" value="1234"/> <input type="hidden" name="pid" value="1234"/> <input type="hidden" name="url" value="http://www.guitarcenter.com/Search/Default.aspx"/> </form> Notice the php code that I put in the "value" field of the secondary search form: <?php $input = $_GET['item']; echo $input;?> This automatically copies the text that I entered in the main search form into the secondary search form. I thus figured out how to do that. The problem is to "simulate" an "Enter" keystroke or a click on the "GO" button with the mouse on the secondary search form when the user hits the Enter key or hits the "SEND" button with the mouse on the main search form. Thank you for your insight!

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  • One-to-many relationship with JDO in Google App Engine

    - by Marvin
    I've followed the GAE docs on setting up one-to-many relationship in JDO but I'm still having trouble in retrieving the collection data back. I have no problem getting the other non-collection fields back. Here are my classes: @PersistenceCapable public class User{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key key; @Persistent private String uniqueId; @Persistent private String email; @Persistent private List<Address> addresses = new ArrayList<Address>() ; ... } @PersistenceCapable public class Phone{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key key; @Persistent private String number; ... } public class UserDaoImpl implements UserDao { public void insertUser(User user) { if(user.getKey() == null) { com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key key = KeyFactory.createKey(User.class.getSimpleName(), user.getEmail()); user.setKey(key); } PersistenceManager pm = PersistenceManagerWrapper.getPersistenceManager(); notNull(user); try { pm.makePersistent(user); } finally { pm.close(); } } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public User getUser(String uniqueId) { PersistenceManager pm = PersistenceManagerWrapper.getPersistenceManager(); Query query = pm.newQuery(User.class); query.setFilter("uniqueId == uniqueIdParam"); query.declareParameters("String uniqueIdParam"); User user = null; try { List<User> users = (List<User>)(query.execute(uniqueId)); //TODO abstract this if(users.size() > 0) user = users.get(0); } finally { pm.close(); } return user; } } public class UserDaoImplTest { @Test public void getUserTest() { User user = createTestUser(); assertNotNull("The user object should not be null", user); userDao.insertUser(user); User returnedUser = userDao.getUser(TEST_USER_ID); assertNotNull("The returnedUser object should not be null", returnedUser); Assert.assertPropertyEqualsExcludeProperties("User Object", user, returnedUser, ""); } } When I run the test, all the properties for User is populated but the list of Phone if I get is empty.

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  • why cant I more than two values from 3 different tables in one query

    - by zurna
    This is strange. In the news details page, I want to take a few different values from different tables with one query. However, for some strange reason, I only get two values back. So the outcome is like: <rows> <row id="4"> <FullName>Efe Tuncel</FullName> <CategoryName/> <Title>Runway Report</Title> <ShortDesc/> <Desc></Desc> <Date/> </row> </rows> If I disable fullname, then I get shortdesc but not others. Same things happens with others. NewsID = Request.QueryString("NEWSID") SQL = "SELECT N.NewsID, N.MembersID, N.CategoriesID, N.ImagesID, N.NewsTitle, N.NewsShortDesc, N.NewsDesc, N.NewsActive, N.NewsDateEntered, C.CategoriesID, C.CategoriesName, M.MembersID, M.MembersFullName" SQL = SQL & " FROM News N, Categories C, Members M" SQL = SQL & " WHERE N.NewsID = "& NewsID &" AND N.NewsActive = 1 AND N.MembersID = M.MembersID AND N.CategoriesID = C.CategoriesID" Set objViewNews = objConn.Execute(SQL) With Response .Write "<?xml version='1.0' encoding='windows-1254' ?>" .Write "<rows>" End With With Response .Write "<row id='"& objViewNews("NewsID") &"'>" .Write "<FullName>"& objViewNews("MembersFullName") &"</FullName>" .Write "<CategoryName>"& objViewNews("CategoriesName") &"</CategoryName>" .Write "<Title>"& objViewNews("NewsTitle") &"</Title>" .Write "<ShortDesc>"& objViewNews("NewsShortDesc") &"</ShortDesc>" .Write "<Desc><![CDATA["& objViewNews("NewsDesc") &"]]></Desc>" .Write "<Date>"& objViewNews("NewsDateEntered") &"</Date>" .Write "</row>" End With With Response .Write "</rows>" End With objViewNews.Close Set objViewNews = Nothing

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  • CakePHP HABTM: Editing one item casuses HABTM row to get recreated, destroys extra data

    - by leo-the-manic
    I'm having trouble with my HABTM relationship in CakePHP. I have two models like so: Department HABTM Location. One large company has many buildings, and each building provides a limited number of services. Each building also has its own webpage, so in addition to the HABTM relationship itself, each HABTM row also has a url field where the user can visit to find additional information about the service they're interested and how it operates at the building they're interested in. I've set up the models like so: <?php class Location extends AppModel { var $name = 'Location'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Department' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class Department extends AppModel { var $name = 'Department'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Location' => array( 'with' => 'DepartmentsLocation', 'unique' => true ) ); } ?> <?php class DepartmentsLocation extends AppModel { var $name = 'DepartmentsLocation'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Department', 'Location' ); // I'm pretty sure this method is unrelated. It's not being called when this error // occurs. Its purpose is to prevent having two HABTM rows with the same location // and department. function beforeSave() { // kill any existing rows with same associations $this->log(__FILE__ . ": killing existing HABTM rows", LOG_DEBUG); $result = $this->find('all', array("conditions" => array("location_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['location_id'], "department_id" => $this->data['DepartmentsLocation']['department_id']))); foreach($result as $row) { $this->delete($row['DepartmentsLocation']['id']); } return true; } } ?> The controllers are completely uninteresting. The problem: If I edit the name of a Location, all of the DepartmentsLocations that were linked to that Location are re-created with empty URLs. Since the models specify that unique is true, this also causes all of the newer rows to overwrite the older rows, which essentially destroys all of the URLs. I would like to know two things: Can I stop this? If so, how? And, on a less technical and more whiney note: Why does this even happen? It seems bizarre to me that editing a field through Cake should cause so much trouble, when I can easily go through phpMyAdmin, edit the Location name there, and get exactly the result I would expect. Why does CakePHP touch the HABTM data when I'm just editing a field on a row? It's not even a foreign key!

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  • Passing Info From One View to Another

    - by 01010011
    EDIT 1. The results of a query from my database are displayed on my view page. Next to each unique result is a button: // first_view.php <?php echo form_open('controller/method'); ?> <?php foreach($results_found as $item): ?> <p><?php echo $item->name ?></p> <p><?php form_submit('buy','Buy This'); ?></p> When a user clicks on one of these buttons (lets say button 4), I would like to display the user's choice from the array onto another view. I've tried using this: // first_view.php <?php echo $this->session->set_userdata('choice',$item); ?> immediately before // first_view.php <?php echo form_close(); ?> thinking that the user's final choice would be stored there so I can display it on another view like this: // second_controller.php $c = $this->session->userdata('choice'); // second_view.php echo 'Your Choose: '. $c; However, what actually displays is the last result displayed on first_view.php, not what the user choose. My question is, if the user clicked on button 4, how do I get that particular choice displayed onto another view? END OF EDIT1 ORIGINAL QUESTION My view page (CodeIgniter) displays the contents of an array in the form of several links. If a user clicks on a link, I want the user to be taken to another view page (via a controller) that gives more information concerning that particular link (which is stored in that particular position in the array) My question is, how do I access and display the contents of that particular location within the array on the second view file without getting a "Undefined variable error" on the second view? Here is what I am trying to do in code form // my_controller.php $array_name['variable_name']; $this->load->view('first_view.php'); // first_view.php <?php foreach($variable_name as $vn): ?> <?php echo anchor('controller_name' $vn->info ?> // if user clicks on 3rd link <?php endforeach ?> // I want to beable to access // index 2 of the array in the // second view file so I can // display more info // second_view.php <?php $vn[2]->info ?>

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  • from one-dimensional to two-dimensional array

    - by Thijs
    Hi again, I have this PHP one dimensional array: Array ( [Female--N] => 11 [Male--N] => 11 [Humans--N] => 11 [Adult--N] => 8 [Adolescent--N] => 8 [Reaction Time-physiology--N] => 6 [Acoustic Stimulation-methods--N] => 6 [Schizophrenia-genetics--Y] => 5 [Motion Perception--N] => 3 ) And i want a new array from this that looks like (i think this tow-dimensional..?): Array ( [Female][N] => 11 [Male][N] => 11 [Humans][N] => 11 [Adult][N] => 8 [Adolescent][N] => 8 [Reaction Time-physiology][N] => 6 [Acoustic Stimulation-methods][N] => 6 [Schizophrenia-genetics][Y] => 5 [Motion Perception][N] => 3 ) Can i use split method on key elements? Little bit harder... i also need to split on the single '_' underscore, i did this to prevent the columns getting mixed up... But the example below doesn't do the job right... $new_array = array(); foreach($MeshtagsArray as $key => $value) { $parts = explode('__', $key, 2); $parts2 = explode('_', $key, 2); $new_array[] = array( 'discriptor' => $parts[0], 'qualifier' => $parts2[1], 'major' => $parts[1], '#occurence' => $value ); So the output should be something like: [0] => Array ( [discriptor] => Female [qualifier] => [major] => N [#occurence] => 11 ........ [5] => Array ( [discriptor] => Reaction Time [qualifier] => physiology [major] => N [#occurence] => 6 Best regards, Thijs

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  • IE not triggering keyboard event on a form with ONE FIELD

    - by raj
    I'm seeing my Friend's code here... <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> Check action </TITLE> <script> function detectEvent(){ if(window.event.keyCode==13) { alert("you hit return!"); } } </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form name="name1" onkeyup="detectEvent()" action="page2.html"> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text1"/> </p> </form> </BODY> </HTML> and when he tried entering a value in the textbox and pressed enter, it did not call the detectEvent(). I said, it'll always call onSubmit on enter button..... and he surprised me, <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML> <HEAD> <TITLE> Check action </TITLE> <script> function detectEvent(){ if(window.event.keyCode==13) { alert("you hit return!"); } } </script> </HEAD> <BODY> <form name="name1" onkeyup="detectEvent()" action="page2.html"> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text1"/> </p> <p> Field1 <input type="text" id="text2"/> </p> </form> </BODY> </HTML> Now press enter, The function gets called..... Why so!? Why onKeyUp not called on forms with just one field.!!! am i missing something?

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  • How to find the one Label in DataList that is set to True

    - by Doug
    In my .aspx page I have my DataList: <asp:DataList ID="DataList1" runat="server" DataKeyField="ProductSID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" onitemcreated="DataList1_ItemCreated" RepeatColumns="3" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" Width="1112px"> <ItemTemplate> ProductSID: <asp:Label ID="ProductSIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSID") %>' /> <br /> ProductSKU: <asp:Label ID="ProductSKULabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductSKU") %>' /> <br /> ProductImage1: <asp:Label ID="ProductImage1Label" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ProductImage1") %>' /> <br /> ShowLive: <asp:Label ID="ShowLiveLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("ShowLive") %>' /> <br /> CollectionTypeID: <asp:Label ID="CollectionTypeIDLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionTypeID") %>' /> <br /> CollectionHomePage: <asp:Label ID="CollectionHomePageLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("CollectionHomePage") %>' /> <br /> <br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList> And in my code behind using the ItemCreated event to find and set the label.backcolor property. (Note:I'm using a recursive findControl class) protected void DataList1_ItemCreated(object sender, DataListItemEventArgs e) { foreach (DataListItem item in DataList1.Items) { if (e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.Item || e.Item.ItemType == ListItemType.AlternatingItem) { Label itemLabel = form1.FindControlR("CollectionHomePageLabel") as Label; if (itemLabel !=null || itemLabel.Text == "True") { itemLabel.BackColor = System.Drawing.Color.Yellow; } } When I run the page, the itemLabel is found, and the color shows. But it sets the itemLabel color to the first instance of the itemLabel found in the DataList. Of all the itemLabels in the DataList, only one will have it's text = True - and that should be the label picking up the backcolor. Also: The itemLabel is picking up a column in the DB called "CollectionHomePage" which is True/False bit data type. I must be missing something simple... Thanks for your ideas.

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  • Merging XML records into one

    - by BhanuPratap Tarigopula
    I am new to XSLT. I have requirement of merging and adding. XML: <OrderDetails> <OrderDetail action="add"> <OrderedUnits>18</OrderedUnits> <Date>2013-09-30T00:00:00</Date> <LocationCode>3202</LocationCode> <PONumber>022548295755</PONumber> </OrderDetail> <OrderDetail action="add"> <OrderedUnits>12</OrderedUnits> <Date>2013-09-30T00:00:00</Date> <LocationCode>3202</LocationCode> <PONumber>022548295755</PONumber> </OrderDetail> <IOrderDetail action="add"> <OrderedUnits>18</OrderedUnits> <Date>2013-09-30T00:00:00</Date> <LocationCode>3202</LocationCode> <PONumber>022548295762</PONumber> </OrderDetail> <OrderDetails> If the LocationCode, Date, and PONumber fields match, I need to add the OrderedUnits and make it only one entry. Expected output XML: <OrderDetails> <OrderDetail action="add"> <OrderedUnits>30</OrderedUnits> <Date>2013-09-30T00:00:00</Date> <LocationCode>3202</LocationCode> <PONumber>022548295755</PONumber> </OrderDetail> <IOrderDetail action="add"> <OrderedUnits>18</OrderedUnits> <Date>2013-09-30T00:00:00</Date> <LocationCode>3202</LocationCode> <PONumber>022548295762</PONumber> </OrderDetail> <OrderDetails> How can I write this XSLT?

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  • one to many jpa relationship

    - by user309944
    Hai I have created two table first table as student package com.crimson.rship; import javax.persistence.Basic; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.FetchType; import javax.persistence.Id; import javax.persistence.OneToMany; @Entity(name="student") public class student { @Id private String stumailid; @Basic private String fathername; @Basic private String mothername; @Basic private String doa; @Basic private String dob; public student(String stumailid,String fathername,String mothername,String doa,String dob) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub this.stumailid=stumailid; this.fathername=fathername; this.mothername=mothername; this.doa=doa; this.dob=dob; } public void setStumailid(String stumailid) { this.stumailid = stumailid; } public String getStumailid() { return stumailid; } public void setFathername(String fathername) { this.fathername = fathername; } public String getFathername() { return fathername; } public void setMothername(String mothername) { this.mothername = mothername; } public String getMothername() { return mothername; } public void setDoa(String doa) { this.doa = doa; } public String getDoa() { return doa; } public void setDob(String dob) { this.dob = dob; } public String getDob() { return dob; } } Second table as mark package com.crimson.rship; import java.util.Collection; import javax.persistence.Basic; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.FetchType; import javax.persistence.Id; import javax.persistence.JoinColumn; import javax.persistence.JoinTable; import javax.persistence.OneToMany; @Entity(name="mark") public class mark { @Id private String stumailid; @Basic private String fathername; @Basic private String mothername; @OneToMany(mappedBy="mark",targetEntity=student.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) private Collection orders; public mark(String stumailid,String fathername,String mothername) { // TODO Auto-generated constructor stub this.stumailid=stumailid; this.fathername=fathername; this.mothername=mothername; } public void setStumailid(String stumailid) { this.stumailid = stumailid; } public String getStumailid() { return stumailid; } public void setFathername(String fathername) { this.fathername = fathername; } public String getFathername() { return fathername; } public void setMothername(String mothername) { this.mothername = mothername; } public String getMothername() { return mothername; } public void setOrders(Collection orders) { this.orders = orders; } public Collection getOrders() { return orders; } } But this above coding working is not working correctly.can any one help me Thanks in advance

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  • FluentNHibernate - AutoMappings producing incorrect one-to-many column key

    - by Alberto
    Hi I'm new to NHibernate and FNH and am trying to map these simple classes by using FluentNHibernate AutoMappings feature: public class TVShow : Entity { public virtual string Title { get; set;} public virtual ICollection<Season> Seasons { get; protected set; } public TVShow() { Seasons = new HashedSet<Season>(); } public virtual void AddSeason(Season season) { season.TVShow = this; Seasons.Add(season); } public virtual void RemoveSeason(Season season) { if (!Seasons.Contains(season)) { throw new InvalidOperationException("This TV Show does not contain the given season"); } season.TVShow = null; Seasons.Remove(season); } } public class Season : Entity { public virtual TVShow TVShow { get; set; } public virtual int Number { get; set; } public virtual IList<Episode> Episodes { get; set; } public Season() { Episodes = new List<Episode>(); } public virtual void AddEpisode(Episode episode) { episode.Season = this; Episodes.Add(episode); } public virtual void RemoveEpisode(Episode episode) { if (!Episodes.Contains(episode)) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Episode not found on this season"); } episode.Season = null; Episodes.Remove(episode); } } I'm also using a couple of conventions: public class MyForeignKeyConvention : IReferenceConvention { #region IConvention<IManyToOneInspector,IManyToOneInstance> Members public void Apply(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Instances.IManyToOneInstance instance) { instance.Column("fk_" + instance.Property.Name); } #endregion } The problem is that FNH is generating the section below for the Seasons property mapping: <bag name="Seasons"> <key> <column name="TVShow_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="TVShowsManager.Domain.Season, TVShowsManager.Domain, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> The column name above should be fk_TVShow rather than TVShow_Id. If amend the hbm files produced by FNH then the code works. Does anyone know what it's wrong? Thanks in advance.

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  • One Controller is Sometimes Bound Twice with Ninject

    - by Dusda
    I have the following NinjectModule, where we bind our repositories and business objects: /// <summary> /// Used by Ninject to bind interface contracts to concrete types. /// </summary> public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { /// <summary> /// Loads this instance. /// </summary> public override void Load() { //bindings here. //Bind<IMyInterface>().To<MyImplementation>(); Bind<IUserRepository>().To<SqlUserRepository>(); Bind<IHomeRepository>().To<SqlHomeRepository>(); Bind<IPhotoRepository>().To<SqlPhotoRepository>(); //and so on //business objects Bind<IUser>().To<Data.User>(); Bind<IHome>().To<Data.Home>(); Bind<IPhoto>().To<Data.Photo>(); //and so on } } And here are the relevant overrides from our Global.asax, where we inherit from NinjectHttpApplication in order to integrate it with Asp.Net Mvc (The module lies in a separate dll called Thing.Web.Configuration): protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { base.OnApplicationStarted(); //routes and areas AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //Initializes a singleton that must reference this HttpApplication class, //in order to provide the Ninject Kernel to the rest of Thing.Web. This //is necessary because there are a few instances (currently Membership) //that require manual dependency injection. NinjectKernel.Instance = new NinjectKernel(this); //view model factory. NinjectKernel.Instance.Kernel.Bind<IModelFactory>().To<MasterModelFactory>(); } protected override NinjectControllerFactory CreateControllerFactory() { return base.CreateControllerFactory(); } protected override Ninject.IKernel CreateKernel() { var kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Load("Thing.Web.Configuration.dll"); return kernel; } Now, everything works great, with one exception: For some reason, sometimes Ninject will bind the PhotoController twice. This leads to an ActivationException, because Ninject can't discern which PhotoController I want. This causes all requests for thumbnails and other user images on the site to fail. Here is the PhotoController in it's entirety: public class PhotoController : Controller { public PhotoController() { } public ActionResult Index(string id) { var dir = Server.MapPath("~/" + ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["UserPhotos"]); var path = Path.Combine(dir, id); return base.File(path, "image/jpeg"); } } Every controller works in exactly the same way, but for some reason the PhotoController gets double-bound. Even then, it only happens occasionally (either when re-building the solution, or on staging/production when the app pool kicks in). Once this happens, it continues to happen until I redeploy without changing anything. So...what's up with that?

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  • Flash: How to preload upcoming SWF while current one plays

    - by pthesis
    I have a Flash slideshow that plays SWFs listed in an XML file. I would like to have the upcoming SWF load while the current one displays. I've tried all sorts of combinations of LoadMovie and LoadMovieNum, including creating an empty movie clip, but there's something I'm just not getting. Right now, after making the first round through all the files, it transitions smoothly from slide to slide, but I'd like for it to preload so that it transitions without the "Loading..." screen the first time around. It can be viewed here: slideshow Where should I put the LoadMovie line to load the next file (image[p+1]), and how should it look? function loadXML(loaded) { if (loaded) { xmlNode = this.firstChild; image = []; description = []; total = xmlNode.childNodes.length; for (i=0; i<total; i++) { image[i] = xmlNode.childNodes[i].childNodes[0].firstChild.nodeValue; description[i] = xmlNode.childNodes[i].childNodes[1].firstChild.nodeValue; } firstImage(); } else { content = "file not loaded!"; } } xmlData = new XML(); xmlData.ignoreWhite = true; xmlData.onLoad = loadXML; xmlData.load("xmlfile.xml"); ///////////////////////////////////// back_btn.onRelease = function () { backImage(); }; next_btn.onRelease = function () { nextImage(); }; p = 0; function nextImage() { if (p<(total-1)) { p++; trace(this); _root.mc_loadfile.loadMovie (image[p]); _root.movie_name.text = image[p]; next_btn._visible = true; back_btn._visible = true; if (getBytesLoaded() == getBytesTotal()) slideshow(); } else if (p == (total-1)) { p = 0; firstImage(); } } function backImage() { clearInterval(myInterval); if (p>0) { --p; _root.mc_loadfile.loadMovie (image[p]); _root.movie_name.text = image[p]; next_btn._visible = true; if (p != 0) { back_btn._visible = true; } else { back_btn._visible = false; } slideshow(); } } I'd appreciate any help.

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