Search Results

Search found 4008 results on 161 pages for 'friendly fire'.

Page 143/161 | < Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >

  • Rendering HTML in Java

    - by ferronrsmith
    I am trying to create a help panel for an application I am working on. The help file as already been created using html technology and I would like it to be rendered in a pane and shown. All the code I have seen shows how to render a site e.g. "http://google.com". I want to render a file from my pc e.g. "file://c:\tutorial.html" This is the code i have, but it doesn't seem to be working. import javax.swing.JEditorPane; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JLabel; import javax.swing.JScrollPane; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Container; import java.io.IOException; import static java.lang.System.err; import static java.lang.System.out; final class TestHTMLRendering { // ------------------------------ CONSTANTS ------------------------------ /** * height of frame in pixels */ private static final int height = 1000; /** * width of frame in pixels */ private static final int width = 1000; private static final String RELEASE_DATE = "2007-10-04"; /** * title for frame */ private static final String TITLE_STRING = "HTML Rendering"; /** * URL of page we want to display */ private static final String URL = "file://C:\\print.html"; /** * program version */ private static final String VERSION_STRING = "1.0"; // --------------------------- main() method --------------------------- /** * Debugging harness for a JFrame * * @param args command line arguments are ignored. */ @SuppressWarnings( { "UnusedParameters" } ) public static void main( String args[] ) { // Invoke the run method on the Swing event dispatch thread // Sun now recommends you call ALL your GUI methods on the Swing // event thread, even the initial setup. // Could also use invokeAndWait and catch exceptions SwingUtilities.invokeLater( new Runnable() { /** * } fire up a JFrame on the Swing thread */ public void run() { out.println( "Starting" ); final JFrame jframe = new JFrame( TITLE_STRING + " " + VERSION_STRING ); Container contentPane = jframe.getContentPane(); jframe.setSize( width, height ); contentPane.setBackground( Color.YELLOW ); contentPane.setForeground( Color.BLUE ); jframe.setDefaultCloseOperation( JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE ); try { out.println( "acquiring URL" ); JEditorPane jep = new JEditorPane( URL ); out.println( "URL acquired" ); JScrollPane jsp = new JScrollPane( jep, JScrollPane.VERTICAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED, JScrollPane.HORIZONTAL_SCROLLBAR_AS_NEEDED ); contentPane.add( jsp ); } catch ( IOException e ) { err.println( "can't find URL" ); contentPane.add( new JLabel( "can't find URL" ) ); } jframe.validate(); jframe.setVisible( true ); // Shows page, with HTML comments erroneously displayed. // The links are not clickable. } } ); }// end main }// end TestHTMLRendering

    Read the article

  • Creating meaningful routes in wizard style ASP.NET MVC form

    - by R0MANARMY
    I apologize in advance for a long question, figured better have a bit more information than not enough. I'm working on an application with a fairly complex form (~100 fields on it). In order to make the UI a little more presentable the fields are organized into regions and split across multiple (~10) tabs (not unlike this, but each tab does a submit/redirect to next tab). This large input form can also be in one of 3 views (read only, editable, print friendly). The form represents a large domain object (let's call it Foo). I have a controller for said domain object (FooController). It makes sense to me to have the controller be responsible for all the CRUD related operations. Here are the problems I'm having trouble figuring out. Goals: I'd like to keep to conventions so that Foo/Create creates a new record Foo/Delete deletes a record Foo/Edit/{foo_id} takes you to the first tab of the form ...etc I'd like to be able to not repeat the data access code such that I can have Foo/Edit/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/View/{foo_id}/tab1 Foo/Print/{foo_id}tab1 ...etc use the same data access code to get the data and just specify which view to use to render it. My current implementation has a massive FooController with Create, Delete, Tab1, Tab2, etc actions. Tab actions are split out into separate files for organization (using partial classes, which may or may not be abuse of partial classes). Problem I'm running into is how to organize my controller(s) and routes to make that happen. I have the default route {controller}/{action}/{id} Which handles goal 1 properly but doesn't quite play nice with goal 2. I tried to address goal 2 by defining extra routes like so: routes.MapRoute( "FooEdit", "Foo/Edit/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Edit", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooView", "Foo/View/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "View", id = (string)null } ); routes.MapRoute( "FooPrint", "Foo/Print/{id}/{action}", new { controller = "Foo", action = "Tab1", mode = "Print", id = (string)null } ); However defining these extra routes causes the Url.Action to generate routs like Foo/Edit/Create instead of Foo/Create. That leads me to believe I designed something very very wrong, but this is my first attempt an asp.net mvc project and I don't know any better. Any advice with this particular situation would be awesome, but feedback on design in similar projects is welcome.

    Read the article

  • launching mapview from main activity (button)

    - by arc
    Hi all. Going round in circles here i think. I have an activity called Locate; public class Locate extends Activity { public static String lat; public static String lon; public static String number; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.locate); final Button buttonMaps = (Button) findViewById(R.id.ButtonMaps); buttonMaps.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Button Pressed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); try { Intent i = new Intent(getBaseContext(), displayMap.class); i.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); startActivity(i); } catch (ActivityNotFoundException e) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Activity Not Found", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } }}); // Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "lat: " + lat + " long: " + lon + " from: " + testname, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } If I make the displayMap class into a normal Activity, and just have display a toast message confirming it has loaded - then it works fine. If i do this though; public class displayMap extends MapActivity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ public void onCreate() { setContentView(R.layout.displaymap); Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Display Map", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } } Then as soon as I click the Button, I get a force close. I have the correct 'uses-library' tag in my manifest; <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name"> <uses-library android:name="com.google.android.maps" /> I don't get what it just force closes everytime i try and load it. If I make this my onClick handler then it will fire up a working googlemaps/default mapview public void onClick(View v) { Toast.makeText(getBaseContext(), "Button Pressed", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Uri uri=Uri.parse("geo:"+Locate.lat+","+Locate.lon); StartActivity(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, uri)); } But that is not what I am trying to do, I want my own - so that I can add overlays etc to it. But it does prove that the permission are set correctly and that the lib is there. The logcat error when the app FCs is a Unexpected DEX error. Can anyone point in the right direction here?

    Read the article

  • Multiple Mod_ReWrites on one site - Possible? (Wordpress blog in root directory, CodeIgniter project

    - by Sootah
    Currently I am creating a project with CodeIgniter that is contained within a subdirectory of my domain. For this example we'll call it domain.com/test. I also have Wordpress installed on this domain, and all of its files are in the root. For instance, if you navigate to my domain.com then it pulls up the Wordpress blog. I currently have the Wordpress mod_rewrite activated so that it uses friendly-URLs. For those of you that aren't familiar with CodeIgniter, all requests are routed through index.php in the project's root folder. So, in this case, it'd be domain.com/text/index.php. A request to the application would be sent like domain.com/test/index.php/somecontroller/method. What I'd like to do, is for any incoming request that is directed towards the /test/ folder, or some subdirectory therein I'd like it to appropriately rewrite the URL so the index.php isn't included. (As per the example above, it'd end up being domain.com/test/somecontroller/method) For any OTHER request, meaning anything that's not within the /test/ directory, I would like it to route the request to Wordpress. I would imagine it's a simple RewriteCond to make it check to see if the request is for the /test/ directory or a subdirectory therein, but I've no idea how to do it. Perhaps you can't have more than one set of Rewrite Rules per site. I will include the recommended mod_rewrite rules for each application. Wordpress: (Currently used) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /index.php [L] </IfModule> CodeIgniter: (Pulled from their Wiki) <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / #Removes access to the system folder by users. #Additionally this will allow you to create a System.php controller, #previously this would not have been possible. #'system' can be replaced if you have renamed your system folder. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^system.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #When your application folder isn't in the system folder #This snippet prevents user access to the application folder #Submitted by: Fabdrol #Rename 'application' to your applications folder name. RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^application.* RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] #Checks to see if the user is attempting to access a valid file, #such as an image or css document, if this isn't true it sends the #request to index.php RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L] </IfModule> <IfModule !mod_rewrite.c> # If we don't have mod_rewrite installed, all 404's # can be sent to index.php, and everything works as normal. # Submitted by: ElliotHaughin ErrorDocument 404 /index.php </IfModule> Any and all help is much appreciated!! Thanks, -Sootah

    Read the article

  • Help with Linq Expression - INotifyPropertyChanged

    - by Stephen Patten
    Hello, I'm reading the source code from the latest Prism 4 drop and am interested in solving this problem. There is a base class for the ViewModels that implements INotifyPropertyChanged and INotifyDataErrorInfo and provides some refactoring friendly change notification. protected void RaisePropertyChanged<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { var propertyName = ExtractPropertyName(propertyExpresssion); this.RaisePropertyChanged(propertyName); } private string ExtractPropertyName<T>(Expression<Func<T>> propertyExpresssion) { if (propertyExpresssion == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("propertyExpression"); } var memberExpression = propertyExpresssion.Body as MemberExpression; if (memberExpression == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The expression is not a member access expression.", "propertyExpression"); } var property = memberExpression.Member as PropertyInfo; if (property == null) { throw new ArgumentException("The member access expression does not access property.","propertyExpression"); } if (!property.DeclaringType.IsAssignableFrom(this.GetType())) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property belongs to a different type.", "propertyExpression"); } var getMethod = property.GetGetMethod(true); if (getMethod == null) { // this shouldn't happen - the expression would reject the property before reaching this far throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property does not have a get method.", "propertyExpression"); } if (getMethod.IsStatic) { throw new ArgumentException("The referenced property is a static property.", "propertyExpression"); } return memberExpression.Member.Name; } and as an example of it's usage private void RetrieveNewQuestionnaire() { this.Questions.Clear(); var template = this.questionnaireService.GetQuestionnaireTemplate(); this.questionnaire = new Questionnaire(template); foreach (var question in this.questionnaire.Questions) { this.Questions.Add(this.CreateQuestionViewModel(question)); } this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.Name); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.UnansweredQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.TotalQuestions); this.RaisePropertyChanged(() => this.CanSubmit); } My question is this. What would it take to pass an array of the property names to an overloaded method (RaisePropertyChanged) and condense this last bit of code from 4 lines to 1? Thank you, Stephen

    Read the article

  • More efficient way of updating UI from Service than intents?

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I currently have a Service in Android that is a sample VOIP client so it listens out for SIP messages and if it recieves one it starts up an Activity screen with UI components. Then the following SIP messages determine what the Activity is to display on the screen. For example if its an incoming call it will display Answer or Reject or an outgoing call it will show a dialling screen. At the minute I use Intents to let the Activity know what state it should display. An example is as follows: Intent i = new Intent(); i.setAction(SIPEngine.SIP_TRYING_INTENT); i.putExtra("com.net.INCOMING", true); sendBroadcast(i); Intent x = new Intent(); x.setAction(CallManager.SIP_INCOMING_CALL_INTENT); sendBroadcast(x); Log.d("INTENT SENT", "INTENT SENT INCOMING CALL AFTER PROCESSINVITE"); So the activity will have a broadcast reciever registered for these intents and will switch its state according to the last intent it received. Sample code as follows: SipCallListener = new BroadcastReceiver(){ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { String action = intent.getAction(); if(SIPEngine.SIP_RINGING_INTENT.equals(action)){ Log.d("cda ", "Got RINGING action SIPENGINE"); ringingSetup(); } if(CallManager.SIP_INCOMING_CALL_INTENT.equals(action)){ Log.d("cda ", "Got PHONE RINGING action"); incomingCallSetup(); } } }; IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter(CallManager.SIP_INCOMING_CALL_INTENT); filter.addAction(CallManager.SIP_RINGING_CALL_INTENT); registerReceiver(SipCallListener, filter); This works however it seems like it is not very efficient, the Intents will get broadcast system wide and Intents having to fire for different states seems like it could become inefficient the more I have to include as well as adding complexity. So I was wondering if there is a different more efficient and cleaner way to do this? Is there a way to keep Intents broadcasting only inside an application? Would callbacks be a better idea? If so why and in what way should they be implemented?

    Read the article

  • Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

    - by Lasse Krantz
    Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • Generate reasonable length license key with asymmetric encryption?

    - by starkos
    I've been looking at this all day. I probably should have walked away from it hours ago; I might be missing something obvious at this point. Short version: Is there a way to generate and boil down an asymmetrically encrypted hash to a reasonable number of unambiguous, human readable characters? Long version: I want to generate license keys for my software. I would like these keys to be of a reasonable length (25-36 characters) and easily read and entered by a human (so avoid ambiguous characters like the number 0 and the capital letter O). Finally--and this seems to be the kicker--I'd really like to use asymmetric encryption to make it more difficult to generate new keys. I've got the general approach: concatenate my information (user name, product version, a salt) into a string and generate a SHA1() hash from that, then encrypt the hash with my private key. On the client, build the SHA1() hash from the same information, then decrypt the license with the public key and see if I've got a match. Since this is a Mac app, I looked at AquaticPrime, but that generates a relatively large license file rather than a string. I can work with that if I must, but as a user I really like the convenience of a license key that I can read and print. I also looked at CocoaFob which does generate a key, but it is so long that I'd want to deliver it as a file anyway. I fooled around with OpenSSL for a while but couldn't come up with anything of a reasonable length. So...am I missing something obvious here? Is there a way to generate and boil down an asymmetrically encrypted hash to a reasonable number of unambiguous, human readable characters? I'm open to buying a solution. But I work on a number of different of platforms, so I'd want something portable. Everything I've looked at so far has been platform specific. Many, many thanks for a solution! PS - Yes, I know it will still be cracked. I'm trying to come up with something reasonable that, as a user, I would still find friendly.

    Read the article

  • Git/Mercurial (hg) opinion

    - by Richard
    First, let me say I'm not a professional programmer, but an engineer who had a need for it and had to learn. I was always working alone, so it was just me and my seven splitted personalities ... and we worked okey as a team :) Most of my stuff is done in C/Fortran/Matlab and so far I've been learning git to manage it all. However, although I've had no unsolvable problems with it, I've never been "that" happy with it ... for everything I cannot do, I hae to look up a book. And, for some time now I've been hearning a lot of good stuff about hg. Now, a coleague of mine will have to work with me on a project (I almost feel sorry for him) and he's started learning hg (says he likes it more), and I'm considering the switch myself. We work almost exclusivly on Windows platform (although I manage relatively ok using unix tools and things that come from that part of the world). So, I was wondering, in a described scenario, what problems could I expect with the switch. I heard that hg is rather more user friendly towards windows users, regarding the user interfaces. How does it handle repositories ? Does it create them the same way as git does (just one subdirectory in a working directory) and can I just copy the whole project directory (including git repo) and just carry them somewhere with no extra thinking ? (I really liked that when I was choosing over git/svn). Are there any good books on it that you can recommend (something like Pro Git, only for Hg). What are good ways to implement hg into Visual Studio/GVim for Windows, or into Windows Explorer so I can work relatively easily (I would like to avoid using the command line for everything regarding it, like in git shell). Is there something else I should be aware of (please, on this don't point me to other questions ... they just give me a ton of info, and I'm not sure what is it that I should take as important, and what to disregard). I'm trying to cut some time, since I cannot spend all that time relearning hg, like I did for git. I've also heard git is c project, while mercurial is python ... is there any noticeable difference in speed. git was pretty speedy ... will I encounter some waiting while working. Notice: All my projects are of let's say, middle size ... mostly numerical simulations ... 10-15000 lines (medium size?)

    Read the article

  • WMI: Editing the Registry Remotely

    - by Quanta
    I'm trying to use the following code (poorly written, but it's just a proof of concept) to edit the registry of a computer on a domain. I have a domain account, and I've verified that the domain admin group is present in the local admin group on the machines I'm attempting to affect. I've connected to these other machines to perform other administrative type tasks, so I'm sure that I have administrative privileges on these hosts. All of StdRegProv's "get" methods work fine (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa393664%28VS.85%29.aspx) but the "set" or "create" methods as well as check access all return "5" which is "Error_Access_Denied" according to winerror.h. So there's the problem: why do I get access denied when attempting to modify the registry? If anyone can help me figure this out, you'd have my utmost appreciation! I almost forgot, when I fire up Visual Studio in admin mode on my local machine and run the code against the local machine, it works flawlessly. If I don't start in admin mode on the local machine, the code fails, so I suspect there's a UAC problem maybe? using System; using System.Management; public class EditRemoteRegistry { public static void Main(string[] args) { ConnectionOptions options = new ConnectionOptions(); options.EnablePrivileges = true; options.Impersonation = ImpersonationLevel.Impersonate; options.Password = "password goes here"; //options.Authority = "my company's domain"; //options.Username = "Admin username"; ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope("\\\\arbitraryhost\\root\\default", options); scope.Connect(); ManagementClass mc = new ManagementClass("StdRegProv"); ManagementBaseObject inParams = mc.GetMethodParameters("CreateKey"); inParams["hDefKey"] = (UInt32)2147483650; inParams["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mc.InvokeMethod("CreateKey", inParams, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("CreateKey Method returned " + outParams["returnValue"]); //This chunk works fine ManagementBaseObject inParams5 = mc.GetMethodParameters("GetDWORDValue"); inParams5["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams5["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams5["sValueName"] = "testDWORDvalue"; ManagementBaseObject outParams5 = mc.InvokeMethod("GetDWORDValue", inParams5, null); Console.WriteLine("GetDWORDValue returned " + (UInt32)outParams5["returnValue"] + " "); Console.WriteLine((UInt32)outParams5["uValue"]); ManagementBaseObject inParams6 = mc.GetMethodParameters("SetStringValue"); inParams6["hDefKey"] = 2147483650; inParams6["sSubKeyName"] = "Software\\Test"; inParams6["sValueName"] = "TestStringValue"; inParams6["sValue"] = "Hello World!"; ManagementBaseObject outParams6 = mc.InvokeMethod("SetStringValue", inParams6, null); //Should return a 0, but returns a 5, "Error_Access_Denied" Console.WriteLine("SetStringValue returned " + outParams6["returnValue"]); Console.ReadKey(); } }

    Read the article

  • INSERT OR IGNORE in a trigger

    - by dan04
    I have a database (for tracking email statistics) that has grown to hundreds of megabytes, and I've been looking for ways to reduce it. It seems that the main reason for the large file size is that the same strings tend to be repeated in thousands of rows. To avoid this problem, I plan to create another table for a string pool, like so: CREATE TABLE AddressLookup ( ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, Address TEXT UNIQUE ); CREATE TABLE EmailInfo ( MessageID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, ToAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID), FromAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID) /* Additional columns omitted for brevity. */ ); And for convenience, a view to join these tables: CREATE VIEW EmailView AS SELECT MessageID, A1.Address AS ToAddr, A2.Address AS FromAddr FROM EmailInfo LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A1 ON (ToAddrRef = A1.ID) LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A2 ON (FromAddrRef = A2.ID); In order to be able to use this view as if it were a regular table, I've made some triggers: CREATE TRIGGER trg_id_EmailView INSTEAD OF DELETE ON EmailView BEGIN DELETE FROM EmailInfo WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_ii_EmailView INSTEAD OF INSERT ON EmailView BEGIN INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.ToAddr); INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.FromAddr); INSERT INTO EmailInfo SELECT NEW.MessageID, A1.ID, A2.ID FROM AddressLookup A1, AddressLookup A2 WHERE A1.Address = NEW.ToAddr AND A2.Address = NEW.FromAddr; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_iu_EmailView INSTEAD OF UPDATE ON EmailView BEGIN UPDATE EmailInfo SET MessageID = NEW.MessageID WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; REPLACE INTO EmailView SELECT NEW.MessageID, NEW.ToAddr, NEW.FromAddr; END; The problem After: INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (1, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (2, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); The updated rows contain: MessageID ToAddr FromAddr --------- ------ -------- 1 NULL [email protected] 2 [email protected] [email protected] There's a NULL that shouldn't be there. The corresponding cell in the EmailInfo table contains an orphaned ToAddrRef value. If you do the INSERTs one at a time, you'll see that Alice's ID in the AddressLookup table changes! It appears that this behavior is documented: An ON CONFLICT clause may be specified as part of an UPDATE or INSERT action within the body of the trigger. However if an ON CONFLICT clause is specified as part of the statement causing the trigger to fire, then conflict handling policy of the outer statement is used instead. So the "REPLACE" in the top-level "INSERT OR REPLACE" statement is overriding the critical "INSERT OR IGNORE" in the trigger program. Is there a way I can make it work the way that I wanted?

    Read the article

  • Does this MSDN article violate MVVM?

    - by rasx
    This may be old news but back in March 2009, this article, “Model-View-ViewModel In Silverlight 2 Apps,” has a code sample that includes DataServiceEntityBase: // COPIED FROM SILVERLIGHTCONTRIB Project for simplicity /// <summary> /// Base class for DataService Data Contract classes to implement /// base functionality that is needed like INotifyPropertyChanged. /// Add the base class in the partial class to add the implementation. /// </summary> public abstract class DataServiceEntityBase : INotifyPropertyChanged { /// <summary> /// The handler for the registrants of the interface's event /// </summary> PropertyChangedEventHandler _propertyChangedHandler; /// <summary> /// Allow inheritors to fire the event more simply. /// </summary> /// <param name="propertyName"></param> protected void FirePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (_propertyChangedHandler != null) { _propertyChangedHandler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members /// <summary> /// The interface used to notify changes on the entity. /// </summary> event PropertyChangedEventHandler INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged { add { _propertyChangedHandler += value; } remove { _propertyChangedHandler -= value; } } #endregion What this class implies is that the developer intends to bind visuals directly to data (yes, a ViewModel is used but it defines an ObservableCollection of data objects). Is this design diverging too far from the guidance of MVVM? Now I can see some of the reasons Why would we go this way: what we can do with DataServiceEntityBase is this sort of thing (which is intimate with the Entity Framework): // Partial Method to support the INotifyPropertyChanged interface public partial class Game : DataServiceEntityBase { #region Partial Method INotifyPropertyChanged Implementation // Override the Changed partial methods to implement the // INotifyPropertyChanged interface // This helps with the Model implementation to be a mostly // DataBound implementation partial void OnDeveloperChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Developer"); } partial void OnGenreChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Genre"); } partial void OnListPriceChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPrice"); } partial void OnListPriceCurrencyChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPriceCurrency"); } partial void OnPlayerInfoChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("PlayerInfo"); } partial void OnProductDescriptionChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductDescription"); } partial void OnProductIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductID"); } partial void OnProductImageUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductImageUrl"); } partial void OnProductNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductName"); } partial void OnProductTypeIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductTypeID"); } partial void OnPublisherChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Publisher"); } partial void OnRatingChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Rating"); } partial void OnRatingUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("RatingUrl"); } partial void OnReleaseDateChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ReleaseDate"); } partial void OnSystemNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("SystemName"); } #endregion } Of course MSDN code can seen as “toy code” for educational purposes but is anyone doing anything like this in the real world of Silverlight development?

    Read the article

  • one page over 9 different urls

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? I have no idea of coding. # URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on # URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)\-([a-z0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(\-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)\.html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)\-([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-]*)(.*)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] # Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^***.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.***.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on # index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.*index\.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.*)index\.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

    Read the article

  • Can't use attached property on combobox inside hierarchical datatemplate WPF

    - by jesse_t_r
    I'm hoping to use an attached property to assign a command to the selection changed event of a combobox that is embedded inside a treeview. I'm attempting to set the attached property inside the hierchical data template for the tree but the command is not set and does not fire when the item in the combobox is changed. I've found that setting the attached property directly on a combobox outside of a datatemplate works fine; here is how I'm trying to set the property in the template: <HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="template1" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=ChildColumns}"> <Border Background="{StaticResource TreeItem_Background}" BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="5" Margin="2,5,5,2" HorizontalAlignment="Left" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions > <ColumnDefinition Width="Auto"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition /> <RowDefinition /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBlock MinWidth="80" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Grid.Column="0" Margin="5,2,2,2" Grid.Row ="0" Text="{Binding Path=ColName}"/> <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Grid> </Border> </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I also tried creating a style <Style x:Key="childItemStyle" TargetType="{x:Type FrameworkElement}"> <Setter Property="local:ItemSelectedBehavior.ItemSelected" Value="{Binding Path=LoadConfigCommand}" /> </Style> and setting the itemcontainerstyle to the style in the hierarchical datatemplate..still no luck .. <HierarchicalDataTemplate> ... <ComboBox Name="cboColType" Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Right" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource dataFromEnum}}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=ColumnType}" Margin="2,2,2,2" ItemContainerStyle={StaticeResource childItemStyle}" /> ... </HierarchicalDataTemplate> I'm still learning a lot about WPF so I'm assuming there is something particular about the hierchical datatemplate that is not allowing the attache dproperty to be set..I have found similar posts in the forums and tried to implement their solutions as above, but after a day of searching and experimenting wiht no luck I'm hoping some one has an idea about this...

    Read the article

  • DependencyProperty binding not happening on initial load

    - by Ari Roth
    I'm trying to do something simple -- make a DependencyProperty and then bind to it. However, the getter doesn't appear to fire when I start up the app. (I'm guessing the solution will make me smack my head and go "Doh!", but still. :) ) Any ideas? Code-behind code: public static readonly DependencyProperty PriorityProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Priority", typeof (Priority), typeof (PriorityControl), null); public Priority Priority { get { return (Priority)GetValue(PriorityProperty); } set { SetValue(PriorityProperty, value); } } Control XAML: <ListBox Background="Transparent" BorderThickness="0" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Priorities}" Name="PriorityList" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=Priority, Mode=TwoWay}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Height="16" Width="16"> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2" CornerRadius="3" Visibility="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType=ListBoxItem}, Path=IsSelected, Converter={StaticResource boolToVisibilityConverter}}" /> <Border CornerRadius="3" Height="12" Width="12"> <Border.Background> <SolidColorBrush Color="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Mode=FindAncestor, AncestorType=ListBoxItem}, Path=Content, Converter={StaticResource priorityToColorConverter}}" /> </Border.Background> </Border> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> </ListBox> Binding statement: <UI:PriorityControl Grid.Column="8" Priority="{Binding Path=Priority}" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> Some other notes: Binding is in a UserControl UserControl contains the PriorityControl PriorityControl contains the DependencyProperty I've checked that the data the UserControl is getting the appropriate data -- every other binding works. If I change the selection on the PriorityControl via the mouse, everything fires as appropriate. It's just that initial setting of the value that isn't working. Priority is an enum.

    Read the article

  • ELMAH - Using custom error pages to collecting user feedback

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I'm looking at using ELMAH for the first time but have a requirement that needs to be met that I'm not sure how to go about achieving... Basically, I am going to configure ELMAH to work under asp.net MVC and get it to log errors to the database when they occur. On top of this I be using customErrors to direct the user to a friendly message page when an error occurs. Fairly standard stuff... The requirement is that on this custom error page I have a form which enables to user to provide extra information if they wish. Now the problem arises due to the fact that at this point the error is already logged and I need to associate the loged error with the users feedback. Normally, if I was using my own custom implementation, after I log the error I would pass through the ID of the error to the custom error page so that an association can be made. But because of the way that ELMAH works, I don't think the same is quite possible. Hence I was wondering how people thought that one might go about doing this.... Cheers UPDATE: My solution to the problem is as follows: public class UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext : IUserCurrentConext { private const string _StoredExceptionName = "System.StoredException."; private const string _StoredExceptionIdName = "System.StoredExceptionId."; public virtual string UniqueAddress { get { return HttpContext.Current.Request.UserHostAddress; } } public Exception StoredException { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] as Exception; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } public string StoredExceptionId { get { return HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] as string; } set { HttpContext.Current.Application[_StoredExceptionIdName + this.UniqueAddress] = value; } } } Then when the error occurs, I have something like this in my Global.asax: public void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); item.StoredException = args.Entry.Error.Exception; item.StoredExceptionId = args.Entry.Id; } Then where ever you are later you can pull out the details by var item = new UserCurrentConextUsingWebContext(); var error = item.StoredException; var errorId = item.StoredExceptionId; item.StoredException = null; item.StoredExceptionId = null; Note this isn't 100% perfect as its possible for the same IP to have multiple requests to have errors at the same time. But the likely hood of that happening is remote. And this solution is independent of the session, which in our case is important, also some errors can cause sessions to be terminated, etc. Hence why this approach has worked nicely for us.

    Read the article

  • Lazy loading the addthis script? (or lazy loading external js content dependent on already fired eve

    - by Keith Bentrup
    I want to have the addthis widget available for my users, but I want to lazy load it so that my page loads as quickly as possible. However, after trying it via a script tag and then via my lazy loading method, it appears to only work via the script tag. In the obfuscated code, I see something that looks like it's dependent on the DOMContentLoaded event (at least for firefox). Since the DOMContentLoaded event has already fired, the widget doesn't render properly. What to do? I could just use a script tag (slower)... or could I fire (in a cross browser way) the DOMContentLoaded (or equivalent) event? I have a feeling this may not be possible b/c I believe that (like jQuery) there are multiple tests of the content ready event, and so multiple simulated events would have to occur. Nonetheless, this is an interesting problem b/c I have seen a couple widgets now assume that you are including their stuff via static script tags. It would be nice if they wrote code that was more useful to developers concerned about speed, but until then, is there a work around?? And/or are any of my assumptions wrong? Edit: Because the 1st answer to the question seemed to miss the point of my problem, I wanted to clarify the situation. This is about a specific problem. I'm not looking for yet another lazy load script or check if some dependencies are loaded script. Specifically this problem deals with external widgets that you do not have control over and may or may not be obfuscated delaying the load of the external widgets until they are needed or at least, til substantially after everything else has been loaded including other deferred elements b/c of the how the widget was written, precludes existing, typical lazy loading paradigms While it's esoteric, I have seen it happen with a couple widgets - where the widget developers assume that you're just willing to throw in another script tag at the bottom of the page. I'm looking to save those 500-1000 ms** though as numerous studies by yahoo, google, and amazon show it to be important to your user's experience. **My testing with hammerhead and personal experience indicates that this will be my savings in this case.

    Read the article

  • Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

    - by Thorsten Beck
    Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

    Read the article

  • Dealing with missing messages in JavaScript when using BOSH

    - by JamieD
    We recently went into private beta on our flagship product and had a small launch event. Unfortunately the venue had a terrible wireless connection and packets were being dropped left right and centre causing havoc with out system, basically it wasn't able to work at all! Luckily we were able to switch to a different network and rescue the demo. This highlighted something that I knew was already an issue but hadn't appreciated quite how much of an issue it could be. Our system relies heavily on BOSH and has a rather large JavaScript code base which now works rather well under good network conditions. However we need to make it work well under bad network conditions as well. Due to the way that XMPP works, a fire and forget system, it's not easy to tell if a message you sent, or were supposed to receive, was actually sent or received. For instance, we have an offer system, one user will send an offer to another over BOSH. When this message is received by the server a message is published to the offering users offers_sent PEP node and a similar message to the receiving users offers_received PEP node. While the sending user is able to tell if their offer was send (relatively) easily, if the notification to the receiving user is never received that user will never know it missed a message. A little about out JavaScript setup, it has 4 main layers: StropheJS An MVC framework for dealing with low level tasks and to build on top of An application layer which contains the app logic routes, controllers models etc. as well as a browser cache of the model data A UI layer that receives events and publishes events to and from the application layer One way to solve the missing messages issue would be to periodically check the PEP nodes for new data that the browser doesn't know about. If a new message was discovered the browsers cache would be invalidated and all new data would be requested from the server. I'm not sure this is the best way to go and it also doesn't cover all situations. We certainly don't want to get into the situation where we are sending messages to confirm the previous message was received at it's destination as this would double the network traffic. With the number of real time websites growing daily this is an issue that must have been encountered by other developers, it would be interesting to see how it's been solved by others. As far as I can see there are two situations in which messages go missing: On poor connections messages are not sent or received due to the packets being dropped Involving navigating between pages, a message is received by the browser but is not fully processed and stored in the local cache before the page is unloaded. Or a message is added to the send queue but never sent before the page is unloaded I suspect the hardest issue to solve will be number 2. Any thoughts on the subject would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Python/Biophysics- Trying to code a simple stochastic simulation!

    - by user359597
    Hey guys- I'm trying to figure out what to make of the following code- this is not the clear, intuitive python I've been learning. Was it written in C or something then wrapped in a python fxn? The code I wrote (not shown) is using the same math, but I couldn't figure out how to write a conditional loop. If anyone could explain/decipher/clean this up, I'd be really appreciative. I mean- is this 'good' python- or does it look funky? I'm brand new to this- but it's like the order of the fxns is messed up? I understand Gillespie's- I've successfully coded several simpler simulations. So in a nutshell- good code-(pythonic)? order? c? improvements? am i being an idiot? The code shown is the 'answer,' to the following question from a biophysics text (petri-net not shown and honestly not necessary to understand problem): "In a programming language of your choice, implement Gillespie’s First Reaction Algorithm to study the temporal behaviour of the reaction A---B in which the transition from A to B can only take place if another compound, C, is present, and where C dynamically interconverts with D, as modelled in the Petri-net below. Assume that there are 100 molecules of A, 1 of C, and no B or D present at the start of the reaction. Set kAB to 0.1 s-1 and both kCD and kDC to 1.0 s-1. Simulate the behaviour of the system over 100 s." def sim(): # Set the rate constants for all transitions kAB = 0.1 kCD = 1.0 kDC = 1.0 # Set up the initial state A = 100 B = 0 C = 1 D = 0 # Set the start and end times t = 0.0 tEnd = 100.0 print "Time\t", "Transition\t", "A\t", "B\t", "C\t", "D" # Compute the first interval transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) # Loop until the end time is exceded or no transition can fire any more while t <= tEnd and transition >= 0: print t, '\t', transition, '\t', A, '\t', B, '\t', C, '\t', D t += interval if transition == 0: A -= 1 B += 1 if transition == 1: C -= 1 D += 1 if transition == 2: C += 1 D -= 1 transition, interval = transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC) def transitionData(A, B, C, D, kAB, kCD, kDC): """ Returns nTransition, the number of the firing transition (0: A->B, 1: C->D, 2: D->C), and interval, the interval between the time of the previous transition and that of the current one. """ RAB = kAB * A * C RCD = kCD * C RDC = kDC * D dt = [-1.0, -1.0, -1.0] if RAB > 0.0: dt[0] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RAB if RCD > 0.0: dt[1] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RCD if RDC > 0.0: dt[2] = -math.log(1.0 - random.random())/RDC interval = 1e36 transition = -1 for n in range(len(dt)): if dt[n] > 0.0 and dt[n] < interval: interval = dt[n] transition = n return transition, interval if __name__ == '__main__': sim()

    Read the article

  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

    Read the article

  • Class hierarchy problem (with generic's variance!)

    - by devoured elysium
    The problem: class StatesChain : IState, IHasStateList { private TasksChain tasks = new TasksChain(); ... public IList<IState> States { get { return _taskChain.Tasks; } } IList<ITask> IHasTasksCollection.Tasks { get { return _taskChain.Tasks; } <-- ERROR! You can't do this in C#! I want to return an IList<ITask> from an IList<IStates>. } } Assuming the IList returned will be read-only, I know that what I'm trying to achieve is safe (or is it not?). Is there any way I can accomplish what I'm trying? I wouldn't want to try to implement myself the TasksChain algorithm (again!), as it would be error prone and would lead to code duplication. Maybe I could just define an abstract Chain and then implement both TasksChain and StatesChain from there? Or maybe implementing a Chain<T> class? How would you approach this situation? The Details: I have defined an ITask interface: public interface ITask { bool Run(); ITask FailureTask { get; } } and a IState interface that inherits from ITask: public interface IState : ITask { IState FailureState { get; } } I have also defined an IHasTasksList interface: interface IHasTasksList { List<Tasks> Tasks { get; } } and an IHasStatesList: interface IHasTasksList { List<Tasks> States { get; } } Now, I have defined a TasksChain, that is a class that has some code logic that will manipulate a chain of tasks (beware that TasksChain is itself a kind of ITask!): class TasksChain : ITask, IHasTasksList { IList<ITask> tasks = new List<ITask>(); ... public List<ITask> Tasks { get { return _tasks; } } ... } I am implementing a State the following way: public class State : IState { private readonly TaskChain _taskChain = new TaskChain(); public State(Precondition precondition, Execution execution) { _taskChain.Tasks.Add(precondition); _taskChain.Tasks.Add(execution); } public bool Run() { return _taskChain.Run(); } public IState FailureState { get { return (IState)_taskChain.Tasks[0].FailureTask; } } ITask ITask.FailureTask { get { return FailureState; } } } which, as you can see, makes use of explicit interface implementations to "hide" FailureTask and instead show FailureState property. The problem comes from the fact that I also want to define a StatesChain, that inherits both from IState and IHasStateList (and that also imples ITask and IHasTaskList, implemented as explicit interfaces) and I want it to also hide IHasTaskList's Tasks and only show IHasStateList's States. (What is contained in "The problem" section should really be after this, but I thought puting it first would be way more reader friendly). (pff..long text) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Proper binding data to combobox and handling its events.

    - by Wodzu
    Hi guys. I have a table in SQL Server which looks like this: ID Code Name Surname 1 MS Mike Smith 2 JD John Doe 3 UP Unknown Person and so on... Now I want to bind the data from this table into the ComboBox in a way that in the ComboBox I have displayed value from the Code column. I am doing the binding in this way: SqlDataAdapter sqlAdapter = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM dbo.Users ORDER BY Code", MainConnection); sqlAdapter.Fill(dsUsers, "Users"); cbxUsers.DataSource = dsUsers.Tables["Users"]; cmUsers = (CurrencyManager)cbxUsers.BindingContext[dsUsers.Tables["Users"]]; cbxUsers.DisplayMember = "Code"; And this code seems to work. I can scroll through the list of Codes. Also I can start to write code by hand and ComboBox will autocomplete the code for me. However, I wanted to put a label at the top of the combobox to display Name and Surname of the currently selected user code. My line of though was like that: "So, I need to find an event which will fire up after the change of code in combobox and in that event I will get the current DataRow..." I was browsing through the events of combobox, tried many of them but without a success. For example: private void cbxUsers_SelectionChangeCommitted(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (cmUsers != null) { DataRowView drvCurrentRowView = (DataRowView)cmUsers.Current; DataRow drCurrentRow = drvCurrentRowView.Row; lblNameSurname.Text = Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Name"]) + " " + Convert.ToString(drCurrentRow["Surname"]); } } This give me a strange results. Firstly when I scroll via mouse scroll it doesn't return me the row wich I am expecting to obtain. For example on JD it shows me "Mike Smith", on MS it shows me "John Doe" and on UP it shows me "Mike Smith" again! The other problem is that when I start to type in ComboBox and press enter it doesn't trigger the event. However, everything works as expected when I bind data to lblNameSurname.Text in this way: lblNameSurname.DataBindings.Add("Text", dsusers.Tables["Users"], "Name"); The problem here is that I can bind only one column and I want to have two. I don't want to use two labels for it (one to display name and other to display surname). So, what is the solution to my problem? Also, I have one question related to the data selection in ComboBox. Now, when I type something in the combobox it allows me to type letters that are not existing in the list. For example, I start to type "J" and instead of finishing with "D" so I would have "JD", I type "Jsomerandomtexthere". Combobox will allow that but such item does not exists on the list. In other words, I want combobox to prevent user from typing code which is not on the list of codes. Thanks in advance for your time.

    Read the article

  • one page has 9 urls. I am looking for 301 auto redirect syntax for multiple urls.

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi This is the third time I am asking this question. I am only looking for the syntax of how to solve this problem. I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? Please only reply if you have the coding for a auto 301 redirect! URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

    Read the article

  • Add new row to asp .net grid view using button

    - by SARAVAN
    Hi, I am working in ASP .net 2.0. I am a learner. I have a grid view which has a button in it. Please find the asp mark up below <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="myGridView" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button CommandName="AddARowBelow" Text="Add A Row Below" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div> </form> Please find the code behind below. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.UI; using System.Data; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; namespace GridViewDemo { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataTable dt = new DataTable("myTable"); dt.Columns.Add("col1"); dt.Columns.Add("col2"); dt.Columns.Add("col3"); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); dt.Rows.Add(1, 2, 3); myGridView.DataSource = dt; myGridView.DataBind(); } protected void myGridView_RowCommand(object sender, GridViewCommandEventArgs e) { } } } I was thinking that when I click the command button, it would fire the mygridview_rowcommand() but instead it threw an error as follows: Invalid postback or callback argument. Event validation is enabled using in configuration or <%@ Page EnableEventValidation="true" % in a page. For security purposes, this feature verifies that arguments to postback or callback events originate from the server control that originally rendered them. If the data is valid and expected, use the ClientScriptManager.RegisterForEventValidation method in order to register the postback or callback data for validation. Can any one let me know on where I am going wrong?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >