Search Results

Search found 4240 results on 170 pages for 'thoughts'.

Page 143/170 | < Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >

  • jQuery form zip code to state function

    - by Dakota R.
    I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

    Read the article

  • Excel 2010 VBA code is stuck when UserForm is shown

    - by Denis
    I've created a UserForm as a progress indicator while a web query (using InternetExplorer object) runs in the background. The code gets triggered as shown below. The progress indicator form is called 'Progerss'. Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) If Target.Row = Range("B2").Row And Target.Column = Range("B2").Column Then Progress.Show vbModeless Range("A4:A65535").ClearContents GetWebData (Range("B2").Value) Progress.Hide End If End Sub What I see with this code is that the progress indicator form pops up when cell B2 changes. I also see that the range of cells in column A gets cleared which tells me that the vbModeless is doing what I want. But then, somewhere within the GetWebData() procedure, things get hung up. As soon as I manually destroy the progress indicator form, the GetWebData() routine finishes and I see the correct results. But if I leave the progress indicator visible, things just get stuck indefinitely. The code below shows what GetWebData() is doing. Private Sub GetWebData(ByVal Symbol As String) Dim IE As New InternetExplorer 'IE.Visible = True IE.navigate MyURL Do DoEvents Loop Until IE.readyState = READYSTATE_COMPLETE Dim Doc As HTMLDocument Set Doc = IE.document Dim Rows As IHTMLElementCollection Set Rows = Doc.getElementsByClassName("financialTable").Item(0).all.tags("tr") Dim r As Long r = 0 For Each Row In Rows Sheet1.Range("A4").Offset(r, 0).Value = Row.Children.Item(0).innerText r = r + 1 Next End Sub Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • The use of getters and setters for different programming languages [closed]

    - by leonhart88
    So I know there are a lot of questions on getters and setters in general, but I couldn't find something exactly like my question. I was wondering if people change the use of get/set depending on different languages. I started learning with C++ and was taught to use getters and setters. This is what I understand: In C++ (and Java?), a variable can either be public or private, but we cannot have a mix. For example, I can't have a read-only variable that can still be changed inside the class. It's either all public (can read and change it), or all private (can't read and can only change inside the class). Because of this (and possibly other reasons), we use getters and setters. In MATLAB, I can control the "setaccess" and "getaccess" properties of variables, so that I can make things read-only (can directly access the property, but can't overwrite it). In this case, I don't feel like I need a getter because I can just do class.property. Also, in Python it is considered "Pythonic" to not use getters/setters and to only put things into properties if needed. I don't really understand why its OK to have all public variables in Python, because that's opposite of what I learned when I started with C++. I'm just curious what other people's thoughts are on this. Would you use getters and setters for all languages? Would you only use it for C++/Java and do direct access in MATLAB and Python (which is what I am currently doing)? Is the second option considered bad? For my purposes, I am only referring to simple getters and setters (just return/set the value and do not do anything else). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Database Structure for CakePHP Models

    - by Michael T. Smith
    We're building a data tracking web app using CakePHP, and I'm having some issues getting the database structure right. We have Companies that haveMany Sites. Sites haveMany DataSamples. Tags haveAndBelongToMany Sites. That is all set up fine. The problem is "ranking" the sites within tags. We need to store it in the database as an archive. I created a Rank model that is setup like this: rank ( id (int), sample_id (int), tag_id (int), site_id (int), rank (int), total_rows) ) So, the question is, how do I create the associations for tag, site and sample to rank? I originally set them as haveMany. But the returned structures don't get me where I'd like to be. It looks like: [Site] => Array ( [Sample] = Array(), [Tag] = Array() ) When I'm really looking for: [Site] => Array ( [Tag] = Array ( [Sample] => Array ( [Rank] => Array ( ...data... ) ) ) ) I think that I may not be structuring the database properly; so if I need to update please let me know. Otherwise, how do I write a find query that gets me where I need to be? Thanks! Thoughts? Need more details? Just ask!

    Read the article

  • ColdFusion Session issue - multiple users behind one proxy IP -- cftoken and cfid seems to be shared

    - by smoothoperator
    Hi Everyone, I have an application that uses coldfusion's session management (instead of the J2EE) session management. We have one client, who has recently switched their company's traffic to us to come viaa proxy server in their network. So, to our Coldfusion server, it appears that all traffic is coming from this one IP Address, for all of the accounts of this one company.. Of the session variables, Part 1 is kept in a cflock, and Part 2 is kept in editable session variables. I may be misundestanding, but we have done it this way as we modify some values as needed throughout the application's usage. We are now running into an issue of this client having their session variables mixed up (?). We have one case where we set a timestamp.. and when it comes time to look it up, it's empty. From the looks of it this is happening because of another user on the same token. My initial thoughts are to look into modifying our existing session management to somehow generate a unique cftoken/cfid, or to start using jsession_ID, if this solves the problem at all. I have done some basic research on this issue and couldn't find anything similar, so I thought I'd ask here. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Determining the popularity of a video with ratings and views

    - by user295825
    I am about to embark on a new project - a video website. Users will be able to register, and vote on videos by clicking "like" or "dislike", or something to that effect. In any event, it will be a 2-option voting system, not a 5-star system. Every X number of days, I will be generating a "chart" of the most popular videos. So my question is: how should I determine the popularity of a given video? If I went the route of tallying up the videos with the most views, this could have the effect of exceptionally bad videos making it to the of the charts (just because they're so bad). If I go the route of a scoring system based on the amount of "like" and "dislike" votes (eg. 100 like votes, and 50 dislike votes equals a score of 2), videos with few views could appear on the top of the charts. So, what I need to do is a combination of the two. Barring, of course, spammy views and votes. What's your guys' thoughts on the subject?

    Read the article

  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

    Read the article

  • Managing Many to Many relationships in asp.net Wizard Control

    - by Luis
    Say I have this entity with a lot of attributes. In the input form I have decided to implement a wizard control so I can collect information about this entity in several steps. The problem is that I need to collect information that has been modeled has many to many relationships. I am planning to use a telerik gridview to manage this (add/edit/delete), the problem is where do I store that data since the entity in a insert form is not created on the database yet. OK so I can store all that info in temporary lists residing in the viewstate, waiting for the final submit where I dump all that in the DB, but one of the steps I am collecting files...now storing files in the viewstate is out of the question, same as as storing them in the session... I have been thinking of implementing in a way that the user has to submit some info first (say first 3 steps), commit the data to the database creating the parent entity and then start inserting all the childs entities...but this will get weird as it's confusing since on the first steps you not saving the data to the DB and on the next ones you are commiting directly... Anyone has any thoughts on this? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Mutually beneficial IP/copyright clauses for contract-based freelance work

    - by Nathan de Vries
    I have a copyright section in the contract I give to my clients stating that I retain copyright on any works produced during my work for them as an independent contractor. This is most definitely not intended to place arbitrary restrictions on my clients, but rather to maintain my ability to decide on how the software I create is licensed and distributed. Almost every project I work on results in at least one part of it being released as open source. Every project I work on makes use of third-party software released in the same fashion, so returning the favour is something I would like to continue doing. Unfortunately, the contract is not so clear when it comes to defining the rights of the client in the use of said software. I mention that the code will be licensed to them, but do not mention specifics about exclusivity, ability to produce derivatives etc. As such, a client has raised concerns about the copyright section of my contract, and has suggested that I reword it such that all copyrights are transferred entirely to the client on final payment for the project. This will almost certainly reduce my ability to distribute the software I have created; I would much prefer to find a more mutually beneficial agreement where both our concerns are appeased. Are there any tried and true approaches to licensing software in this kind of situation? To summarise: I want to maintain the ability to license (parts of) the software under my own terms, independently of my relationship with the client; with some guarantee to the client that no trade-secrets or critical business logic will be shared; giving them the ability to re-use my code in their future projects; but not necessarily letting them sell it (I'm not sure about this, though...what happens if they sell their business and the software along with it?) I realise that everyone's feedback is going to be prefixed with "IANAL", however I appreciate any thoughts you might have on the matter.

    Read the article

  • Stage shifts when using addChild?

    - by josh
    I'm having a very odd bug with ActionScript 3 in Flash CS4. I am adding movie clips to a stage in a for loop and then moving them out of view so that I can pull them in and remove them when I need them. I've narrowed down the issue to a point that I know that every time one of the movie clips are added to the stage using addChild(), the stage shifts to the right by one pixel. I know that sounds odd, but it's literally true... the 0 line on the y axis is shifted to the right one pixel every time the movie clip is added. I have no idea how this could be happening. Here's the code that is doing the work: private function setupSlides():void { for(x = 0; x < TOTAL_SLIDES; x++) { var ClassReference:Class = getDefinitionByName("Slide" + (x+1)) as Class; var s:MovieClip = new ClassReference() as MovieClip; s.x = 9999; s.y = 9999; addChild(s); slides[x] = s; } } Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • Data layer refactoring

    - by Joey
    I've taken control of some entity framework code and am looking to refactor it. Before I do, I'd like to check my thoughts are correct and I'm not missing the entity-framework way of doing things. Example 1 - Subquery vs Join Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs. Apart from the code below being hard to read, is it also inefficient? from a in dataContext.As where ((from b in dataContext.Bs where b.Text.StartsWith(searchText) select b.AId).Distinct()).Contains(a.Id) select a Would it be better, for example, to use the join and do something like this? from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Text.StartsWith(searchText)) select a Example 2 - Explicit Joins vs Navigation Here we have a one-to-many between As and Bs and a one-to-many between Bs and Cs. from a in dataContext.As join b in dataContext.Bs on b.AId equals a.Id join c in dataContext.Cs on c.BId equals b.Id where c.SomeValue equals searchValue select a Is there a good reason to use explicit joins rather than navigating through the data model? For example: from a in dataContext.As where a.Bs.Any(b => b.Cs.Any(c => c.SomeValue == searchValue) select a

    Read the article

  • Refining Search Results [PHP/MySQL]

    - by Dae
    I'm creating a set of search panes that allow users to tweak their results set after submitting a query. We pull commonly occurring values in certain fields from the results and display them in order of their popularity - you've all seen this sort of thing on eBay. So, if a lot of rows in our results were created in 2009, we'll be able to click "2009" and see only rows created in that year. What in your opinion is the most efficient way of applying these filters? My working solution was to discard entries from the results that didn't match the extra arguments, like: while($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { foreach($_GET as $key => $val) { if($val !== $row[$key]) { continue 2; } } // Output... } This method should hopefully only query the database once in effect, as adding filters doesn't change the query - MySQL can cache and reuse one data set. On the downside it makes pagination a bit of a headache. The obvious alternative would be to build any additional criteria into the initial query, something like: $sql = "SELECT * FROM tbl MATCH (title, description) AGAINST ('$search_term')"; foreach($_GET as $key => $var) { $sql .= " AND ".$key." = ".$var; } Are there good reasons to do this instead? Or are there better options altogether? Maybe a temporary table? Any thoughts much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Generating jquery 'rules' from business model to UI in asp.net mvc

    - by jim
    Hi all, I've had a good look around and am certain that there's no matching question on SO, so here goes. Has anyone created a 'helper' method on their model that generates jquery (or plain javascript) rules validation dynamically, based on the criteria/rules that are contained within the object and taken from a repository (i.e. DB). What i'm thinking of is a discrete set of partial views (and associated models) that have rules at the business logic 'level' and rather than (or in combination with) validating the rule(s) at postback, translating the same rules into tightly focussed jquery methods that work identically at client (js) and server (c#) levels. I can see benefits here re performance. Also, the rules definitions could be created in a single place (in c#) and the jquery generated off of that, thus allowing single edits to update both code streams. I appreciate that there would be limitations imposed by language specific contstraints but the general principle could be quite interesting if used appropriately. I'm also aware that testibility could be an issue when using two different language structures and hoping to achieve similar test outcomes - but those aside... any thoughts or experiences of similar out there?? cheers jimi

    Read the article

  • RPC command to initiate a software install

    - by ericmayo
    I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Constructor initializer list: code from the C++ Primer, chapter 16

    - by Alexandros Gezerlis
    Toward the end of Chapter 16 of the "C++ Primer" I encountered the following code (I've removed a bunch of lines): class Sales_item { public: // default constructor: unbound handle Sales_item(): h() { } private: Handle<Item_base> h; // use-counted handle }; My problem is with the Sales_item(): h() { } line. For the sake of completeness, let me also quote the parts of the Handle class template that I think are relevant to my question (I think I don't need to show the Item_base class): template <class T> class Handle { public: // unbound handle Handle(T *p = 0): ptr(p), use(new size_t(1)) { } private: T* ptr; // shared object size_t *use; // count of how many Handles point to *ptr }; I would have expected something like either: a) Sales_item(): h(0) { } which is a convention the authors have used repeatedly in earlier chapters, or b) Handle<Item_base>() if the intention was to invoke the default constructor of the Handle class. Instead, what the book has is Sales_item(): h() { }. My gut reaction is that this is a typo, since h() looks suspiciously similar to a function declaration. On the other hand, I just tried compiling under g++ and running the example code that uses this class and it seems to be working correctly. Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

    - by Leonard
    I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

    Read the article

  • Ant build script executing <sql> task using java code

    - by Jay
    Any idea, why none of the debugging comments are printed once after executing the ANT build script's SQL task via java code? The java class to execute the sql in build scirpt is public class AntRunnerTest { private Project project; public void executeTask(String taskName) { try { project = new Project(); project.init(); project.setBasedir(new String(".")); ProjectHelper helper = ProjectHelper.getProjectHelper(); project.addReference("ant.projectHelper", helper); helper.parse(project, new File("build-copy.xml")); System.out.println("Before"); project.executeTarget(taskName); System.out.println("After"); } catch(Exception ex) { System.out.println(ex.getMessage()); } } public static void main(String args[]) { try { AntRunnerTest newInst = new AntRunnerTest(); newInst.executeTask("sql"); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println(""+e); } } } I dont see the debug String "After" getting printed in the console. I noticed this issue only when i try to execute a sql task using java code. The ant script has the following simple transaction tag in it. <transaction> <![CDATA[ select now() ]]> </transaction> Any thoughts? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • CRM 2011 - Set/Retrieve work hours programmatically

    - by Philip Rich
    I am attempting to retrieve a resources work hours to perform some logic I require. I understand that the CRM scheduling engine is a little clunky around such things, but I assumed that I would be able to find out how the working hours were stored in the DB eventually... So a resource has associated calendars and those calendars have associated calendar rules and inner calendars etc. It is possible to look at the start/end and frequency of aforementioned calendar rules and query their codes to work out whether a resource is 'working' during a given period. However, I have not been able to find the actual working hours, the 9-5 shall we say in any field in the DB. I even tried some SQL profiling while I was creating a new schedule for a resource via the UI, but the results don't show any work hours passing to SQL. For those with the patience the intercepted SQL statement is below:- EXEC Sp_executesql N'update [CalendarRuleBase] set [ModifiedBy]=@ModifiedBy0, [EffectiveIntervalEnd]=@EffectiveIntervalEnd0, [Description]=@Description0, [ModifiedOn]=@ModifiedOn0, [GroupDesignator]=@GroupDesignator0, [IsSelected]=@IsSelected0, [InnerCalendarId]=@InnerCalendarId0, [TimeZoneCode]=@TimeZoneCode0, [CalendarId]=@CalendarId0, [IsVaried]=@IsVaried0, [Rank]=@Rank0, [ModifiedOnBehalfBy]=NULL, [Duration]=@Duration0, [StartTime]=@StartTime0, [Pattern]=@Pattern0 where ([CalendarRuleId] = @CalendarRuleId0)', N'@ModifiedBy0 uniqueidentifier,@EffectiveIntervalEnd0 datetime,@Description0 ntext,@ModifiedOn0 datetime,@GroupDesignator0 ntext,@IsSelected0 bit,@InnerCalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@TimeZoneCode0 int,@CalendarId0 uniqueidentifier,@IsVaried0 bit,@Rank0 int,@Duration0 int,@StartTime0 datetime,@Pattern0 ntext,@CalendarRuleId0 uniqueidentifier', @ModifiedBy0='EB04662A-5B38-E111-9889-00155D79A113', @EffectiveIntervalEnd0='2012-01-13 00:00:00', @Description0=N'Weekly Single Rule', @ModifiedOn0='2012-03-12 16:02:08', @GroupDesignator0=N'FC5769FC-4DE9-445d-8F4E-6E9869E60857', @IsSelected0=1, @InnerCalendarId0='3C806E79-7A49-4E8D-B97E-5ED26700EB14', @TimeZoneCode0=85, @CalendarId0='E48B1ABF-329F-425F-85DA-3FFCBB77F885', @IsVaried0=0, @Rank0=2, @Duration0=1440, @StartTime0='2000-01-01 00:00:00', @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA', @CalendarRuleId0='0A00DFCF-7D0A-4EE3-91B3-DADFCC33781D' The key parts in the statement are the setting of the pattern:- @Pattern0=N'FREQ=WEEKLY;INTERVAL=1;BYDAY=SU,MO,TU,WE,TH,FR,SA' However, as mentioned, no indication of the work hours set. Am I thinking about this incorrectly or is CRM doing something interesting around these work hours? Any thoughts greatly appreciated, thanks.

    Read the article

  • UIAlertView Will not show

    - by John
    I have a program that is requesting a JSON string. I have created a class that contains the connect method below. When the root view is coming up, it does a request to this class and method to load up some data for the root view. When I test the error code (by changing the URL host to 127.0.0.1), I expect the Alert to show. Behavior is that the root view just goes black, and the app aborts with no alert. No errors in debug mode on the console, either. Any thoughts as to this behavior? I've been looking around for hints to this for hours to no avail. Thanks in advance for your help. Note: the conditional for (error) is called, as well as the UIAlertView code. - (NSString *)connect:(NSString *)urlString { NSString *jsonString; UIApplication *app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; NSError *error = nil; NSURLResponse *response = nil; NSURL *url = [[NSURL alloc] initWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *req = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSData *_response = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest: req returningResponse: &response error: &error]; if (error) { /* inform the user that the connection failed */ //AlertWithMessage(@"Connection Failed!", message); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Oopsie!" message:@"Unable to connect! Try later, thanks." delegate:nil cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles: nil]; [alert show]; [alert release]; } else { jsonString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:_response encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; } app.networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [url release]; return jsonString; }

    Read the article

  • MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

    - by Morinar
    This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • when to clear or make null asp .net mvc models?

    - by SARAVAN
    HI, I am working in an asp .net mvc application. I am using the model and storing some of the values which i need to preserve between the page posts, in the form of datacontexts. Say my model looks something like this: public SelectedUser SelectedUserDetails { //get and set has //this.datacontext.data.SelectedUser = ..... //return this.datacontext.data..... } Now when this model needs to be cleared? I have many such models with many properties and datacontext. But I don't have an idea on when to clear it. Is there a way or an event that can be triggered automatically when the model is not used for a long time? Oneway I thought is when i navigate away from a page which uses my underlying model, I can clear that model if its no longer used anywhere and initialise it back as needed. But I need to clear almost many models at many points. Is there an automatic way that can clear models when it is no longer used beacuse care can be taken by my code to initialise them when I need them, but I don't know when to clear them when I no longer need them. I need this to get rid of any memory related issues. Any thoughts or comments?

    Read the article

  • Best practices for (over)using Azure queues

    - by John
    Hi, I'm in the early phases of designing an Azure-based application. One of the things that attracts me to Azure is the scalability, given the variability of the demand I'm likely to expect. As such I'm trying to keep things loosely coupled so I can add instances when I need to. The recommendations I've seen for architecting an application for Azure include keeping web role logic to a minimum, and having processing done in worker roles, using queues to communicate and some sort of back-end store like SQL Azure or Azure Tables. This seems like a good idea to me as I can scale up either or both parts of the application without any issue. However I'm curious if there are any best practices (or if anyone has any experiences) for when it's best to just have the web role talk directly to the data store vs. sending data by the queue? I'm thinking of the case where I have a simple insert to do from the web role - while I could set this up as a message, send it on the queue, and have a worker role pick it up and do the insert, it seems like a lot of double-handling. However I also appreciate that it may be the case that this is better in the long run, in case the web role gets overwhelmed or more complex logic ends up being required for the insert. I realise this might be a case where the answer is "it depends entirely on the situation, check your perf metrics" - but if anyone has any thoughts I'd be very appreciative! Thanks John

    Read the article

  • Problem inserting Pygames on a wxPython panel using Boa Constructor

    - by Kohwalter
    Hello, im new in Python so im hoping to to get some help to figure out what is going wrong. Im trying to run a Pygames from within wxPython panel (made on Boa Constructor). To do that i followed the instructions on the http://wiki.wxpython.org/IntegratingPyGame but still it isn't working. Here is the Panel code that was used to make the integration: class PG_panel(wx.Panel): def __init__(self, ID, name, parent, mypos, mysize): # pygame is imported in this class # make it globally available global pygame #self.Fit() wx.Panel.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=(16, 96), size=mysize) # pygame uses SDL, set the environment variables os.environ['SDL_WINDOWID'] = str(self.GetHandle()) os.environ['SDL_VIDEODRIVER'] = 'windib' # do the pygame stuff after setting the environment variables import pygame pygame.display.init() # create the pygame window/screen screen = pygame.display.set_mode(464, 464) #(424,450) # start the thread instance self.thread = PG_thread(screen) self.thread.start() def __del__(self): self.thread.stop() And im trying to use that panel on an interface from Boa Constructor, here is the code: class frmMain(wx.Frame): def _init_ctrls(self, prnt): # generated method, don't edit wx.Frame.__init__(self, id=wxID_FRMMAIN, name='frmMain', parent=prnt, pos=wx.Point(660, 239), size=wx.Size(815, 661), style=wx.DEFAULT_FRAME_STYLE, title='Grupo 1 - Jogo de Damas') self._init_utils() self.SetClientSize(wx.Size(799, 623)) self.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(225, 225, 225)) self.SetMinSize(wx.Size(784, 650)) self.Center(wx.BOTH) self.SetMenuBar(self.menuBar1) #here begins my code mysize = (464, 464) mypos = (16, 96) self.panelTabuleiro = PG_panel(wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, 'panelTabuleiro', self, mypos, mysize) The original that was auto-made by the Boa Constructor is the following: self.panelTabuleiro = wx.Panel(id=wxID_FRMMAINPANELTABULEIRO, name='panelTabuleiro', parent=self, pos=wx.Point(16, 96), size=wx.Size(464, 464), style=wx.TAB_TRAVERSAL) self.panelTabuleiro.SetBackgroundColour(wx.Colour(232, 249, 240)) self.panelTabuleiro.SetThemeEnabled(True) self.panelTabuleiro.SetHelpText('Tabuleiro') The error that it gives is: Type error: in method 'new_Panel', expected argument 1 of type 'wxWindow*1 Exception AttributeError: "'PG_panel' object has no attribute 'thread' in ignored Any thoughts ? I appreciate any help. Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150  | Next Page >