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  • UW-IMAP server, high load for one user

    - by Bruce Garlock
    We have been experiencing a very strange anomaly, with one specific user with our UW-IMAP server. We have about 75 users using the server, and one particular user, who is in about the middle as far as used storage keeps having issues with slow speed. Most of our users all use Thunderbird 2, or Thunderbird 3. Mostly 2, because of the performance issues we have had with 3. This user was on 3, and I downgraded him to 2. The performance has gotten better, but according to the imapd processes on the server, his username is using the most CPU % and CPU time. I've already done all the usual T/S'ing: Started profile from scratch, compacted folders, re-indexed, newer faster computer, etc.. Still, this users' imapd process is always using the most CPU on the server. For troubleshooting, we setup another user which has more usage, folders, etc.. than he does, but we don't see the users process taking up most of the CPU with the imapd process. So, it almost sounds like a particular email may be the culprit, but how can we find it, if thats the problem? This has been going on for a while, and he is a management person, so his patience is about to end. Does anyone have any ideas?

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  • Notify user of message arrival in another mailbox

    - by Tim Alexander
    This is very similar to this question but has a few differences. Basically we have a user dealing with a conflict of interest case. To separate the mail from prying eyes (and the draconian routing system we have in place) the user has been granted access to a second conflicts mailbox that is only accessible to him via OWA. This has worked fine for years but now the user would like a notification to be sent to him when a message arrives in his conflicts mailbox. Initially I thought an Outlook rule would work but of course the client is never logged in so the Outlook rules are never processed. This led me to think that an Exchange Transport rule might work but the only options I can see are to Forward or Copy the message to another user. this would bypass the conflicts setup. All I really need is a notification and not the actual message to be sent. Is this at all possible with Exchange 2007? Or if not is there any thirdparty addition or workaround that anyone has come across?

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  • Can simple javascript inheritance be simplified even further?

    - by Will
    John Resig (of jQuery fame) provides a concise and elegant way to allow simple JavaScript inheritance. It was so short and sweet, in fact, that it inspired me to try and simplify it even further (see code below). I've modified his original function such that it still passes all his tests and has the potential advantage of: readability (50% less code) simplicity (you don't have to be a ninja to understand it) performance (no extra wrappers around super/base method calls) consistency with C#'s base keyword Because this seems almost too good to be true, I want to make sure my logic doesn't have any fundamental flaws/holes/bugs, or if anyone has additional suggestions to improve or refute the code (perhaps even John Resig could chime in here!). Does anyone see anything wrong with my approach (below) vs. John Resig's original approach? if (!window.Class) { window.Class = function() {}; window.Class.extend = function(members) { var prototype = new this(); for (var i in members) prototype[i] = members[i]; prototype.base = this.prototype; function object() { if (object.caller == null && this.initialize) this.initialize.apply(this, arguments); } object.constructor = object; object.prototype = prototype; object.extend = arguments.callee; return object; }; } And the tests (below) are nearly identical to the original ones except for the syntax around base/super method calls (for the reason enumerated above): var Person = Class.extend( { initialize: function(isDancing) { this.dancing = isDancing; }, dance: function() { return this.dancing; } }); var Ninja = Person.extend( { initialize: function() { this.base.initialize(false); }, dance: function() { return this.base.dance(); }, swingSword: function() { return true; } }); var p = new Person(true); alert("true? " + p.dance()); // => true var n = new Ninja(); alert("false? " + n.dance()); // => false alert("true? " + n.swingSword()); // => true alert("true? " + (p instanceof Person && p instanceof Class && n instanceof Ninja && n instanceof Person && n instanceof Class));

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  • How do I write find/write the script to restore a guest user in Lion (Mac OS X)?

    - by Avry
    In Mac OS X 10.7, you cannot have a guest user if you encrypt the entire drive. An alternative is to create a psuedo-guest user. One of the downsides is that the feature where the guest user is restored to original state no longer exists. How do I write a script that restores the User Template found in /System/Library/User Template/English.lproj? I would also have to figure how to activate this script either at login or on logout.

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  • Weird - "The EntityReference object could not be serialized" when serializing from an ASP.NET Web Si

    - by Mikey Cee
    I have an Entity Framework data model. Part of the model is a Customer entity. The web service provides a method to get a customer, and to receive an updated version of this customer to be persisted. To test this, I created a new ASP.NET web Application, (Solution Add New Project ASP.NET Web Application), then added a reference to my service reference using the standard Add Service Reference dialog. I then call the service using the following code: var client = new CustomerServiceClient(); var customer = client.GetCustomerByID(18); // get it customer.LimitDown = 100; // change it client.SaveCustomer(customer); // persist it Everything works as expected. Now, I do exactly the same thing, but this time with as ASP.NET Web Site (Solution Add New Web Site ASP.NET Web Site). I add the reference in a similar fashion and copy and paste the code above into the new site. But now I get the following exception thrown on the 4th line: System.InvalidOperationException The EntityReference object could not be serialized. This type of object cannot be serialized when the RelationshipManager belongs to an entity object that does not implement IEntityWithRelationships. Source Error: Line 2474: Line 2475: public SkyWalkerCustomerService.OperationResult SaveCustomer(SkyWalkerCustomerService.Customer customer) { Line 2476: return base.Channel.SaveCustomer(customer); Line 2477: } Line 2478: } Stack Trace: System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) +9475203 System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) +345 SkyWalkerCustomerService.ICustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) +0 SkyWalkerCustomerService.CustomerServiceClient.SaveCustomer(Customer customer) in c:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30128\Temporary ASP.NET Files\testsite2\dd2bcf8d\f95604ff\App_WebReferences.fz4h7x7l.0.cs:2476 _Default.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in c:\Users\Mike\Documents\Repositories\UWC\SkyWalker\TestSite2\Default.aspx.cs:17 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +14 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +35 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +91 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +61 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1966 Googling for this error returns very little. Why doesn't this work?

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  • Powershell: Select-Object with additional calculated difference value

    - by David.Chu.ca
    Let me explain my question. I have a daily report about one PC's free space as in text file (sp.txt) like: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/01/2010 100.43 DateTime FreeSpace(MB) ----- ------------- 03/02/2010 98.31 .... Then I need to use this file as input to generate a report with difference of free space between dates: DateTime FreeSpace(MB) Change ----- ------------- ------ 03/01/2010 100.43 03/02/2010 98.31 2.12 .... Here are some codes I have to get above result without the additional "Change" calculation: Get-Content "C:\report\sp.txt" ` | where {$_.trim().length -gt 0 -and -not ($_ -like "Date*") -and -not ($_ -like "---*")} ` | Select-Object @{Name='DateTime'; expression={[DateTime]::Parse($_.SubString(0, 10).Trim())}}, ` @{Name='FreeSpace(MB)'; expression={$_.SubString(12, 12).Trim()}}, ` | Sort-Object DateTime ` | Select-Object DateTime, 'FreeSpace(MB)' |ft -AutoSize # how to add additional column Change to this Select-Object? My understanding is that Select-Object will return a collection of objects. Here I create this collection from an input text file(parse each line into parts: datetime and freespace(MB)). In order to calculate the difference between dates, I guess that I need to add additional calculated value to the result of the last Select-Object, or pipe the result to another Select-Object with the calculation as additional property or column. In order to do it, I need to get the previous row's FreeSpace value. Not sure if it is possible and how?

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  • Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

    - by Tarun
    I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Powershell / .Net: Get a reference to an object returned by a method

    - by Dan Menes
    I am teaching myself PowerShell by writing a simple parser. I use the .Net framework class Collections.Stack. I want to modify the object at the top of the stack in place. I know I can pop() the object off, modify it, and then push() it back on, but that strikes me as inelegant. First, I tried this: $stk = new-object Collections.Stack $stk.push( (,'My first value') ) ( $stk.peek() ) += ,'| My second value' Which threw an error: Assignment failed because [System.Collections.Stack] doesn't contain a settable property 'peek()'. At C:\Development\StackOverflow\PowerShell-Stacks\test.ps1:3 char:12 + ( $stk.peek <<<< () ) += ,'| My second value' + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (peek:String) [], RuntimeException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : ParameterizedPropertyAssignmentFailed Next I tried this: $ary = $stk.peek() $ary += ,'| My second value' write-host "Array is: $ary" write-host "Stack top is: $($stk.peek())" Which prevented the error but still didn't do the right thing: Array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is: My first value Clearly, what is getting assigned to $ary is a copy of the object at the top of the stack, so when I the object in $ary, the object at the top of the stack remains unchanged. Finally, I read up on teh [ref] type, and tried this: $ary_ref = [ref]$stk.peek() $ary_ref.value += ,'| My second value' write-host "Referenced array is: $($ary_ref.value)" write-host "Stack top is still: $($stk.peek())" But still no dice: Referenced array is: My first value | My second value Stack top is still: My first value I assume the peek() method returns a reference to the actual object, not the clone. If so, then the reference appears to be being replaced by a clone by PowerShell's expression processing logic. Can somebody tell me if there is a way to do what I want to do? Or do I have to revert to pop() / modify / push()?

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  • iPhone: Get indexPath of Predicate Object

    - by Nic Hubbard
    I am using a predicate to find an object in core data. I can successfully find the object that I want, but I need to also get the indexPath of that object, so that I can push a details view in for that object. Currently I have the following code for getting my object: NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Ride" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"title = %@ AND addressFull = %@", view.annotation.title, view.annotation.subtitle]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSMutableArray *sortDescriptors = [NSMutableArray array]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"title" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [sortDescriptors addObject:[[[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"addressFull" ascending:YES] autorelease]]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setPropertiesToFetch:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"title", @"addressFull", nil]]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; // Sohow what record we returned NSLog(@"%@",[fetchedItems objectAtIndex:0]); So, I can correctly get my object into an array. But how do I translate that object into an indexPath?

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  • SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

    - by Shao
    SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

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  • Allowing user to edit only the page content and some custom fields in wordpress

    - by GaVrA
    This is the site: http://www.backpackers.rs Using "User Role Editor" i have user group that can only read and edit published pages so i can have as many users as i want in that user group and they all will have only one published page on their own so they can edit only that page. Now, this is how a user in that user group currently is seeing "edit page" page: http://i39.tinypic.com/rwuesh.png What i need is to disable all those things that have a red border around it + something with custom fields. So i need to disable these things for user in that user group: ability to change status of the page entire "Attributes" block is something that he/she must not see or be able to change ability to change something in "Discussion" block he/she shouldnt see "Page revisions" block i need a way to give those users ability to use only some custom fields. Currently we have 6 custom fields, and i want to give these users ability to only use 4 of those custom fields. i need to disable these users from creating new custom fields. I dont need complete answers for these things, something to get me started is really what i need. I have been reading codex a lot, but still didnt find something to help me with this, so basically any answer is more then appreciated!

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  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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  • Media recommendation engine - Single user system - How to start

    - by Microkernel
    Hi guys, I want to implement a media recommendation engine. I saw a similar posts on this, but I think my requirements are bit different from those, so posting here. Here is the deal. I want to implement a recommendation engine for media players like VLC, which would be an engine that has to care for only single user. Like, it would be embedded in a media player on a PC which is typically used by single user. And it will start learning the likes and dislikes of the user and gradually learns what a user likes. Here it will not be able to find similar users for using their data for recommendation as its a single user system. So how to go about this? Or you can consider it as a recommendation engine that has to be put in say iPods, which has to learn about a single user and recommend music/Movies from the collections it has. I thought of start collecting the genre of music/movies (maybe even artist name) that user watches and recommend movies from the most watched Genre, but it look very crude, isn't it? So is there any algorithms I can use or any resources I can refer up to? Regards, MicroKernel :)

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  • Python access an object byref / Need tagging

    - by Aaron C. de Bruyn
    I need to suck data from stdin and create a object. The incoming data is between 5 and 10 lines long. Each line has a process number and either an IP address or a hash. For example: pid=123 ip=192.168.0.1 - some data pid=123 hash=ABCDEF0123 - more data hash=ABCDEF123 - More data ip=192.168.0.1 - even more data I need to put this data into a class like: class MyData(): pid = None hash = None ip = None lines = [] I need to be able to look up the object by IP, HASH, or PID. The tough part is that there are multiple streams of data intermixed coming from stdin. (There could be hundreds or thousands of processes writing data at the same time.) I have regular expressions pulling out the PID, IP, and HASH that I need, but how can I access the object by any of those values? My thought was to do something like this: myarray = {} for each line in sys.stdin.readlines(): if pid and ip: #If we can get a PID out of the line myarray[pid] = MyData().pid = pid #Create a new MyData object, assign the PID, and stick it in myarray accessible by PID. myarray[pid].ip = ip #Add the IP address to the new object myarray[pid].lines.append(data) #Append the data myarray[ip] = myarray[pid] #Take the object by PID and create a key from the IP. <snip>do something similar for pid and hash, hash and ip, etc...</snip> This gives my an array with two keys (a PID and an IP) and they both point to the same object. But on the next iteration of the loop, if I find (for example) an IP and HASH and do: myarray[hash] = myarray[ip] The following is False: myarray[hash] == myarray[ip] Hopefully that was clear. I hate to admit that waaay back in the VB days, I remember being able handle objects byref instead of byval. Is there something similar in Python? Or am I just approaching this wrong?

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  • Django Testing: Faking User Creation

    - by Ygam
    I want to better write this test: def test_profile_created(self): self.client.post(reverse('registration_register'), data={ 'username':'ygam', 'email':'[email protected]', 'password1':'ygam', 'password2':'ygam' }) """ Test if a profile is created on save """ user = User.objects.get(username='ygam') self.assertTrue(UserProfile.objects.filter(user=user).exists()) and I just came upon this code on django-registration tests that does not actually "create" the user: def test_registration_signal(self): def receiver(sender, **kwargs): self.failUnless('user' in kwargs) self.assertEqual(kwargs['user'].username, 'bob') self.failUnless('request' in kwargs) self.failUnless(isinstance(kwargs['request'], WSGIRequest)) received_signals.append(kwargs.get('signal')) received_signals = [] signals.user_registered.connect(receiver, sender=self.backend.__class__) self.backend.register(_mock_request(), username='bob', email='[email protected]', password1='secret') self.assertEqual(len(received_signals), 1) self.assertEqual(received_signals, [signals.user_registered]) However he used a custom function for this "_mock_request": class _MockRequestClient(Client): def request(self, **request): environ = { 'HTTP_COOKIE': self.cookies, 'PATH_INFO': '/', 'QUERY_STRING': '', 'REMOTE_ADDR': '127.0.0.1', 'REQUEST_METHOD': 'GET', 'SCRIPT_NAME': '', 'SERVER_NAME': 'testserver', 'SERVER_PORT': '80', 'SERVER_PROTOCOL': 'HTTP/1.1', 'wsgi.version': (1,0), 'wsgi.url_scheme': 'http', 'wsgi.errors': self.errors, 'wsgi.multiprocess':True, 'wsgi.multithread': False, 'wsgi.run_once': False, 'wsgi.input': None, } environ.update(self.defaults) environ.update(request) request = WSGIRequest(environ) # We have to manually add a session since we'll be bypassing # the middleware chain. session_middleware = SessionMiddleware() session_middleware.process_request(request) return request def _mock_request(): return _MockRequestClient().request() However, it may be too long of a function for my needs. I want to be able to somehow "fake" the account creation. I have not much experience on mocks and stubs so any help would do. Thanks!

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  • Receiving generic typed <T> custom objects through remote object in Flex

    - by Aaron
    Is it possible to receive custom generic typed objects through AMF? I'm trying to integrate a flex app with an existing C# service but flex is choking on custom generic typed objects. As far as I can tell Flex doesn't even support generics, but I'd like to be able to even just read in the object and cast its members as necessary. I basically just want flex to ignore the <T>. I'm hopeful that there's a way to do this, since flex doesn't complain about typed collections (a server call returning List works fine and flex converts it to an ArrayCollection just like an un-typed List). Here's a trimmed down example of what's going on for me: The custom C# typed class public class TypeTest<T> { public T value { get; set; } public TypeTest () { } } The server method returning the typeTest public TypeTest<String> doTypeTest() { TypeTest<String> theTester = new TypeTest<String>("grrrr"); return theTester; } The corresponding flex value object: [RemoteClass(alias="API.Model.TypeTest")] public class TypeTest { private var _value:Object; public function get value():Object { return _value; } public function set value(theValue:Object):void { _value = value; } public function TypeTest() { } } and the result handler code: public function doTypeTest(result:TypeTest):void { var theString:String = result.value as String; trace(theString); } When the result handler is called I get the runtime error: TypeError: Error #1034: Type Coercion failed: cannot convert mx.utils::ObjectProxy@11a98041 to com.model.vos.TypeTest. Irritatingly if I change the result handler to take parameter of type Object it works fine. Anyone know how to make this work with the value object? I feel like i'm missing something really obvious.

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  • JPA native query join returns object but dereference throws class cast exception

    - by masato-san
    I'm using JPQL Native query to join table and query result is stored in List<Object[]>. public String getJoinJpqlNativeQuery() { String final SQL_JOIN = "SELECT v1.bitbit, v1.numnum, v1.someTime, t1.username, t1.anotherNum FROM MasatosanTest t1 JOIN MasatoView v1 ON v1.username = t1.username;" System.out.println("get join jpql native query is being called ============================"); EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getDefaultManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(SQL_JOIN); out = query.getResultList(); System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); System.out.println(out.get(0)); String one = out.get(0).toString(); //LINE 77 where ClassCastException System.out.println(one); } catch(Exception e) { } finally { if(em != null) { em.close; } } } The problem is System.out.println("return object ==========>" + out); outputs: return object ==========> [[true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020], [false, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, koga, 0.213]] System.out.println(out.get(0)) outputs: [true, 0, 2010-12-21 15:32:53.0, masatosan, 0.020] So I assumed that I can assign return value of out.get(0) which should be String: String one = out.get(0).toString(); But I get weird ClassCastException. java.lang.ClassCastException: java.util.Vector cannot be cast to [Ljava.lang.Object; at local.test.jaxrs.MasatosanTestResource.getJoinJpqlNativeQuery (MasatosanTestResource.java:77) So what's really going on? Even Object[] foo = out.get(0); would throw an ClassCastException :(

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  • Validating Login / Changing User settings / Php Mysql

    - by Marcelo
    Hi everyone, my questions are about login, and changing already saved data. (Q1) 'Till now I've only saved input in the tables of the database (registration steps), now I need to check if the input (login steps), are the same of my table in database, in fact I have 3 types of users, then I'll have to check 3 kind of tables. Then if the input data matches with one of those 3 tables I will redirect the user to his specific area. I'm thinking about saved the submitted data $login=$_REQUEST['login']; and $password=$_REQUEST['password']; and compare with the login column in the database. Then if the login matches, I'll compare the password submitted with the one in the row, not in the column. But I don't know how to do this search and comparison,neither what to use. Then if both matches I'll redirect the user. Else I'll send an login error message. (this I know how to do) (Q2) What if need to change an already saved user ? For example to change an email address. My changing user's data web page is exactly the same like the registration user web page. Can I load the already saved options and values of registration (table user for example). Then the user will change whatever he thinks it's necessary, and then when he submits the new information, they would not create a new row in my table, but just be overwritten the old information? How can I do this? Sorry for any mistake in English, and Thanks for the attention.

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  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • Javascript function objects, this keyword points to wrong object

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I've got a problem concerning the javascript "this" keyword when used within a javascript functional object. I want to be able to create an object for handling a Modal popup (JQuery UI Dialog). The object is called CreateItemModal. Which i want to be able to instantiate and pass some config settings. One of the config settings. When the show method is called, the dialog will be shown, but the cancel button is not functioning because the this refers to the DOM object instead of the CreateItemModal object. How can I fix this, or is there a better approach to put seperate behaviour in seperate "classes" or "objects". I've tried several approaches, including passing the "this" object into the events, but this does not feel like a clean solution. See (simplified) code below: function CreateItemModal(config) { // initialize some variables including $wrapper }; CreateItemModal.prototype.show = function() { this.$wrapper.dialog({ buttons: { // this crashes because this is not the current object here Cancel: this.close } }); }; CreateItemModal.prototype.close = function() { this.config.$wrapper.dialog('close'); };

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  • Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

    - by Jake M
    I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

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  • Pass object or id

    - by Charles
    This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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  • WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

    - by Randster
    Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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  • SugarCRM - how to make users see only child users?

    - by John
    Hello, I want to change the behaviour of Sugar CRM community version. Here's what sugar currently does: 1) Admin logs into Sugar. 2) Admin clicks on Admin tab. 3) Admin creates a new user named George with admin access 4) Under user information section, Admin makes George report to Admin (in the database, it will show users.report_to_id is the admin's user_id) 5) Admin saves and logs out 6) George logs in with his password 7) George goes to admin tab. 8) George goes to list users page and sees all users, including Admin, the person he is supposed to report to. I want to change step 8 such that George is not allowed to see the user he reports to. Additionally, he is not allowed to see his grand parent user, great grand parent user, great great grand parent user etc... George should only be able to see users that he creates. How can I achieve this? Is this even possible?

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