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  • Windows Server 2012 Migration (DNS/AD DS Standard Eval to Essentials OEM) P2V -> Do I need a Secondary Domain Controller during migration?

    - by Aubrey Robertson
    This is my first post on this exchange (although not my first on stack exchange), so please have patience. I am a 3rd year student intern, and I have been tasked with virtualizing the server systems at the company I work for. I have come a long way, and I am almost ready to install the VM Server in migration mode. Here is some information: Source Server: Windows Server 2012 Standard Evaluation DNS Server (local only) Advanced Directory Domain Services File and Storage stuff A few other server roles Destination Server: Windows Server 2012 Essentials OEM (Hyper-V client) Running under a temporary Hyper-V host (will migrate the Hyper-V host back to the old machine after the original server is virtualized as a client). Sitting currently at the "Select Installation Mode" screen. I have been following the guides on Microsoft tech net, and today I spent most of the day getting rid of issues in the Best Practices Analyser on the source machine. I have 3 remaining issues (which are all related): ERROR: DNS: DNS servers on Ethernet (adapter name) should include the loopback address, but not as the first entry (flavour text indicates that, during migration, the DNS server may not be found) WARNING: All domains should have at least two domain controllers for redundancy. WARNING: DNS: Ethernet should be configured to use both a preferred and an alternate DNS Server. All of these issues can be resolved by deploying a secondary domain controller, but I have never done that before (see my concerns below). The main issue here that I am concerned with for installing in migration mode is the FIRST one (the error). If I try and set-up the new server deployment, and the adapter domain controller is listed as localhost, then this may cause the installation to fail. (at least, this is what the Microsoft documentation suggests). But I do not have another IP address to enter here as I have no other local domain controllers. So I did the first obvious thing that came to my mind, and tried to use Google DNS servers as my alternates. That did not work because they couldn't recognize other computers in the "forest". Now I'm no expert when it comes to DNS, so please forgive my ignorance. This DNS server is concerned only with Active Directory stuffs for the local network. If I go ahead with migration, and it fails, then I will just have to go ahead and install a secondary DNS server I suppose. The problem I have here is that I am limited by the amount of Windows Server keys I have available (I have 2); however, I do have access to a Linux box running Debian Wheezy that I set-up two weeks ago as a Mantis server. I could install Windows Server 2012 as a secondary DNS (I think) in a VM and use that, but then it seems like I will be wasting time, and probably the Windows key too, and if there's another way to do it with Linux that would be much better. Even better still, do I even need a secondary DNS server for migration at all? The hints said that during migration the original machine "might" not be found. Thank you for your time and consideration.

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  • Neighbour table overflow on Linux hosts related to bridging and ipv6

    - by tim
    Note: I already have a workaround for this problem (as described below) so this is only a "want-to-know" question. I have a productive setup with around 50 hosts including blades running xen 4 and equallogics providing iscsi. All xen dom0s are almost plain Debian 5. The setup includes several bridges on every dom0 to support xen bridged networking. In total there are between 5 and 12 bridges on each dom0 servicing one vlan each. None of the hosts has routing enabled. At one point in time we moved one of the machines to a new hardware including a raid controller and so we installed an upstream 3.0.22/x86_64 kernel with xen patches. All other machines run debian xen-dom0-kernel. Since then we noticed on all hosts in the setup the following errors every ~2 minutes: [55888.881994] __ratelimit: 908 callbacks suppressed [55888.882221] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.882476] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.882732] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883050] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883307] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883562] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.883859] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884118] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884373] Neighbour table overflow. [55888.884666] Neighbour table overflow. The arp table (arp -n) never showed more than around 20 entries on every machine. We tried the obvious tweaks and raised the /proc/sys/net/ipv4/neigh/default/gc_thresh* values. FInally to 16384 entries but no effect. Not even the interval of ~2 minutes changed which lead me to the conclusion that this is totally unrelated. tcpdump showed no uncommon ipv4 traffic on any interface. The only interesting finding from tcpdump were ipv6 packets bursting in like: 14:33:13.137668 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:9d01 > ff02::1:ff1d:9d01: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:9d01, length 24 14:33:13.138061 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:a8c1 > ff02::1:ff1d:a8c1: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:a8c1, length 24 14:33:13.138619 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:bf81 > ff02::1:ff1d:bf81: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:bf81, length 24 14:33:13.138974 IP6 fe80::216:3eff:fe1d:eb41 > ff02::1:ff1d:eb41: HBH ICMP6, multicast listener reportmax resp delay: 0 addr: ff02::1:ff1d:eb41, length 24 which placed the idea in my mind that the problem maybe related to ipv6, since we have no ipv6 services in this setup. The only other hint was the coincidence of the host upgrade with the beginning of the problems. I powered down the host in question and the errors were gone. Then I subsequently took down the bridges on the host and when i took down (ifconfig down) one particularly bridge: br-vlan2159 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:26:b9:fb:16:2c inet6 addr: fe80::226:b9ff:fefb:162c/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:120 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:9 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:5286 (5.1 KiB) TX bytes:726 (726.0 B) eth0.2159 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:26:b9:fb:16:2c inet6 addr: fe80::226:b9ff:fefb:162c/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:1801 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:20 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:126228 (123.2 KiB) TX bytes:1464 (1.4 KiB) bridge name bridge id STP enabled interfaces ... br-vlan2158 8000.0026b9fb162c no eth0.2158 br-vlan2159 8000.0026b9fb162c no eth0.2159 The errors went away again. As you can see the bridge holds no ipv4 address and it's only member is eth0.2159 so no traffic should cross it. Bridge and interface .2159 / .2157 / .2158 which are in all aspects identical apart from the vlan they are connected to had no effect when taken down. Now I disabled ipv6 on the entire host via sysctl net.ipv6.conf.all.disable_ipv6 and rebooted. After this even with bridge br-vlan2159 enabled no errors occur. Any ideas are welcome.

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  • htaccess on remote server issues - password prompt not accepting input

    - by pying saucepan
    EDIT: I will contact the university about my problem after labor day weekend, but I thought if someone knew a quick fix that I haven't tried, or if the problem has an obvious fix then I could hope to try my luck here, thanks! TLDR: Sorry its a long post, I thought I should be... thorough. I am having a common issue (found a dead thread through google with no solution to the same problem) with the prompt to enter in a username and password via htaccess rights, but this prompt will keep popping up asking for a username and password when trying to access my home directory on my university's server which has the .htaccess and .htpasswd files. It does not matter if I enter in correct or incorrect credentials, the prompt will keep asking me for input without displaying my home directory. Ever since I have included these ht files I have never once been able to get past the username/password no matter what I have tried, save for removing them from the directory I am trying to access (my top level directory that I own). This kind of served my original goal of making the top level directory inaccessible to casual users, but if I wanted to use this method on other places, I would want it to work as intended. And I also like it when computers do what I wish they would, so any help is appreciated. Some things I have tried: Changing the file/directory access rights: they told me to try these commands if people can't access my files cd ~/public_html find ./ -type d -exec chmod 755 {} \; find ./ -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; enter in the single character name/pw at least twenty times in a row, no cheddar. so I changed directory with cd ~ in hopes that this would be my home directory, since my home directory contains the "public_html" directory, so logic tells me that the ~ tilde symbol is the top level directory that I have ownership of. Then I did those two commands to change the rights on the files inside, I am still having no luck. How I got to this point: I have been following the instructions given to me through my university's website for setting up my little directory. A link on how they describe how to password protect the home directory is given below: "Protect Web Directories" instructions I have everything in order except for one small detail that I feel probably does not matter. I am on windows and so I am using winSCP to remote control my allocated server space. The small detail is that as the instructions indicate (on step 3) that I should use the command htpasswd -c .htpasswd {username} where {username} is my folder that holds my allocated server space. But this command requires further input through the terminal, and unfortunately winSCP does not offer this kind of functionality. So I looked up some basic instructions on using htaccess and it is formatted correctly such that the .htaccess file appears as follows: AuthType Basic AuthName "Verify" AuthUserFile /correctpath/.htpasswd require valid-user and this file is in the root directory for my server space as well as the .htpasswd file which has only this data inside: username:password I know for sure that these two files must be formatted correctly, at least according to their tutorial, because before my path was incorrectly formatted via including some curly { braces } without knowing the correct way to do this at first. And the password prompt that shows up when accessing my directory responded by loading an error page indicating to contact OSU admin or something not important. But now that I have everything like it 'should' be. I know this because when I enter in my credentials "username and password" the prompt pops up for my username and password again and again whether or not I enter in correct information. The only exception is that if I click cancel it will direct me to a page saying that I need to enter in a username and password. Note that I am very inexperienced at server-related buisness, two days ago I couldn't have told you what a website actually consists of. So, if you use some technical jargon I may or may not need to look it up and get back to you before I actually understand what you mean, but I am a quick learner and it probably wont matter.

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  • XenServer Converting HVM to Paravirtualised

    - by Karl Kloppenborg
    Recently I have been tasked with the daunting process of converting a setup of HVM enabled VMs (running on Citrix XenServer 5.6.0) into PV (paravirtualised) containers. The constraints of the project was that: The operating system must be functionally identical after the migration. minimal modification to the operating system (with exception of kernel / drive mapping) I also was allowed to change the bootloader(ie, grub) in what ever way I see fit. However, I have attempted this, I will firstly like to show you my steps I took. This at the moment is CentOS5.5 specific: Steps: yum install kernel-xen This installed: 2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen edited: /boot/grub/menu.lst changed my specs to match: title CentOS (2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen) root (hd0,0) kernel /vmlinuz-2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen ro root=/dev/VolGroup00/LogVol00 console=xvc0 initrd /initrd-2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen.img Then I changed my xenserver parameters to match: xe vm-param-set uuid=[vm uuid] PV-bootloader-args="--kernel /vmlinuz-2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen --ramdisk /initrd-2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen.img" xe vm-param-set uuid=[vm uuid] HVM-boot-policy="" xe vm-param-set uuid=[vm uuid] PV-bootloader=pygrub xe vbd-param-set uuid==[Virtual Block Device/VBD uuid] bootable=true Some things to note, I am running a VolGroup LVM ;) Anyways, after all these steps (which aren't much!) I boot the VM and it boots initial kernel just fine, however I am presented with this error: Boot Screen: device-mapper: dm-raid45: initialized v0.2594l Waiting for driver initialization. Scanning and configuring dmraid supported devices Scanning logical volumes Reading all physical volumes. This may take a while... Activating logical volumes Volume group "VolGroup00" not found Creating root device. Mounting root filesystem. mount: could not find filesystem '/dev/root' Setting up other filesystems. Setting up new root fs setuproot: moving /dev failed: No such file or directory no fstab.sys, mounting internal defaults setuproot: error mounting /proc: No such file or directory setuproot: error mounting /sys: No such file or directory Switching to new root and running init. unmounting old /dev unmounting old /proc unmounting old /sys switchroot: mount failed: No such file or directory Now my hints are that it cannot detect / because of the fact that when you change from HVM mode to PV it does something (not that obvious) When you make a SR (storage) on a HVM, you get it mounted to the guest os as /dev/hda. However in PV mode, this presents itself as /dev/xvda... Could this be the answer? and if so, how the heck to I implement it?? Update: So I have gotten a bit further in my quest, as it now detects the LVM's... To do this, I required to recompile the xen-kernel initrd image. Command: mkinitrd -v --builtin=xen_vbd --preload=xenblk initrd-2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen.img 2.6.18-194.32.1.el5xen Now when I boot I get this: Boot Screen: Loading dm-raid45.ko module device-mapper: dm-raid45: initialized v0.2594l Scanning and configuring dmraid supported devices Scanning logical volumes Reading all physical volumes. This may take a while... Found volume group "VolGroup00" using metadata type lvm2 Activating logical volumes 3 logical volume(s) in volume group "VolGroup00" now active Creating root device. Mounting root filesystem. mount: error mounting /dev/root on /sysroot as ext3: Device or resource busy Setting up other filesystems. Setting up new root fs setuproot: moving /dev failed: No such file or directory no fstab.sys, mounting internal defaults setuproot: error mounting /proc: No such file or directory setuproot: error mounting /sys: No such file or directory Switching to new root and running init. unmounting old /dev unmounting old /proc unmounting old /sys switchroot: mount failed: No such file or directory Kernel panic - not syncing: Attempted to kill init!

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  • SmartOS reboots spontaneously

    - by Alex
    I run a SmartOS system on a Hetzner EX4S (Intel Core i7-2600, 32G RAM, 2x3Tb SATA HDD). There are six virtual machines on the host: [root@10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 ~]# vmadm list UUID TYPE RAM STATE ALIAS d2223467-bbe5-4b81-a9d1-439e9a66d43f KVM 512 running xxxx1 5f36358f-68fa-4351-b66f-830484b9a6ee KVM 1024 running xxxx2 d570e9ac-9eac-4e4f-8fda-2b1d721c8358 OS 1024 running xxxx3 ef88979e-fb7f-460c-bf56-905755e0a399 KVM 1024 running xxxx4 d8e06def-c9c9-4d17-b975-47dd4836f962 KVM 4096 running xxxx5 4b06fe88-db6e-4cf3-aadd-e1006ada7188 KVM 9216 running xxxx5 [root@10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 ~]# The host reboots several times a week with no crash dump in /var/crash and no messages in the /var/adm/messages log. Basically /var/adm/messages looks like there was a hard reset: 2012-11-23T08:54:43.210625+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T09:14:43.187589+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T09:34:43.165100+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T09:54:43.142065+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T10:14:43.119365+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T10:34:43.096351+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T10:54:43.073821+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 rsyslogd: -- MARK -- 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610954+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 genunix: [ID 540533 kern.notice] #015SunOS Release 5.11 Version joyent_20121018T224723Z 64-bit 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610962+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 genunix: [ID 299592 kern.notice] Copyright (c) 2010-2012, Joyent Inc. All rights reserved. 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610967+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: lgpg 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610971+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: tsc 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610974+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: msr 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610978+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: mtrr 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610981+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: pge 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610984+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: de 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610987+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: cmov 2012-11-23T10:57:55.610995+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: mmx 2012-11-23T10:57:55.611000+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: mca 2012-11-23T10:57:55.611004+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: pae 2012-11-23T10:57:55.611008+00:00 10-bf-48-7f-e7-03 unix: [ID 223955 kern.info] x86_feature: cv8 The problem is that sometimes the host loses the network interface on reboot so we need to perform a manual hardware reset to bring it back. We do not have physical or virtual access to the server console - no KVM, no iLO or anything like this. So, the only way to debug is to analyze crash dumps/log files. I am not a SmartOS/Solaris expert so I am not sure how to proceed. Is there any equivalent of Linux netconsole for SmartOS? Can I just redirect the console output to the network port somehow? Maybe I am missing something obvious and crash information is located somewhere else.

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  • arp -n responds with (incomplete) on the wrong subnet, can't remove it

    - by Hannes
    context There are 2 servers: server1 - eth0 10.129.76.16 eth0.2 192.168.0.103 server2 - eth0 10.129.79.1 eth0.2 192.168.62.101 The 192.x.x.x addresses are connected to the same vlan (vlan2) and are able to see eachother. The 10.x.x.x addresses are connected to different vlan's which are not able to see eachother. on request of David Swartz: the routing table on server 1 is: ~$ sudo route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.129.76.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.192.0 U 0 0 0 eth0.2 0.0.0.0 192.168.61.254 0.0.0.0 UG 100 0 0 eth0.2 the routing table on server 2 is: ~$ sudo route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 <public IP gw> 0.0.0.0 UG 100 0 0 eth0.11 10.129.79.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 <public IP> 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.128 U 0 0 0 eth0.11 192.168.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.192.0 U 0 0 0 eth0.2 Problem: When I ping from server 1 to server 2, it seems no packets are arriving and vice versa. When I check the routes (route -n) I see the default gw uses eth0.2 on both servers. But when I use arping, I get a response one way (from server 2 to server 1) but no response vice versa. arping 192.168.62.101 ARPING 192.168.62.101 from 10.129.76.16 eth0 ^CSent 2 probes (2 broadcast(s)) Received 0 response(s) As you can see it uses the 10.x.x.x address instead of the 192.x.x.x. And as I told before, the 10.x.x.x address is unreachable from the other server. When I force arping to use eth0.2, it does work. I don't have any problems with ping'ing other servers from any of those 2 servers. I did see this in the arp tables: ~# arp -n | grep 192.168.0.103 192.168.0.103 (incomplete) eth0 and ~# arp -n | grep 192.168.62.101 Question quite obvious... How can I make these servers see each other again? Things I've tied clear the apropriate entries in the arptable and tried to get rid of the (incomplete) But I think the biggest problem is that eth0 is used instead of eth0.2 for the packets from server 1 to server 2 Because of David Swartz' remark about the routing tables, I added a route in there defining the host. I added 192.168.0.103 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0.2 and 192.168.62.101 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 eth0.2 to the appropriate servers but this didn't solve the problem so I presume the problem is not in the routing. My guess I guess the problem lies in the following. ~$ arp -n | grep 192.168.0.103 192.168.0.103 (incomplete) eth0 but I'm unable to remove this entry. (arp -d 192.168.0.103 has no effect) Thanks for reading and even more thanks for answering!

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  • Causes of sudden massive filesystem damage? ("root inode is not a directory")

    - by poolie
    I have a laptop running Maverick (very happily until yesterday), with a Patriot Torx SSD; LUKS encryption of the whole partition; one lvm physical volume on top of that; then home and root in ext4 logical volumes on top of that. When I tried to boot it yesterday, it complained that it couldn't mount the root filesystem. Running fsck, basically every inode seems to be wrong. Both home and root filesystems show similar problems. Checking a backup superblock doesn't help. e2fsck 1.41.12 (17-May-2010) lithe_root was not cleanly unmounted, check forced. Resize inode not valid. Recreate? no Pass 1: Checking inodes, blocks, and sizes Root inode is not a directory. Clear? no Root inode has dtime set (probably due to old mke2fs). Fix? no Inode 2 is in use, but has dtime set. Fix? no Inode 2 has a extra size (4730) which is invalid Fix? no Inode 2 has compression flag set on filesystem without compression support. Clear? no Inode 2 has INDEX_FL flag set but is not a directory. Clear HTree index? no HTREE directory inode 2 has an invalid root node. Clear HTree index? no Inode 2, i_size is 9581392125871137995, should be 0. Fix? no Inode 2, i_blocks is 40456527802719, should be 0. Fix? no Reserved inode 3 (<The ACL index inode>) has invalid mode. Clear? no Inode 3 has compression flag set on filesystem without compression support. Clear? no Inode 3 has INDEX_FL flag set but is not a directory. Clear HTree index? no .... Running strings across the filesystems, I can see there are what look like filenames and user data there. I do have sufficiently good backups (touch wood) that it's not worth grovelling around to pull back individual files, though I might save an image of the unencrypted disk before I rebuild, just in case. smartctl doesn't show any errors, neither does the kernel log. Running a write-mode badblocks across the swap lv doesn't find problems either. So the disk may be failing, but not in an obvious way. At this point I'm basically, as they say, fscked? Back to reinstalling, perhaps running badblocks over the disk, then restoring from backup? There doesn't even seem to be enough data to file a meaningful bug... I don't recall that this machine crashed last time I used it. At this point I suspect a bug or memory corruption caused it to write garbage across the disks when it was last running, or some kind of subtle failure mode for the SSD. What do you think would have caused this? Is there anything else you'd try?

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  • Cannot connect to website - SSL handshaking fails

    - by ravenspoint
    So I cannot connect to certain websites. Just a few, most are OK. The one I really care about is paypal.com. I have done the usual things. Let's see: Checked my etc/hosts Flushed the DNS cache Checked firewall Switched on & off virus protection Switched on and off ad blocking pinged the sites Eventually, I decided to look at what curl is saying in detail == Info: About to connect() to www.paypal.com port 443 (#0) == Info: Trying 66.211.169.2... == Info: connected == Info: SSLv3, TLS handshake, Client hello (1): => Send SSL data, 110 bytes (0x6e) 0000: 01 00 00 6a 03 01 4f 6c aa 8c 57 2b 3d 1e 74 64 ...j..Ol..W+=.td 0010: c1 27 25 a5 3a 12 7f 3f 41 0a 17 15 2e c9 67 7c .'%.:.?A.....g| 0020: b3 e1 f6 9a db a9 00 00 2a 00 39 00 38 00 35 00 ........*.9.8.5. 0030: 16 00 13 00 0a 00 33 00 32 00 2f 00 07 00 05 00 ......3.2./..... 0040: 04 00 15 00 12 00 09 00 14 00 11 00 08 00 06 00 ................ 0050: 03 00 ff 01 00 00 17 00 00 00 13 00 11 00 00 0e ................ 0060: 77 77 77 2e 70 61 79 70 61 6c 2e 63 6f 6d www.paypal.com (hangs here for ever) This looks to me like paypal is refusing to reply to the first SSL handshake. I don't know much about SSL, but compaing to the output from a site that works for me seems to make it obvious == Info: About to connect() to www.cibc.com port 443 (#0) == Info: Trying 159.231.80.200... == Info: connected == Info: SSLv3, TLS handshake, Client hello (1): => Send SSL data, 108 bytes (0x6c) 0000: 01 00 00 68 03 01 4f 6c ad 6a 1f 67 d5 84 c4 4b ...h..Ol.j.g...K 0010: 0d 49 ae d6 b9 5b c3 63 f9 48 aa 18 da 43 d1 32 .I...[.c.H...C.2 0020: 47 ae 17 e5 cd e9 00 00 2a 00 39 00 38 00 35 00 G.......*.9.8.5. 0030: 16 00 13 00 0a 00 33 00 32 00 2f 00 07 00 05 00 ......3.2./..... 0040: 04 00 15 00 12 00 09 00 14 00 11 00 08 00 06 00 ................ 0050: 03 00 ff 01 00 00 15 00 00 00 11 00 0f 00 00 0c ................ 0060: 77 77 77 2e 63 69 62 63 2e 63 6f 6d www.cibc.com == Info: SSLv3, TLS handshake, Server hello (2): <= Recv SSL data, 74 bytes (0x4a) 0000: 02 00 00 46 03 01 00 00 58 cf 26 e2 e1 65 db 11 ...F....X.&..e.. 0010: bc 6f 26 7b 3b 6d eb 14 5f ad 47 dd 86 ea 4d a3 .o&{;m.._.G...M. 0020: fb 9f b7 2a 54 3e 20 5f 6b 04 5a 12 38 64 5d 18 ...*T> _k.Z.8d]. 0030: 65 9e e9 cd 61 eb 91 c1 16 25 61 30 bb 08 2a 78 e...a....%a0..*x 0040: b8 ee b8 7e f2 65 6a 00 04 00 ...~.ej... == Info: SSLv3, TLS handshake, CERT (11): ... and so on - working nicely eventually get some nice HTML Now I am reaaly stuck. This has been going on for five days, so I am pretty sure that the problem is not with paypal. But what on my system could be interfering with the SSL handshaking done by curl with this particular site? I suppose I could not be offering any certificates that PayPal accepts, but wouldn't I get a reply telling me so, or at least giving an error?

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  • How to use Public IP in case of two ISP when two differs from each other

    - by user1471995
    Please bare with my long explanation but this is important to explain the actual problem. Please also pardon my knowledge with PFsense as i am new to this. I have single PFSense box with 3 Ethernet adapter. Before moving to configuration for these, i want to let you know i have two Ethernet based Internet Leased Line Connectivity let's call them ISP A and ISP B. Then last inetrface is LAN which is connected to network switch. Typical network diagram ISP A ----- PFSense ----> Switch ---- > Servers ISP B ----- ISP A (Initially Purchased) WAN IP:- 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway IP :- 113.193.X.A and other 4 usable public IP in same subnet(So the gateway for those IP are also same). ISP B (Recently Purchased) WAN IP:- 115.115.X.X /30 Gateway IP :- 115.115.X.B and other 5 usable public IP in different subnet(So the gateway for those IP is different), for example if 115.119.X.X2 is one of the IP from that list then the gateway for this IP is 115.119.X.X1. Configuration for 3 Interfaces Interface : WAN Network Port : nfe0 Type : Static IP Address : 113.193.X.X /29 Gateway : 113.193.X.A Interface : LAN Network Port : vr0 Type : Static IP Address : 192.168.1.1 /24 Gateway : None Interface : RELWAN Network Port : rl0 Type : Static IP Address : 115.115.X.X /30 (I am not sure of the subnet) Gateway : 115.115.X.B To use Public IP from ISP A i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 53 (DNS) 192.168.1.5 53 (DNS) WAN TCP/UDP * * 113.193.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.5 80 (HTTP) WAN TCP * * 113.193.X.X2 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.7 80 (HTTP) etc., c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the WAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at WAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * Block private networks * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * To use Public IP from ISP B i have done following steps a) Created Virtual IP using either ARP or IP Alias. b) Using Firewall: NAT: Port Forward i have created specific natting from one public IP to my internal Lan private IP for example :- RELWAN TCP/UDP * * 115.119.116.X.X1 80 (HTTP) 192.168.1.11 80 (HTTP) c) Current state for Firewall: NAT: Outbound is Manual and whatever default rule are defined for the RELWAN those are only present. d) If this section in relevant then for Firewall: Rules at RELWAN tab then following default rule has been generated. * RFC 1918 networks * * * * * * Reserved/not assigned by IANA * * * * * * Last thing before my actual query is to make you aware that to have multiple Wan setup i have done following steps a) Under System: Gateways at Groups Tab i have created new group as following MultipleGateway WANGW, RELWAN Tier 2,Tier 1 Multiple Gateway Test b) Then Under Firewall: Rules at LAN tab i have created a rule for internal traffic as follows * LAN net * * * MultipleGateway none c) This setup works if unplug first ISP traffic start routing using ISP 2 and vice-versa. Now my main query and problem is i am not able to use public IP address allocated by ISP B, i have tried many small tweaks but not successful in anyone. The notable difference between the two ISP is a) In case of ISP A there Public usable IP address are on same subnet so the gateway used for the WAN ip is same for the other public IP address. b) In case of ISP B there public usable IP address are on different subnet so the obvious the gateway IP for them is different from WAN gateway's IP. Please let me know how to use ISP B public usable IP address, in future also i am going to rely for more IPs from ISP B only.

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  • Permission Mystery - apt-get and other system utilities have 000 permissions

    - by emteh
    I'm trying to track down this strange behavoir for years now. Always after installing software-updates the permissions of a lot of system-tools are broken as you can see below. I am reasonable convinced that the machine is not owned by someone else. Regular security updates + grsecurity kernel + pax + daily rkhunter runs. Besides that there is no incentive for an attacker to fiddle in such obvious ways with the system. I installed bastille linux (http://bastille-linux.sourceforge.net/) und tried to deinstall it later, so the problems could be related to that. However I don't see how this can happen in a regular way after updates. System: Ubuntu 10.04, recently updated to Ubuntu 12.04 but the problem persists. Apt-Configuration in /etc/apt/ looks sane to me. But nevertheless - could here be the source of the trouble? DPkg::Pre-Install-Pkgs {"/usr/sbin/dpkg-preconfigure --apt || true";}; DPkg::Post-Invoke { "if [ -x /usr/bin/debsums ]; then /usr/bin/debsums -- generate=nocheck -sp /var/cache/apt/archives; fi"; }; // Makes sure that rkhunter file properties database is updated // after each remove or install only APT_AUTOGEN is enabled DPkg::Post-Invoke { "if [ -x /usr/bin/rkhunter ] && grep -qiE '^APT_AUTOGEN=.? (true|yes)' /etc/default/rkhunter; then /usr/share/rkhunter/scripts/rkhupd.sh; fi" } DPkg::Post-Invoke {"if [ -d /var/lib/update-notifier ]; then touch /var/lib/update- notifier/dpkg-run-stamp; fi; if [ -e /var/lib/update-notifier/updates-available ]; then echo > /var/lib/update-notifier/updates-available; fi "; }; Where do these chmod 000 come from? I'm feeling really uneasy with this problem. root@besen:~# find /usr/bin/ -perm 0 -ls 14721496 196 ---------- 1 root root 192592 Oct 15 11:58 /usr/bin/apt-get 14721144 68 ---------- 1 root root 63848 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/bin/gpasswd root@besen:~# find /usr/sbin/ -perm 0 -ls 1727732 92 ---------- 1 root root 86984 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/usermod 1727727 64 ---------- 1 root root 57640 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/userdel 1727719 64 ---------- 1 root root 57680 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/newusers 1727718 40 ---------- 1 root root 38632 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpunconv 1727728 48 ---------- 1 root root 47088 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupadd 1727724 32 ---------- 1 root root 29584 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwunconv 19031620 84 ---------- 1 root root 81880 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/edquota 14877113 48 ---------- 1 root root 46880 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpck 1727722 40 ---------- 1 root root 38632 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwck 1727730 96 ---------- 1 root root 91464 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/useradd 19031619 16 ---------- 1 root root 14600 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/quotastats 1727720 44 ---------- 1 root root 42760 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupdel 1727733 36 ---------- 1 root root 34504 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/pwconv 19031621 80 ---------- 1 root root 77632 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/rpc.rquotad 19030041 76 ---------- 1 root root 73600 Jan 3 2012 /usr/sbin/repquota 1727731 40 ---------- 1 root root 38624 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/grpconv 1727725 56 ---------- 1 root root 49472 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/vipw 1727723 64 ---------- 1 root root 57672 Sep 13 00:29 /usr/sbin/groupmod root@besen:~# find /sbin/ -perm 0 -ls 16760927 76 ---------- 1 root root 73464 Jan 3 2012 /sbin/quotaon Any tipps? I really can't pinpoint the problem in more detail. It happens after installing updates but I can't find no hooks in the dpkg/apt system.

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  • Exchange Server 2007 Send and Receive Connectors

    - by Mistiry
    I have gotten awesome advice from users on here for getting Exchange on Windows SBS 2008 set up. I think this is the final piece and I'm ready for roll-out! I need to set up Exchange so that it RECEIVES mail from our existing mail server as a Forward [aliases on the existing mail server to forward mail from [email protected] to [email protected]] (not using the POP3 Connector), and SENDS mail through that server as well (sends from [email protected] to [email protected] and then out to the world, showing in the headers as from [email protected] or at absolute least have the reply-to set as this). Alternatively, as long as the .net email address doesn't show in the From and replies are directed to the .com account, email can go from Exchange to the outside world without directing through the existing mail server. External Domain: domain.com Internal Domain: domain.local Internet Domain Name Set in SBS Console: domain.net When I go to http://remote.domain.net I get the Remote Web Workspace, and can login to both Sharepoint and OWA. I can send an email from OWA to a GMail account. I receive it from [email protected], which is an alias of [email protected]. I cannot, however, send an email from OWA to ANY domain.com email addresses. I am also not receiving any email to this Exchange account (except for NDRs). When I try sending an email to a domain.com account, here is the error (I had to replace all < and with { and }): Delivery has failed to these recipients or distribution lists: [email protected] The recipient's e-mail address was not found in the recipient's e-mail system. Microsoft Exchange will not try to redeliver this message for you. Please check the e-mail address and try resending this message, or provide the following diagnostic text to your system administrator. Generating server: IFEXCHANGE.domain.local [email protected] #550 5.1.1 RESOLVER.ADR.RecipNotFound; not found ## Original message headers: Received: from IFEXCHANGE.domain.local ([fe80::4d34:abc5:f7fd:e51a]) by IFEXCHANGE.domain.local ([fe80::4d34:abc5:f7fd:e51a%10]) with mapi; Tue, 17 Aug 2010 14:14:14 -0400 Content-Type: application/ms-tnef; name="winmail.dat" Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary From: John Doe {[email protected]} To: "[email protected]" {[email protected]} Date: Tue, 17 Aug 2010 14:14:12 -0400 Subject: asdf Thread-Topic: asdf Thread-Index: AQHLPjf+h6hA5MJ1JUu1WS4I4CiWeA== Message-ID: {E4E10393768D784D8760A51938BA456A029934BA30@IFEXCHANGE.domain.local} Accept-Language: en-US Content-Language: en-US X-MS-Has-Attach: X-MS-TNEF-Correlator: {E4E10393768D784D8760A51938BA456A029934BA30@IFEXCHANGE.domain.local} MIME-Version: 1.0 I hope I explained the situation well enough for someone to be able to explain to me what I'm missing. If I could, I'd be putting a 10K bounty, but unfortunately I've got only 74 reputation (hey, I'm a newbie here!). I'm pretty sure the obvious "RecipNotFound" error is why its not working, my question is how to resolve this. The email account exists, it receives mail just fine, yet when I send it from the Exchange server it fails. EDIT In OC-Hub Transport, the Email Address Policies has 2 entries. "Windows SBS Email Address Policy" is set up to: Include All Recipient Types, no conditions, and SMTP %[email protected]. "Default Policy" set to: Include All Recipient Types, no conditions, and SMTP @domain.net. Three Authoritative Accepted domains domain.com domain.local (Default) domain.net Remote Domains tab has two entries. Default with domain * Windows SBS Company Web Domain with domain companyweb.

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  • WPF: Setting DataContext of a UserControl with Binding not working in XAML

    - by Grant Crofton
    Hi, I'm trying to get my first WPF app working using MVVM, and I've hit a little binding problem. The setup is that I have a view & viewModel which holds User details (the parent), and to try and keep things simple I've put a section of that view into a separate view & viewModel (the child). The child view is defined as a UserControl. The issue I'm having is how to set the DataContext of the child view (the UserControl). My parent ViewModel has a property which exposes the child ViewModel, like so: class ParentViewModel: INotifyPropertyChanged { public ChildViewModel childViewModel { get; set; } //... } In the XAML for my parent view (which has it's DataContext set to the ParentViewModel), I try to set the DataContext of the child view as follows: <views:ChildView x:Name="ChildView" DataContext="{Binding childViewModel}"/> However, this doesn't work. The DataContext of the child view is set to the same DataContext as the parent view (i.e. the ParentViewModel), as if I wasn't setting it at all. I also tried setting the DataContext in the child view itself, which also doesn't work: <UserControl x:Class="DietRecorder.Client.View.ChildView" DataContext="childViewModel" I have found a couple of ways around this. In the child view, I can bind everything by including the ChildViewModel in the path: <SomeControl Visibility="{Binding Path=childViewModel.IsVisible}"> but I don't want the child view to have this level of awareness of the hierarchy. Setting the DataContext in code also works - however, I have to do this after showing the parent view, otherwise the DataContext just gets overwritten when I call Show(): parentView.Show(); parentView.ChildView.DataContext = parentViewModel.childViewModel; This code also makes me feel uneasy, what with the LOD violation and all. It's just the DataContext that seems to be the problem - I can bind other things in the child, for example I tried binding the FontSize to an int property just to test it: <views:ChildView x:Name="ChildView" FontSize="{Binding Path=someVal}"/> And that works fine. But I'm sure binding the DataContext should work - I've seen similar examples of this kind of thing. Have I missed something obvious here? Is there a reason this won't work? Is there a spelling mistake somewhere? (I renamed things for your benefit so you won't be able to help me there anyway). Any thoughts welcome. Thanks, Grant

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  • jquery ui draggable elements not 'draggable' outside of scrolling div

    - by Stu
    hello all, i am super stumped. i have many elements (floating href tags) in a div with a set height/width, with scroll set to "overflow: auto" in the css. this is the structure of the divs: <div id="tagFun_div_main"> <div id="tf_div_tagsReturn"> <!-- all the draggable elements go in here, the parent div scolls --> </div> <div id=" tf_div_tagsDrop"> <div id="tf_dropBox"></div> </div></div> the parent div's, 'tf_div_tagsReturn' and 'tf_div_tagsDrop' will ultimately float next to each other. here is the jquery which is run after all of the 'draggable' elements have been created with class name 'tag_cell', : $(function() { $(".tag_cell").draggable({ revert: 'invalid', scroll: false, containment: '#tagFun_div_main' }); $("#tf_dropBox").droppable({ accept: '.tag_cell', hoverClass: 'tf_dropBox_hover', activeClass: 'tf_dropBox_active', drop: function(event, ui) { GLOBAL_ary_tf_tags.push(ui.draggable.html()); tagFun_reload(); } }); }); as i stated above, the draggable elements are draggable within div 'tf_div_tagsReturn', but they do not visually drag outside of that parent div. worthy to note, if i am dragging one of the draggable elements, and move the mouse over the droppable div, with id 'tf_dropBox', then the hoverclass is fired, i just can't see the draggable element any more. thank you very much for any advice on helping me find a solution. this is my first run at using jquery, so hopefully i am just missing something super obvious. i've been reading the documentation and searching forums thus far to no prevail :( thank you for your time. UPDATE: many thanks to Jabes88 for providing the solution which allowed me to achieve the functionality i was looking for, here is what my jquery ended up looking like, feel free to critique it, as i am new to jquery. $(function() { $(".tag_cell").draggable({ revert: 'invalid', scroll: false, containment: '#tagFun_div_main', helper: 'clone', start : function() { this.style.display="none"; }, stop: function() { this.style.display=""; } }); $(".tf_dropBox").droppable({ accept: '.tag_cell', hoverClass: 'tf_dropBox_hover', activeClass: 'tf_dropBox_active', drop: function(event, ui) { GLOBAL_ary_tf_tags.push(ui.draggable.html()); tagFun_reload(); } }); });

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  • WPF Dynamic Layout with ItemsControl and Grid

    - by Jason Williams
    I am creating a WPF form. One of the requirements is that it have a sector-based layout so that a control can be explicitly placed in one of the sectors/cells. I have created a tic-tac-toe example below to convey my problem: There are two types and one base type: public class XMoveViewModel : MoveViewModel { } public class OMoveViewModel : MoveViewModel { } public class MoveViewModel { public int Row { get; set; } public int Column { get; set; } } The DataContext of the form is set to an instance of: public class MainViewModel : ViewModelBase { public MainViewModel() { Moves = new ObservableCollection<MoveViewModel>() { new XMoveViewModel() { Row = 0, Column = 0 }, new OMoveViewModel() { Row = 1, Column = 0 }, new XMoveViewModel() { Row = 1, Column = 1 }, new OMoveViewModel() { Row = 0, Column = 2 }, new XMoveViewModel() { Row = 2, Column = 2} }; } public ObservableCollection<MoveViewModel> Moves { get; set; } } And finally, the XAML looks like this: <Window.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:XMoveViewModel}"> <Image Source="XMove.png" Grid.Row="{Binding Path=Row}" Grid.Column="{Binding Path=Column}" Stretch="None" /> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type vm:OMoveViewModel}"> <Image Source="OMove.png" Grid.Row="{Binding Path=Row}" Grid.Column="{Binding Path=Column}" Stretch="None" /> </DataTemplate> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Moves}"> <ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <Grid ShowGridLines="True"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> </Grid> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ItemsControl.ItemsPanel> </ItemsControl> </Grid> What was not so obvious to me when I started was that the ItemsControl element actually wraps each item in a container, so my Grid.Row and Grid.Column bindings are ignored since the images are not directly contained within the grid. Thus, all of the images are placed in the default Row and Column (0, 0). What is happening: The desired result: So, my question is this: how can I achieve the dynamic placement of my controls in a grid? I would prefer a XAML/Data Binding/MVVM-friendly solution. Thanks.

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  • MVVM pattern and nested view models - communication and lookup lists

    - by LostInWPF
    I am using Prism for a new application that I am creating. There are several lookup lists that will be used in several places in the application. Therefore it makes sense to define it once and use that everywhere I need that functionality. My current solution is to use typed data templates to render the controls inside a content control. <DataTemplate DataType={x:Type ListOfCountriesViewModel}> <ComboBox ItemsSource={Binding Countries} SelectedItem="{Binding SelectedCountry"/> </DataTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType={x:Type ListOfRegionsViewModel}> <ComboBox ItemsSource={Binding Countries} SelectedItem={Binding SelectedRegion} /> </DataTemplate> public class ParentViewModel { SelectedCountry get; set; SelectedRegion get; set; ListOfCountriesViewModel CountriesVM; ListOfRegionsViewModel RgnsVM; } Then in my window I have 2 content controls and the rest of the controls <ContentControl Content="{Binding CountriesVM}"></ContentControl> <ContentControl Content="{Binding RgnsVM}"></ContentControl> <Rest of controls on view> At the moment I have this working and the SelectedItems for the combo boxes are publising events via EventAggregator from the child view models which are then subscribed to in the parent view model. I am not sure that this is the best way to go as I can imagine I would end up with a lot of events very quickly and it will become unwieldy. Also if I was to use the same view model on another window it will publish the event and this parent viewmodel is subscribed to it which could have unintended consequences. My questions are :- Is this the best way to put lookup lists in a view which can be re-used across screens? How do I make it so that the combobox which is bound to the child viewmodel sets the relevant property on the parent viewmodel without using events / mediator. e.g in this case SelectedCountry for example? Any alternative implementation proposals for what I am trying to do? I have a feeling I am missing something obvious and there is so much info it is hard to know what is right so any help would be most gratefully received.

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  • iPad application crash in Apple review - cannot replicate in simulator, have crash log

    - by Mike
    I am clearly missing something obvious here and would really appreciate some input. I have tried repeatedly to submit an application to Apple (iPad in this case) that is crashing on their end when testing but I cannot replicated the situation on my end (obviously I only have the damned simulator to work with at this point). The crash log is as follows: Date/Time: 2010-04-01 05:39:47.226 -0700 OS Version: iPhone OS 3.2 (7B367) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGABRT) Exception Codes: 0x00000000, 0x00000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000790a0 __kill + 8 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x00079090 kill + 4 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x00079082 raise + 10 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0008d20a abort + 50 4 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00044a1c __gnu_cxx::__verbose_terminate_handler() + 376 5 libobjc.A.dylib 0x000057c4 _objc_terminate + 104 6 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042dee __cxxabiv1::__terminate(void (*)()) + 46 7 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042e42 std::terminate() + 10 8 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042f12 __cxa_throw + 78 9 libobjc.A.dylib 0x000046a4 objc_exception_throw + 64 10 CoreFoundation 0x00090c6e +[NSException raise:format:arguments:] + 74 11 CoreFoundation 0x00090d38 +[NSException raise:format:] + 28 12 Foundation 0x00002600 -[NSCFDictionary setObject:forKey:] + 184 13 iPadMosaic 0x00003282 -[iPadMosaicViewController getAlbumThumbs] (iPadMosaicViewController.m:468) 14 Foundation 0x000728fe __NSFireDelayedPerform + 314 15 CoreFoundation 0x00022d1c CFRunLoopRunSpecific + 2092 16 CoreFoundation 0x000224da CFRunLoopRunInMode + 42 17 GraphicsServices 0x000030d4 GSEventRunModal + 108 18 GraphicsServices 0x00003180 GSEventRun + 56 19 UIKit 0x000034c2 -[UIApplication _run] + 374 20 UIKit 0x000019ec UIApplicationMain + 636 21 iPadMosaic 0x00002234 main (main.m:14) 22 iPadMosaic 0x00002204 start + 32 My understanding here is that I am botching the Dictionary add somehow. The relevant lines of code are: for (NSDictionary *album in self.albumList) { // Get image for each album cover UIImage *albumCover; // Loop through photos to get URL of cover based on photo ID match NSString *coverURL = @""; for (NSDictionary *photo in self.photoList) { if ([[photo objectForKey:@"pid"] isEqualToString:[album objectForKey:@"cover_pid"]]) { coverURL = [photo objectForKey:@"src"]; } } NSURL *albumCoverURL = [NSURL URLWithString:coverURL]; NSData *albumCoverData = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:albumCoverURL]; albumCover = [UIImage imageWithData:albumCoverData]; if (albumCover == nil || albumCover == NULL) { //NSLog(@"No album cover for some reason"); albumCover = [UIImage imageNamed:@"noImage.png"]; } [[self.albumList objectAtIndex:albumCurrent] setObject:albumCover forKey:@"coverThumb"]; } This is part of a loop that runs over the existing dictionaries stored in an array. If retrieving the album cover fails for some reason the object is filled with a default image and then added. The last line of the code is what's showing up in the crash log. It runs fine in the simulator but crashes 100% in testing on device apparently. Can anyone tell me what I am missing here?

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  • facebook connect for android returns a blank login screen?

    - by jonney
    Hi, i am trying to use the old facebook connect authentication to authenticate my android client to get the necessary session id's and other credentials thats needed to start using the web service of facebook. the issue i am having is that when my android application launces and tries to load the login page for facebook, that very same login page is blank and it only displays the the facebook logo as the title of the screen. No login fields or buttons are visible leaving me nowhere to login and authenticate a user. i have tried two API's one is facebook connect api for android http://code.google.com/p/fbconnect-android/ and the other one is the official android facebook sdk that is recommended to be used instead of the previous one i have just mentioned https://github.com/facebook/facebook-android-sdk/ . please see the image below of how it looks like on my app. Here is code that uses the latest android sdk facebook: /** * Authenticate facebook network */ private void authenticateFacebook() { // TODO: move this away from this activty class into some kind of // helper/wrapper class Log.d(TAG, "Clicked on the facebook"); Facebook facebook = new Facebook(OAUTH_KEY_FACEBOOK_API); facebook.authorize(this, new AuthorizeListener()); } class AuthorizeListener implements DialogListener{ @Override public void onComplete(Bundle values) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Log.d(TAG, "finished authorizing facebook user"); } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onError(DialogError e) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onCancel() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } And a simple example of how to use it: http://developers.facebook.com/docs/guides/mobile/ My code is more or less identical to the above example. edit: i did not catch what logcat was inputing in my first attempted at my code above but their was no exceptions or warnings thrown at the time. just a blank page. i then tried it again and diddnt touch my code and what happens now is that a loading dialogue view pops up and stays their for a few minutes until the facebook windows disapears and the logcat outputs the error below: 11-18 17:26:19.913: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=e??????????????????? 11-18 17:27:01.756: DEBUG/Facebook-authorize(783): Login failed: com.kc.unity.agent.util.oauth.facebook.DialogError: The connection to the server was unsuccessful. 11-18 17:27:01.783: DEBUG/Facebook-WebView(783): Webview loading URL: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?type=user_agent&redirect_uri=fbconnect%3A%2F%2Fsuccess&display=touch&client_id=??????????????? please note that the client id i have amended for obvious reasons but the rest of the logcat is untouched

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  • Why is drawing to OnPaint graphics faster than image graphics?

    - by Tesserex
    I'm looking for a way to speed up the drawing of my game engine, which is currently the significant bottleneck, and is causing slowdowns. I'm on the verge of converting it over to XNA, but I just noticed something. Say I have a small image that I've loaded. Image img = Image.FromFile("mypict.png"); We have a picturebox on the screen we want to draw on. So we have a handler. pictureBox1.Paint += new PaintEventHandler(pictureBox1_Paint); I want our loaded image to be tiled on the picturebox (this is for a game, after all). Why on earth is this code: void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) e.Graphics.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } over 25 TIMES FASTER than this code: Image buff = new Bitmap(256, 256, PixelFormat.Format32bppPArgb); // actually a form member void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(buff)) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) g.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } e.Graphics.DrawImage(buff, 0, 0, 256, 256); } To eliminate the obvious, I've tried commenting out the last e.Graphics.DrawImage (which means I don't see anything, but it gets rid a call that isn't in the first example). I've also left in the using block (needlessly) in the first example, but it's still just as blazingly fast. I've set properties of g to match e.Graphics - things like InterpolationMode, CompositingQuality, etc, but nothing I do bridges this incredible gap in performance. I can't find any difference between the two Graphics objects. What gives? My test with a System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch says that the first code snippet runs at about 7100 fps, while the second runs at a measly 280 fps. My reference image is VS2010ImageLibrary\Objects\png_format\WinVista\SecurityLock.png, which is 48x48 px, and which I modified to be 72 dpi instead of 96, but those made no difference either.

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  • Entity Framework won't SaveChanges on new entity with two-level relationship

    - by Tim Rourke
    I'm building an ASP.NET MVC site using the ADO.NET Entity Framework. I have an entity model that includes these entities, associated by foreign keys: Report(ID, Date, Heading, Report_Type_ID, etc.) SubReport(ID, ReportText, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report. ReportSource(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with Sub_Report. ReportSourceType(ID, Name, Description) - one-to-many relationship with ReportSource. Contact (ID, Name, Address, etc.) - one-to-one relationship with Report_Source. There is a Create.aspx page for each type of SubReport. The post event method returns a new Sub_Report entity. Before, in my post method, I followed this process: Set the properties for a new Report entity from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's specific properties from the page's fields. Set the SubReport entity's Report to the new Report entity created in 1. Given an ID provided by the page, look up the ReportSource and set the Sub_Report entity's ReportSource to the found entity. SaveChanges. This workflow succeeded just fine for a couple of weeks. Then last week something changed and it doesn't work any more. Now instead of the save operation, I get this Exception: UpdateException: "Entities in 'DIR2_5Entities.ReportSourceSet' participate in the 'FK_ReportSources_ReportSourceTypes' relationship. 0 related 'ReportSourceTypes' were found. 1 'Report_Source_Types' is expected." The debug visualizer shows the following: The SubReport's ReportSource is set and loaded, and all of its properties are correct. The Report_Source has a valid ReportSourceType entity attached. In SQL Profiler the prepared SQL statement looks OK. Can anybody point me to what obvious thing I'm missing? TIA Notes: The Report and SubReport are always new entities in this case. The Report entity contains properties common to many types of reports and is used for generic queries. SubReports are specific reports with extra parameters varying by type. There is actually a different entity set for each type of SubReport, but this question applies to all of them, so I use SubReport as a simplified example.

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  • Multi-step Workflows: make Workflow A depend on results of Workflow B and/or Workflow C

    - by Joey
    I have been tasked with creating a Software Installation Approval section for our Intranet. When a person requests that a particular piece of software be installed on their workstation, we need to get IT approval and then business approval. Once those are obtained, it is to be installed. I am using Sharepoint Designer to do this. I have List A, where the user enters the information on the requested software. Workflow A then creates a Task in List B, which is then assigned to the IT approver. Workflow B works on List B on item creation, setting the due dates, titles, and other fields, and then pauses until the due date. The IT approver works with the business side and completes the task. Once List B task is complete, the item in List A should be marked as complete -- I have everything up to this point working fine. I want to make this more robust in 2 ways. As the only real option is to mark List B task as "completed", which essentially means "Approved", we have no way of really denying a request. What I want to add is the option to approve or deny a request through the task on List B -- if it is approved, I want the item in List A to continue to show "In Progress" with a custom status of "Approved", and I want to create a new task for software installation; once the installation task is marked as completed, then I want List A to show "Completed" with a status of "Installed". If it is denied, I want the item in List A to show as "Completed", with a status of "Denied". The problem is, I'm not even sure where to start making these modifications. Creating and modifying the custom status fields isn't that big of an issue -- I have messed around with this and I'm fairly confident I can do this easily. My main concern is that I know I will need a Workflow C, but I don't know where or how to trigger this to get the results I need. I've managed to get Workflows A and B working fine, but anything beyond this is really pushing the limit of my knowledge. It's probably obvious that I am rather new to Sharepoint workflows. I was very much thrust into this position and I am still feeling my way around. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Which functions in the C standard library commonly encourage bad practice?

    - by Ninefingers
    Hello all, This is inspired by this question and the comments on one particular answer in that I learnt that strncpy is not a very safe string handling function in C and that it pads zeros, until it reaches n, something I was unaware of. Specifically, to quote R.. strncpy does not null-terminate, and does null-pad the whole remainder of the destination buffer, which is a huge waste of time. You can work around the former by adding your own null padding, but not the latter. It was never intended for use as a "safe string handling" function, but for working with fixed-size fields in Unix directory tables and database files. snprintf(dest, n, "%s", src) is the only correct "safe strcpy" in standard C, but it's likely to be a lot slower. By the way, truncation in itself can be a major bug and in some cases might lead to privilege elevation or DoS, so throwing "safe" string functions that truncate their output at a problem is not a way to make it "safe" or "secure". Instead, you should ensure that the destination buffer is the right size and simply use strcpy (or better yet, memcpy if you already know the source string length). And from Jonathan Leffler Note that strncat() is even more confusing in its interface than strncpy() - what exactly is that length argument, again? It isn't what you'd expect based on what you supply strncpy() etc - so it is more error prone even than strncpy(). For copying strings around, I'm increasingly of the opinion that there is a strong argument that you only need memmove() because you always know all the sizes ahead of time and make sure there's enough space ahead of time. Use memmove() in preference to any of strcpy(), strcat(), strncpy(), strncat(), memcpy(). So, I'm clearly a little rusty on the C standard library. Therefore, I'd like to pose the question: What C standard library functions are used inappropriately/in ways that may cause/lead to security problems/code defects/inefficiencies? In the interests of objectivity, I have a number of criteria for an answer: Please, if you can, cite design reasons behind the function in question i.e. its intended purpose. Please highlight the misuse to which the code is currently put. Please state why that misuse may lead towards a problem. I know that should be obvious but it prevents soft answers. Please avoid: Debates over naming conventions of functions (except where this unequivocably causes confusion). "I prefer x over y" - preference is ok, we all have them but I'm interested in actual unexpected side effects and how to guard against them. As this is likely to be considered subjective and has no definite answer I'm flagging for community wiki straight away. I am also working as per C99.

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  • T-SQL selecting values that match ISNUMERIC and also are within a specified range. (plus Linq-to-sql

    - by Toby
    I am trying to select rows from a table where one of the (NVARCHAR) columns is within a numeric range. SELECT ID, Value FROM Data WHERE ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 AND CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) < 66.6 Unfortunately as part of the SQL spec the AND clauses don't have to short circuit (and don't on MSSQL Server EE 2008). More info: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/789231/is-the-sql-where-clause-short-circuit-evaluated My next attempt was to try this to see if I could achieve delayed evaluation of the CONVERT SELECT ID, Value FROM Data WHERE (CASE WHEN ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 THEN CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) < 66.6 ELSE 0 END) but I cannot seem to use a < (or any comparison) with the result of a CONVERT. It fails with the error Incorrect syntax near '<'. I can get away with SELECT ID, CONVERT(FLOAT, Value) AS Value FROM Data WHERE ISNUMERIC(Value) = 1 So the obvious solution is to wrap the whole select statement in another SELECT and WHERE and return the converted values from the inner select and filter in there where of the outer select. Unfortunately this is where my Linq-to-sql problem comes in. I am filtering not only by one range but potentialy by many, or just by the existance of the record (there are some date range selects and comparisons I've left out.) Essentially I would like to be able to generate something like this: SELECT ID, TypeID, Value FROM Data WHERE (TypeID = 4 AND ISNUMERIC(Value) AND CONVERT(Float, Value) < 66.6) OR (TypeID = 8 AND ISNUMERIC(Value) AND CONVERT(Float, Value) > 99) OR (TypeID = 9) (With some other clauses in each of those where options.) This clearly doesn't work if I filter out the non-ISNUMERIC values in an inner select. As I mentioned I am using Linq-to-sql (and PredicateBulider) to build up these queries but unfortunately Datas.Where(x => ISNUMERIC(x.Value) ? Convert.ToDouble(x.Value) < 66.6 : false) Gets converted to this which fails the initial problem. WHERE (ISNUMERIC([t0].[Value]) = 1) AND ((CONVERT(Float,[t0].[Value])) < @p0) My last resort will have to be to outer join against a double select on the same table for each of the comparisons but this isn't really an idea solution. I was wondering if anyone has run into similar issues before?

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  • Is MVVM pointless?

    - by joebeazelman
    Is orthodox MVVM implementation pointless? I am creating a new application and I considered Windows Forms and WPF. I chose WPF because it's future-proof and offer lots of flexibility. There is less code and easier to make significant changes to your UI using XAML. Since the choice for WPF is obvious, I figured that I may as well go all the way by using MVVM as my application architecture since it offers blendability, separation concerns and unit testability. Theoretically, it seems beautiful like the holy grail of UI programming. This brief adventure; however, has turned into a real headache. As expected in practice, I’m finding that I’ve traded one problem for another. I tend to be an obsessive programmer in that I want to do things the right way so that I can get the right results and possibly become a better programmer. The MVVM pattern just flunked my test on productivity and has just turned into a big yucky hack! The clear case in point is adding support for a Modal dialog box. The correct way is to put up a dialog box and tie it to a view model. Getting this to work is difficult. In order to benefit from the MVVM pattern, you have to distribute code in several places throughout the layers of your application. You also have to use esoteric programming constructs like templates and lamba expressions. Stuff that makes you stare at the screen scratching your head. This makes maintenance and debugging a nightmare waiting to happen as I recently discovered. I had an about box working fine until I got an exception the second time I invoked it, saying that it couldn’t show the dialog box again once it is closed. I had to add an event handler for the close functionality to the dialog window, another one in the IDialogView implementation of it and finally another in the IDialogViewModel. I thought MVVM would save us from such extravagant hackery! There are several folks out there with competing solutions to this problem and they are all hacks and don’t provide a clean, easily reusable, elegant solution. Most of the MVVM toolkits gloss over dialogs and when they do address them, they are just alert boxes that don’t require custom interfaces or view models. I’m planning on giving up on the MVVM view pattern, at least its orthodox implementation of it. What do you think? Has it been worth the trouble for you if you had any? Am I just a incompetent programmer or does MVVM not what it's hyped up to be?

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  • Union struct produces garbage and general question about struct nomenclature

    - by SoulBeaver
    I read about unions the other day( today ) and tried the sample functions that came with them. Easy enough, but the result was clear and utter garbage. The first example is: union Test { int Int; struct { char byte1; char byte2; char byte3; char byte4; } Bytes; }; where an int is assumed to have 32 bits. After I set a value Test t; t.Int = 7; and then cout cout << t.Bytes.byte1 << etc... the individual bytes, there is nothing displayed, but my computer beeps. Which is fairly odd I guess. The second example gave me even worse results. union SwitchEndian { unsigned short word; struct { unsigned char hi; unsigned char lo; } data; } Switcher; Looks a little wonky in my opinion. Anyway, from the description it says, this should automatically store the result in a high/little endian format when I set the value like Switcher.word = 7656; and calling with cout << Switcher.data.hi << endl The result of this were symbols not even defined in the ASCII chart. Not sure why those are showing up. Finally, I had an error when I tried correcting the example by, instead of placing Bytes at the end of the struct, positioning it right next to it. So instead of struct {} Bytes; I wanted to write struct Bytes {}; This tossed me a big ol' error. What's the difference between these? Since C++ cannot have unnamed structs it seemed, at the time, pretty obvious that the Bytes positioned at the beginning and at the end are the things that name it. Except no, that's not the entire answer I guess. What is it then?

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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