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• Network strange problem

  - by Ali

  I have a CPanel server with 5 IPs and a few domains. During night, access to main domain through HTTP return 324 no response many times. After several refresh it comes but many assets won't load and return 324. Using HTTPS is fine. During day HTTP is also fine. But another domain on that very sever works fine all the day through HTTP. The server DNS are ns1 and ns2 of the first domain. Second domain is on the shared IP and first domain has a dedicated IP. I cant resolve the problem :( and appreciate any help so much!

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• Virtual hosting

  - by H3llGhost

  Hello, I want to use domains like xxx.abc.domain.tld. The xxx is my folder to access. I tried it with the rewrite rules, but I can't get it working, because I don't know how to get the part xxx from the SERVER_NAME into my RewriteRule. This was my try: UseCanonicalName Off # include the IP address in the logs so they may be split LogFormat "%A %h %l %u %t \"%r\" %s %b" vcommon CustomLog /var/log/apache2/vaccess.log vcommon RewriteEngine On # a ServerName derived from a Host: header may be any case at all RewriteMap lowercase int:tolower ## deal with normal documents first: # do the magic RewriteCond ${lowercase:%{SERVER_NAME}} ^.+\.abc\.domain\.tld$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/abc.domain.tld/[xxx-part]/$1 [L] Perhaps there is a better solution. In generally I want to create a dynamic login system with mod_auth_mysql and for each xxx is a seperate user database. I would prefer the domain/address syntax abc.domain.tld/xxx, but I don't know how to realize it. Thanks for any advices.

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• Changing hosts but keep old emails [closed]

  - by LDaniel

  Possible Duplicate: Change host / keep emails OK here's the situation...I'm trying to transfer my domain and email address to a new hosting service and I would like to start using Google's domain apps for my email, etc. My email address is currently on a WebMail type platform and when I move my domain and start using Google domain apps I would also like to keep the old emails and have them imported the the email address on Google. Note: The email address will be the same on both hosts. For example [email protected]. So its keeping the same address between two different systems. I've been Googling how to do this for awhile and all the migrate options that come up don't appear in the the Google inbox setting or domain apps config settings. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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• Apache 2: I have multiple domain names I want to point to one Virtual Host. Do I use ServerAlias?

  - by Chris Altman

  I have multiple domain names, for example: www.foo.com www.goo.com www.moo.com www.coo.com I want all of these domain names to resolve to one website AND to redirect to www.foo.com What is the best method to achieve this? Multiple entries? Use ServerAlias? Something else? If the best method is ServerAlias, what is the syntax? ServerAlias www.goo.com, www.moo.com, www.coo.com

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• Can I install SQL Server 2008 R2 on a Windows Server 2008 R2 Standard machine in a workgroup then join the server to a domain?

  - by Zero Subnet

  I have a Windows 2008 Server Standard x64 machine that I need to install SQL Server 2008 R2 Standard on then ship it to a different site where it will be joined to a Active Directory domain. The server is now using the default "WORKGROUP" workgroup and i need to know if i can install SQL Server on it then ship it to the other site where it will be joined to the domain without issues. What are the possible problems that could happen? are there any workarounds?

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• Redirect with htaccess for images onto another server without redirect looping

  - by Jeff

  Hey guys, I currently have a host where my main site is hosted on. I have set up nginx on another server to mirror/cache files being requested if it doesn't have it already, in particular images and flv videos. For example: www.domain.com is my main site. www.domain.com/video/video.flv www.domain.com/images/1.png I would like to ask apache to redirect it to imgserv.domain.com (imgserv.domain.com points to another server IP) imgserv.domain.com/video/video.flv imgserv.domain.com/images/1.png Basically redirect everything with certain filetypes and preserving the structure of the URL, like flv etc. I tried something but I am getting a redirect looping error. Could someone help me out? Thank you!

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• SVN multiple repositories in subfolders

  - by fampinheiro

  I'm using apache+svn apache config file: LoadModule dav_module modules/mod_dav.so LoadModule dav_svn_module modules/mod_dav_svn.so LoadModule authz_svn_module modules/mod_authz_svn.so <Location /code> DAV svn SVNParentPath "c:/repositories" </Location> Imagine i have this file structure (in every t? i have one svn repository) c repositories uc1 0809v t1 t2 t3 0809i t1 t2 uc2 t1 t2 t1 I can access the repositories using: svn://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t1 svn://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t2 svn://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t3 I want to access them using the urls: http://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t1 http://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t2 http://domain.com/code/uc1/0809v/t3 and see the content of the repository in the browser. If i create the repository on the root of the svn folder i can see the repository (http://domain.com/code/t1) when i try the other urls i get the error Could not open the requested SVN filesystem My question is, It is possible to do a search in all subfolders looking for svn repositories?

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• Many RewriteBase in one .htaccess file?

  - by Martti Laine

  Hello I have a domain and a wordpress-blog on same server. Now I have a problem (surprise). The wordpress is located on /httpdocs/blog/ and domain is pointing to /httpdocs/ and I'm trying to redirect it to /httpdocs/domain/. But, obvisiously, I have permalinks in Wordpress. Here's my current .htaccess: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /blog/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /blog/index.php [L] RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} domain.com RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/domain RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/cgi-bin RewriteRule ^(.*)$ domain/$1 [L] But as you already propably assumed, this doesn't work. Wordpress' permalinks affects to /domain/ also, so my images and other urls go wrong. Any advice? Is it possible to use RewriteBase like this? Martti Laine

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• HttpWebRequest Cookie weirdness

  - by Lachman

  I'm sure I must be doing something wrong. But can't for the life of me figure out what is going on. I have a problem where it seems that the HttpWebRequest class in the framework is not correctly parsing the cookies from a web response. I'm using Fiddler to see what is going on and after making a request, the headers of the response look as such: HTTP/1.1 200 Ok Connection: close Date: Wed, 14 Jan 2009 18:20:31 GMT Server: Microsoft-IIS/6.0 P3P: policyref="/w3c/p3p.xml", CP="CAO DSP IND COR ADM CONo CUR CUSi DEV PSA PSD DELi OUR COM NAV PHY ONL PUR UNI" Set-Cookie: user=v.5,0,EX01E508801E$97$2E401000t$1BV6$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$21O001000$1E31!90$7CP$AE$3F$F3$D8$19o$BC$1Cd$23; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: minfo=v.4,EX019ECD28D6k$A3$CA$0C$CE$A2$D6$AD$D4!2$8A$EF$E8n$91$96$E1$D7$C8$0F$98$AA$ED$DC$40V$AB$9C$C1$9CF$C9$C1zIF$3A$93$C6$A7$DF$A1$7E$A7$A1$A8$BD$A6$94c$D5$E8$2F$F4$AF$A2$DF$80$89$BA$BBd$F6$2C$B6$A8; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: accttype=v.2,3,1,EX017E651B09k$A3$CA$0C$DB$A2$CB$AD$D9$8A$8C$EF$E8t$91$90$E1$DC$C89$98$AA$E0$DC$40O$A8$A4$C1$9C; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: tpid=v.1,20001; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: MC1=GUID=541977e04a341a2a4f4cdaaf49615487; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: linfo=v.4,EQC|0|0|255|1|0||||||||0|0|0||0|0|0|-1|-1; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: group=v.1,0; expires=Sunday, 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Content-Type: text/html But when I look at the response.Cookies, I see far more cookies that I am expecting, with values of different cookies being split up into different cookies. Manually getting the headers seems to result in more wierdness eg: the code foreach(string cookie in response.Headers.GetValues("Set-Cookie")) { Console.WriteLine("Cookie found: " + cookie); } produces the output: Cookie found: user=v.5 Cookie found: 0 Cookie found: EX01E508801E$97$2E401000t$1BV6$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$A1$EC$104$21O00 1000$1E31!90$7CP$AE$3F$F3$D8$19o$BC$1Cd$23; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: minfo=v.4 Cookie found: EX019ECD28D6k$A3$CA$0C$CE$A2$D6$AD$D4!2$8A$EF$E8n$91$96$E1$D7$C8$0 F$98$AA$ED$DC$40V$AB$9C$C1$9CF$C9$C1zIF$3A$93$C6$A7$DF$A1$7E$A7$A1$A8$BD$A6$94c$ D5$E8$2F$F4$AF$A2$DF$80$89$BA$BBd$F6$2C$B6$A8; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: accttype=v.2 Cookie found: 3 Cookie found: 1 Cookie found: EX017E651B09k$A3$CA$0C$DB$A2$CB$AD$D9$8A$8C$EF$E8t$91$90$E1$DC$C89 $98$AA$E0$DC$40O$A8$A4$C1$9C; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: tpid=v.1 Cookie found: 20001; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: MC1=GUID=541977e04a341a2a4f4cdaaf49615487; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: linfo=v.4 Cookie found: EQC|0|0|255|1|0||||||||0|0|0||0|0|0|-1|-1; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ Cookie found: group=v.1 Cookie found: 0; expires=Sunday Cookie found: 31-Dec-2014 23:59:59 GMT; Domain=.thedomain.com; path=/ as you can see - the first cookie in the list raw response: Set-Cookie: user=v.5,0,EX01E508801 is getting split into: Cookie found: user=v.5 Cookie found: 0 Cookie found: EX01E508801E$.......... So - what's going on here? Am I wrong? Is the HttpWebRequest class incorrectly parsing the http headers? Is the webserver that it spitting out the requests producing invalid http headers?

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• Sync clock on Windows XP machine to external (non-domain, non-workgroup) Windows Server 2008 R2 machine

  - by Eric

  I have two machines and I'd like their clocks to be in sync for various reasons. Machine 1 is an XP machine located in the office. Machine 2 is a VPS hosted by a third party running Windows Server 2008 R2. These machines are not in any kind of workgroup or on a domain together. They are completely separate machines. Machine 2 is currently syncing once a week to time.windows.com. The clock on Machine 2 does seem to wander a bit within that week interval. What I would like to do is have Machine 1 set its clock based on the clock of Machine 2. I have tried configuring w32tm on the XP machine. This is what I used for configuration: w32tm /config /syncfromflags:manual /manualpeerlist:"<ip address of machine 2>" However, whenever I issue the /resync command I get "The computer did not resync because no time data was available". I have made sure to start the windows time service on machine 2, and I have added firewall exceptions for UDP port 123. Is there something I need to configure on Machine 2 (other than just starting the time service) in order to get it to respond? Edit: I have also run w32tm /config /reliable:YES /update on Machine 2. I am still getting "The computer did not resync because no time data was available". Is there something else I'm missing?

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• Why can't I copy .zip files from a server to a server in a different domain?

  - by Kyralessa

  At work, we're using a Windows Server 2008 R2 VM as our build server. At the end of the build process for any of our projects, we copy the packaged deployment files to a folder on the server where they'll be deployed. (This is done in a batch command by a service account.) For most of our projects, which deploy to a Windows Server 2008 R2 VM, this step goes swimmingly. But for one project, which deploys to a Windows Server 2003 R2 VM which resides in a different domain on our network, the .zip files return "Access is denied" and don't copy, though all of the other files copy correctly. Our sysadmins say they haven't prevented this in group policy or by other means. If I'm logged in the build server as myself and run the copy in the command window, I can't copy the .zip files over either, so it's not just a matter of the service account's permissions. If I log into the 2003 server and then copy from the build server to the 2003 server, using the command window, it works, whether I run as myself or as our service account. Only .zip files cause the "Access is denied" problem. Even a (fake) .exe file copies correctly. All of our other projects have .zip files, and they copy to their 2008 R2 server correctly. Is there a way I can get the Windows Server 2003 R2 VM to accept .zip files copied from our build server?

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• added ip-based virtual host to sites-available and created symlink to sites-enabled...but new domain

  - by lililili

  I added ip-based virtual host to sites-availble and created symlink to sites-enabled, but new domain times out. When i navigate to mynewdomain.com it says connection timed out. NameVirtualHost 12.12.12.12 <VirtualHost 12.12.12.12> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ServerName newdomain.com DocumentRoot /var/www/newdomain.com <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log combined ServerSignature On Alias /doc/ "/usr/share/doc/" <Directory "/usr/share/doc/"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.0/255.0.0.0 ::1/128 </Directory> </VirtualHost>

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• How to replace the domain name in a Wordpress database?

  - by Cristian

  I have a Wordpress database which was installed in a development environment... thus, all references to the site itself have a fixed IP address (say 192.168.16.2). Now, I have to migrate that database to a new Wordpress installation on a hosting. The problem is that the SQL dump contains a lot of references to the IP address, and I have to replace it with: my_domain.com. I could use sed or some other command to change the that from the command line, the problem is that there are a lot of configuration data which uses JSON. So what? Well, as you know, JSON arrays uses things like: s:4: to know how many chars an element has, and thus, if I just replace the IP with the domain name, the configuration files will get corrupted. I used an app for Windows some years ago that allows to change values in a database and takes care of the JSON arrays. Unfortunately, I forgot the name of the app... so the question is: do you know any app that allows me to do what I want?

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• How can you connect to a SQL Server not on your domain?

  - by scotty2012

  I have a test machine that's not allowed on our domain because we are testing corporately unsupported applications (SQL 2008 and Server 2008). I want to use management studio to connect to the SQL2008 server but can't get it working. I have authentication set to mixed-mode, I've checked 'allow remote connections to this server', but when I try to access it, I get the error A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 53) Since it says the provider is Named Pipes, I enabled Named Pipes on the server, but still no dice. I've tried connecting to the system name, the IP, the system name\instance and IP\instance, all to no avail. Is what I'm trying to do not possible? Edit: Well, through some basic troubleshooting, I've found that I can't ping the server from my client computer, but I can ping the client computer from the server? They are both plugged into the same switch, and are sitting next to each other. The windows firewall on the server is turned on, is there some specific settings I need to enable? DAH! So it was the firewall blocking me. How can I enable the firewall and still connect?

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• SQL Server 2008: Getting Login failed for user "Domain\User". Failed to open the explicitly specified database [CLIENT: IP.ADD.RR.ESS]

  - by GodEater

  This is a very similar issue to " SQL Server 2008 login problem with ASP.NET application: Failed to open the explicitly specified database " which unfortunately seems to have gone unsolved. My issue here is subtly different. Firstly the account failing login is not 'NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE' - it's an actual domain account. Secondly, there are two machines involved - I gathered from the first question it was a single machine running both the IIS and SQL instances. The application which is trying to connect to the database is an ASP.NET one running on another server (if that makes any different, I'm not sure it does.) The ConnectionString being used in the web.config for the application is : data source=MySQLServer;initial catalog=MyDatabase;integrated security=sspi; And the Application Pool is set to NetworkService for Identity. So - in the web app, I get the following error : Cannot open database "MyDatabase" requested by the login. The login failed. Login failed for user 'MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$' In the SQL Server logs I see : Login failed for user 'MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$'. Reason: Failed to open the explicitly specified database. [CLIENT: Web.Server.IP.Address] Running this bit of SQL against the database in question : USE [MyDatabase] GO SELECT SDP.name AS [User Name], SDP.type_desc AS [User Type], UPPER(SDPS.name) AS [Database Role] FROM sys.database_principals SDP INNER JOIN sys.database_role_members SDRM ON SDP.principal_id=SDRM.member_principal_id INNER JOIN sys.database_principals SDPS ON SDRM.role_principal_id = SDPS.principal_id Gets me this result : MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DDLADMIN MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DATAREADER MyDomain\WebServerMachineName$ WINDOWS_USER DB_DATAWRITER Which appears to me to indicate I've got the permissions right. Anyone have any idea why it's not working, or how I can narrow the issue down some more?

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• Can I use a Windows Server 2003 Domain Controller but my home router for DNS?

  - by NetworkingWannabie

  Hi All Probably easiest to start with a description of my current setup, which works (oh, and this is a home setup not an office or anything): I have an ADSL modem with a static IP address (192.168.128.1), and its DHCP capability is disabled. I have a permanently powered up Windows Server 2003 machine with a fixed IP (192.168.128.2) which provides my domain controller, dhcp, and dns. The default gateway for everything is my ADSL modem everything is setup to use the WS2003 machine as the primary DNS with the ADSL modem as Secondary DNS just in case the server goes down (everything includes the server itself). Lastly, just in case it's relevant, I have my DHCP leases set to infinite (or whatever the right term is). Everything is pretty hunky dory. Except, that is, for the fact that my server is ALWAYS on, and it isn't always used, so I'm burning juice that I don't need to - my server burns around 120W which isn't immense but isn't irrelevant either, so I'd like to put it into a stand-by state when it isn't being used (the more standby the better) and then get the clients to wake it up. Am I correct in assuming that this won't work at the moment - A given client would need an IP address to wake the machine up, and it needs to machine to be awake to get an IP - catch 22? Assuming I'm correct, can I move to using my router (which is always on) for DHCP? What impact will this have on DC and DNS? Alternatively, does anyone have a better way for me to achieve this? Can I get the server to wake up when it sees clients look for a DHCP server, etc? Wow, that came out longer than expected! Thanks for your help.

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• How to set up virtual hosts properly on a windows machine using Zend Community CE ?

  - by Scott F

  I have set up Zend Server CE on a windows machine and am having the hardest time setting up virtual hosts. No matter what I do, links on my local machine are showing "localhost" in the path causing all images and links to not work properly. I have the following in my vhosts file and while the site loads up, most links show "local host in them". Please help. NameVirtualHost *:80 DocumentRoot D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev ServerName www.domain.dev ServerAlias www.domain.dev *.domain.dev domain.dev UseCanonicalName Off #CustomLog D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev\logs\access.log # ErrorLog D:\zend_server_ce\Apache2\htdocs\domain.dev\logs\error.log Options Indexes FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all

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• Host couldn't be reached by domain name, only by IP: Apache's fault?

  - by MaxArt

  I have this Windows Server 2003 R2 32 bit machine running Apache 2.4.2 with OpenSSL 1.0.1c and PHP 5.4.5 via mod_fcgid 2.3.7. This config worked just fine for some hours, but then the site couldn't be reached with its domain name, say www.example.com, but it could be still reached by its IP address. In particular, while https://www.example.com/ yielded a connection error, http://123.1.2.3/ worked just fine. Yes, first https then http. Error and access logs were clean, i.e. they showed no signs of problems. Just the usual messages, that were interrupted while the site couldn't be reached. After some investigation, a simple restart of Apache solved the problem. Unfortunately, I didn't have the chance to test if https://123.1.2.3/ worked as well, or if http://www.example.com/ was still redirected to https as usual. So, has anyone have any idea of what happened? Before I get tired of Apache and ditch it in favor of Nginx? Edit: Some log informations. The last line of sslerror.log is from 90 minutes before the problem occurred, so I guess it's not important. ssl_request.log shows nothing interesting, too: these are the last two lines before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] x.x.x.x TLSv1.1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 1183 [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] y.y.y.y TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 73 The previous lines are all the same and don't seem interesting, except 4 lines like these 30-40 seconds before the problem: [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] z.z.z.z TLSv1 ECDHE-RSA-AES256-SHA "-" - These are the corrisponding lines from sslaccess.log: z.z.z.z - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:14 +0200] "-" 408 - ... x.x.x.x - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:54 +0200] "GET /login HTTP/1.1" 200 1183 y.y.y.y - - [28/Aug/2012:17:47:45 +0200] "POST /upf HTTP/1.1" 200 73

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• Using a nat rule to translate 80/443 traffic to web server, but internal users cannot access it using external ip/domain name

  - by Josh

  I am using Cisco ASDM for ASA I have my internal network called soa. My outside interface is called outside. Let's say my outside IP given to me by my ISP isp is y.y.y.y I have a web server inside my network with a static ip of x.x.x.110. I have configured 2 static nat rules (one for http the other for https). Source is x.x.x.110. Interface is outside, service (http or https). Maybe I am doing this wrong, but when I run the packet tracer, I choose outside interface and for the source IP I used 8.8.8.8 and the destination ip is my outside IP address, y.y.y.y When I run that, it shows the packet traversing successfully, using 9 steps. For my other test, I switch to the soa interface, input an ip on that network, and leave the destination the same. This test comes up with 2 steps and then fails on my access list. When I see the rule that fails, it is my catch all which is source: any desitnation: any, service: ip action: deny. What rule do I need to make to allow my soa network access to go out and come back in by my external IP addess (using a domain name attached to that ip in my dns, of course)?

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• How to change the mail domain server so it's not displaying IP? Changing [email protected] to [email protected]

  - by Pavel

  Hi guys. I'm kinda a noob as a server admin so please bear with me. I've installed postfix mail server and everything is working fine but the 'from' box is displaying [email protected]. I want to set it up so it displays domainname.com instead of IP. I just hope you know what I mean. My main.cf in postfix folder looks like this: # See /usr/share/postfix/main.cf.dist for a commented, more complete version # Debian specific: Specifying a file name will cause the first # line of that file to be used as the name. The Debian default # is /etc/mailname. myorigin = /etc/mailname smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Ubuntu) biff = no # appending .domain is the MUA's job. append_dot_mydomain = no # Uncomment the next line to generate "delayed mail" warnings #delay_warning_time = 4h readme_directory = no # TLS parameters smtpd_tls_cert_file=/etc/ssl/certs/ssl-cert-snakeoil.pem smtpd_tls_key_file=/etc/ssl/private/ssl-cert-snakeoil.key smtpd_use_tls=yes smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache # See /usr/share/doc/postfix/TLS_README.gz in the postfix-doc package for # information on enabling SSL in the smtp client. myhostname = mail.thevinylfactory alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases myorigin = /etc/mailname mydestination = mail.thevinylfactory.com, thevinylfactory, localhost.localdomain, localhost relayhost = mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 [::ffff:127.0.0.0]/104 [::1]/128 mailbox_size_limit = 0 recipient_delimiter = + inet_interfaces = all Can anyone help me with this one? If you need any more details please let me know. Thanks in advance!

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• Why domain.com appears as theplant.com when hosted on hostgator?

  - by silow

  I have a script that's supposed to detect the url of its caller website. If the caller is another website, it should give something like http://callersite.com. I'm using this line of php code (though I suspect this won't matter for sysadmins) gethostbyaddr($_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']) I'm testing with a caller site that's hosted on hostgator. What I'm noticing though is that I don't get callersite.com, I get something like 1a.12.12ab.static.theplanet.com. I don't know what theplanet.com is and why I'm not getting caller site.com. Also what do I need to do to really get the domain of the site making a call to my script? -- Thanks for the explanation. Some have advised I use $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] but it's not what I'm after. My script acts as an API. Another website makes a curl request to it and gets an output and later on presents it to the user. So http referrer gives false since the caller site.com is making a direct call to me. So any hope?

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• What are possible results/side effects if replication between DC's in a Windows domain is unable to occur?

  - by hydroparadise

  There's plenty of administration literature out there how to properly manage Windows servers. But in dealing with real life, things don't always occur like you want them to. In Microsoft's Windows Server 2003 Administrator's Companion, out of 1400+ pages, theres only one page that I could find when it comes up setting up additional domain controlers. They make it sound seemless and don't reveal a whole lot on what happens if "peer" DC's are unable to replicate. Down to the specific issue at hand, we had a DC go down about a month ago due to a bad RAID controller. There was nothing critical that waranted imediate attention, so bringing it back up got put on the back burner. A month later, we get the DC back up and running and everyting seemed ok. The next day, nobody is able to logon complaining that the "user does not exist" or "unable to establish a trust relationship". Knowing that I had just put the downed DC back on the network, I immediately took it back off the network and had everybody restart the workstations. After that, exchange was fine, shares became available, and everybody was able to log in. After doing some event log swimming, it would appear that everything started due to replication issues on the SYSVOL. I've read where you can force replication, but that would mean putting it back on the network. I am afraid to put the DC back on the network in fear that something else could go wrong. So, what other issues could one expect to run into where two DC's are unreplicated for over a month?

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• How should I define a composite foreign key for domain constraints in the presence of surrogate keys

  - by Samuel Danielson

  I am writing a new app with Rails so I have an id column on every table. What is the best practice for enforcing domain constraints using foreign keys? I'll outline my thoughts and frustration. Here's what I would imagine as "The Rails Way". It's what I started with. Companies: id: integer, serial company_code: char, unique, not null Invoices: id: integer, serial company_id: integer, not null Products: id: integer, serial sku: char, unique, not null company_id: integer, not null LineItems: id: integer, serial invoice_id: integer, not null, references Invoices (id) product_id: integer, not null, references Products (id) The problem with this is that a product from one company might appear on an invoice for a different company. I added a (company_id: integer, not null) to LineItems, sort of like I'd do if only using natural keys and serials, then added a composite foreign key. LineItems (product_id, company_id) references Products (id, company_id) LineItems (invoice_id, company_id) references Invoices (id, company_id) This properly constrains LineItems to a single company but it seems over-engineered and wrong. company_id in LineItems is extraneous because the surrogate foreign keys are already unique in the foreign table. Postgres requires that I add a unique index for the referenced attributes so I am creating a unique index on (id, company_id) in Products and Invoices, even though id is simply unique. The following table with natural keys and a serial invoice number would not have these issues. LineItems: company_code: char, not null sku: char, not null invoice_id: integer, not null I can ignore the surrogate keys in the LineItems table but this also seems wrong. Why make the database join on char when it has an integer already there to use? Also, doing it exactly like the above would require me to add company_code, a natural foreign key, to Products and Invoices. The compromise... LineItems: company_id: integer, not null sku: integer, not null invoice_id: integer, not null does not require natural foreign keys in other tables but it is still joining on char when there is a integer available. Is there a clean way to enforce domain constraints with foreign keys like God intended, but in the presence of surrogates, without turning the schema and indexes into a complicated mess?

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• Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

  - by Hamman359

  Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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• Is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain of an iterator in execution

  - by PoorLuzer

  I wanted to know if is safe ( documented behaviour? ) to delete the domain space of an iterator in execution in Python. Consider the code: import os import sys sampleSpace = [ x*x for x in range( 7 ) ] print sampleSpace for dx in sampleSpace: print str( dx ) if dx == 1: del sampleSpace[ 1 ] del sampleSpace[ 3 ] elif dx == 25: del sampleSpace[ -1 ] print sampleSpace 'sampleSpace' is what I call 'the domain space of an iterator' ( if there is a more appropriate word/phrase, lemme know ). What I am doing is deleting values from it while the iterator 'dx' is running through it. Here is what I expect from the code : Iteration versus element being pointed to (*): 0: [*0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 1: [0, *1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] ( delete 2nd and 5th element after this iteration ) 2: [0, 4, *9, 25, 36] 3: [0, 4, 9, *25, 36] ( delete -1th element after this iteration ) 4: [0, 4, 9, 25*] ( as the iterator points to nothing/end of list, the loop terminates ) .. and here is what I get: [0, 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36] 0 1 9 25 [0, 4, 9, 25] As you can see - what I expect is what I get - which is contrary to the behaviour I have had from other languages in such a scenario. Hence - I wanted to ask you if there is some rule like "the iterator becomes invalid if you mutate its space during iteration" in Python? Is it safe ( documented behaviour? ) in Python to do stuff like this?

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