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• memcmp,strcmp,strncmp in C

  - by el10780

  I wrote this small piece of code in C to test memcmp() strncmp() strcmp() functions in C. Here is the code that I wrote: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <string.h> int main(int argc, char** argv) { char *word1="apple",*word2="atoms"; if (strncmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("strncmp result.\n"); if (memcmp(word1,word2,5)==0) printf("memcmp result.\n"); if (strcmp(word1,word2)==0) printf("strcmp result.\n"); } Can somebody explain me the differences because I am confused with these three functions?My main problem is that I have a file in which I tokenize its line of it,the problem is that when I tokenize the word "atoms" in the file I have to stop the process of tokenizing.I first tried strcmp() but unfortunately when it reached to the point where the word "atoms" were placed in the file it didn't stop and it continued,but when I used either the memcmp() or the strncmp() it stopped and I was happy.But then I thought,what if there will be a case in which there is one string in which the first 5 letters are a,t,o,m,s and these are being followed by other letters.Unfortunately,my thoughts were right as I tested it using the above code by initializing word1 to "atomsaaaaa" and word2 to atoms and memcmp() and strncmp() in the if statements returned 0.On the other hand strcmp() it didn't.It seems that I must use strcmp(). I have done google searches but I got more confused as I have seen sites and other forums to define these three differently.If it is possible for someone to give me correct explanations/definitions so I can use them correctly in my source code,I would be really grateful.

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• Database Structure for CakePHP Models

  - by Michael T. Smith

  We're building a data tracking web app using CakePHP, and I'm having some issues getting the database structure right. We have Companies that haveMany Sites. Sites haveMany DataSamples. Tags haveAndBelongToMany Sites. That is all set up fine. The problem is "ranking" the sites within tags. We need to store it in the database as an archive. I created a Rank model that is setup like this: rank ( id (int), sample_id (int), tag_id (int), site_id (int), rank (int), total_rows) ) So, the question is, how do I create the associations for tag, site and sample to rank? I originally set them as haveMany. But the returned structures don't get me where I'd like to be. It looks like: [Site] => Array ( [Sample] = Array(), [Tag] = Array() ) When I'm really looking for: [Site] => Array ( [Tag] = Array ( [Sample] => Array ( [Rank] => Array ( ...data... ) ) ) ) I think that I may not be structuring the database properly; so if I need to update please let me know. Otherwise, how do I write a find query that gets me where I need to be? Thanks! Thoughts? Need more details? Just ask!

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• Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

  - by Wayne M

  This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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• Python list should be empty on class instance initialisation, but it's not. Why?

  - by canavanin

  Hi everyone! I would like to create instances of a class containing a list that's empty by default; instead of later setting this list to the final full list I would like to successively add items to it. Here's a piece of sample code illustrating this: #!/usr/bin/python class test: def __init__(self, lst=[], intg=0): self.lista = lst self.integer = intg name_dict = {} counter = 0 for name in ('Anne', 'Leo', 'Suzy'): counter += 1 name_dict[name] = test() name_dict[name].integer += 1 name_dict[name].lista.append(counter) print name, name_dict[name].integer, name_dict[name].lista When I ran the above program I expected to get Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [2] Suzy 1 [3] as I assumed lista to always be initialised to an empty list. What I got instead was this: Anne 1 [1] Leo 1 [1, 2] Suzy 1 [1, 2, 3] If I replace self.lista = lst by self.lista = [] it works fine, just like when I add the line name_dict[name].lista = [] to the for loop. Why is it that the contents of the previous objects' lists are retained, yet their values of integer aren't? I am rather new to Python, so it would be great if someone could point out to me where my thoughts/assumptions have gone astray. Thanks a lot in advance for your replies.

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• The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

  - by leonhart88

  So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

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• Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

  - by Nathan de Vries

  I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

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• Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

  - by Denis

  I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

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• Refining Search Results [PHP/MySQL]

  - by Dae

  I'm creating a set of search panes that allow users to tweak their results set after submitting a query. We pull commonly occurring values in certain fields from the results and display them in order of their popularity - you've all seen this sort of thing on eBay. So, if a lot of rows in our results were created in 2009, we'll be able to click "2009" and see only rows created in that year. What in your opinion is the most efficient way of applying these filters? My working solution was to discard entries from the results that didn't match the extra arguments, like: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { foreach($_GET as $key => $val) { if($val !== $row[$key]) { continue 2; } } // Output... } This method should hopefully only query the database once in effect, as adding filters doesn't change the query - MySQL can cache and reuse one data set. On the downside it makes pagination a bit of a headache. The obvious alternative would be to build any additional criteria into the initial query, something like: $sql = "SELECT * FROM tbl MATCH (title, description) AGAINST ('$search_term')"; foreach($_GET as $key => $var) { $sql .= " AND ".$key." = ".$var; } Are there good reasons to do this instead? Or are there better options altogether? Maybe a temporary table? Any thoughts much appreciated!

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• Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

  - by Luis

  Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

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• Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

  - by Alexandros Gezerlis

  Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

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• How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

  - by Leonard

  I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

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• Ant build script executing <sql> task using java code

  - by Jay

  Any idea, why none of the debugging comments are printed once after executing the ANT build script's SQL task via java code? The java class to execute the sql in build scirpt is public class AntRunnerTest { private Project project; public void executeTask(String taskName) { try { project = new Project(); project.init(); project.setBasedir(new String(".")); ProjectHelper helper = ProjectHelper.getProjectHelper(); project.addReference("ant.projectHelper", helper); helper.parse(project, new File("build-copy.xml")); System.out.println("Before"); project.executeTarget(taskName); System.out.println("After"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } public static void main(String args[]) { try { AntRunnerTest newInst = new AntRunnerTest(); newInst.executeTask("sql"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(""+e); } } } I dont see the debug String "After" getting printed in the console. I noticed this issue only when i try to execute a sql task using java code. The ant script has the following simple transaction tag in it. <transaction> <![CDATA[ select now() ]]> </transaction> Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

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• Stage shifts when using addChild?

  - by josh

  I'm having a very odd bug with ActionScript 3 in Flash CS4. I am adding movie clips to a stage in a for loop and then moving them out of view so that I can pull them in and remove them when I need them. I've narrowed down the issue to a point that I know that every time one of the movie clips are added to the stage using addChild(), the stage shifts to the right by one pixel. I know that sounds odd, but it's literally true... the 0 line on the y axis is shifted to the right one pixel every time the movie clip is added. I have no idea how this could be happening. Here's the code that is doing the work: private function setupSlides():void { for(x = 0; x < TOTAL_SLIDES; x++) { var ClassReference:Class = getDefinitionByName("Slide" + (x+1)) as Class; var s:MovieClip = new ClassReference() as MovieClip; s.x = 9999; s.y = 9999; addChild(s); slides[x] = s; } } Any thoughts?

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• jQuery form zip code to state function

  - by Dakota R.

  I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

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• SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

  - by akaphenom

  After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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• Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

  - by jim

  Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

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• UIAlertView Will not show

  - by John

  I have a program that is requesting a JSON string. I have created a class that contains the connect method below. When the root view is coming up, it does a request to this class and method to load up some data for the root view. When I test the error code (by changing the URL host to 127.0.0.1), I expect the Alert to show. Behavior is that the root view just goes black, and the app aborts with no alert. No errors in debug mode on the console, either. Any thoughts as to this behavior? I've been looking around for hints to this for hours to no avail. Thanks in advance for your help. Note: the conditional for (error) is called, as well as the UIAlertView code. - (NSString *)connect:(NSString *)urlString { NSString *jsonString; UIApplication *app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSError *error = nil; NSURLResponse *response = nil; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *req = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSData *_response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: req returningResponse: &response error: &error]; if (error) { /* inform the user that the connection failed */ //AlertWithMessage(@"Connection Failed!", message); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Oopsie!" message:@"Unable to connect! Try later, thanks." delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } else { jsonString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:_response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [url release]; return jsonString; }

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• iOS: display modal view over the top of a UIWebView

  - by Sly

  Is it possible to display a modal view over the top of a UIWebView? I have a UIViewController that loads a WebView. I then want to push a Modal View Controller over the top so that a modal view covers up the WebView temporarily... The WebView is working fine; here's how it's loaded in the View Controller: - (void)loadView { // Initialize webview and add as a subview to LandscapeController's view myWebView = [[[UIWebView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame]] autorelease]; myWebView.scalesPageToFit = YES; myWebView.autoresizesSubviews = YES; myWebView.autoresizingMask = (UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight); myWebView.delegate = self; self.view = myWebView; } If I attempt to load a Modal View controller from within viewDidLoad, however, no modal view appears: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; // Edit dcftable.html with updated figures NSMutableString *updated_html = [self _updateHTML:@"dcftable"]; // Load altered HTML file as an NSURL request [self.myWebView loadHTMLString:updated_html baseURL:nil]; // If user hasn't paid for dcftable, then invoke the covering modal view if (some_condition) { LandscapeCoverController *landscapeCoverController = [[[LandscapeCoverController alloc] init] autorelease ]; [self presentModalViewController:landscapeCoverController animated:YES]; } } I suspect that there's something that needs to be done with the UIWebView delegate to get it to receive the new modal view...but can't find any discussion or examples of this anywhere...again, the objective is to invoke a modal view that covers over the top of the WebView. Thanks for any thoughts in advance!

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• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

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• when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

  - by SARAVAN

  HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

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• Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

  - by balpha

  Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

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• is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-

  - by guest

  is it possible to write a program which prints its own source code utilizing a "sequence-generating-function"? what i call a sequence-generating-function is simply a function which returns a value out of a specific interval (i.e. printable ascii-charecters (32-126)). the point now is, that this generated sequence should be the programs own source-code. as you see, implementing a function which returns an arbitrary sequence is really trivial, but since the returned sequence must contain the implementation of the function itself it is a highly non-trivial task. this is how such a program (and its corresponding output) could look like #include <stdio.h> int fun(int x) { ins1; ins2; ins3; . . . return y; } int main(void) { int i; for ( i=0; i<size of the program; i++ ) { printf("%c", fun(i)); } return 0; } i personally think it is not possible, but since i don't know very much about the underlying matter i posted my thoughts here. i'm really looking forward to hear some opinions!

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• Compilig + testing an Android library with the JDK?

  - by Jarle Hansen

  Hi all, I am creating a library for Android that others can include in their own project. So far I have been working on it as a normal Java project with JDK 1.6 setup as system library. This works just fine in Eclipse when I add the android.jar. The issue comes when I try to my build script. I am running Gradle and doing a normal compile and test build cycle. My thoughts were that it does not matter if I compile it with a normal JDK, since this is not a standalone application. The benefits by creating a normal Java project is that Gradle does support this much better. My project also does not contain any UI at all. However, the problem is that of course android.jar and the JDK contains lots of the same classes and I think that this is what messes up my build script. Everything crashes when running the tests (the tests are in the same project under src/test/java). My question is, how should I create this project that is meant to be included in Android projects as a third party library? Should I create it as an Android project in Eclipse even though I am only creating a library that does not use any of the UI features? Also, should the tests be in a separate project? Thanks for all responses!

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• MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

  - by Morinar

  This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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• Facebook style messaging system schema design

  - by Jamie

  Hi all, I'm looking to implement a facebook style messaging system (thread messages) into a site of mine. Do you think this schema markup looks okay? Doctrine schema.yml: UserMessage: tableName: user_message actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } sender_id : { type: integer(10), notnull: true } sender_read: { type: boolean, default: 1 } subject: { type: string(255), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } hash: { type: string(32), notnull: true } relations: UserMessageRecipient as Recipient: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply as Reply: type: many local: id foreign: message_id UserMessageReply: tableName: user_message_reply columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } message: { type: string(1000), notnull: true } sender_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } relations: UserMessage as Message: local: message_id foreign: id type: one UserMessageRecipient: tableName: user_message_recipient actAs: [Timestampable] columns: id: { type: integer(10), primary: true, autoincrement: true } user_message_id as message_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_id: { type: integer(10), notnull: true } recipient_read: { type: boolean, default: 0 } When I a new reply is made,i'll make sure the boolean for "recipient_read" for each recipient is set to false and of course i'll make sure sender_read is set to false too. I'm using a hash for the URL: http://example.com/user/messages/aadeb18f8bdaea49882ec4d2a8a3c062 (As the id will be starting from 1, i don't wish to have http://example.com/user/messages/1. Yeah, I could start incrementing from a bigger number, but i'd prefer to start at 1.) Is this a good way to go about it? Your thoughts and suggestions would be hugely appreciated. Thanks guys!

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