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  • Problem writing a snippet containing Emacs Lisp code

    - by user388346
    Hi all, I've been trying to make use of a cool feature of YASnippet: write snippets containing embedded Emacs Lisp code. There is a snippet for rst-mode that surrounds the entered text with "=" that is as long as the text such as in ==== Text ==== Based on this snippet, I decided to slightly modify it (with Elisp) so that it comments out these three lines depending on the major mode you are in (I thought that such a snippet would be useful to organize the source code). So I wrote this: ${1:`(insert comment-start)`} ${2:$(make-string (string-width text) ?\-)} $1 ${2:Text} $1 ${2:$(make-string (string-width text) ?\-)} $0 This code works relatively well except for one problem: the indentation of these three lines gets mixed up, depending on the major mode I'm in (e.g., in emacs-lisp-mode, the second and the third lines move more to the right than the first line). I think the source of the problem might have something to do with what comes after the string ${1: on the first line. If I add a character, I have no problem (i.e., all three lines are correctly aligned at the end of the snippet expansion). If I add a single space after this string, the misalignment problem still continues though. So my question is: do you know of any way of rewriting this snippet so that this misalignment does not arise? Do you know what's the source of this behaviour? Cheers,

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  • asp.net mvc multiple fckeditors field

    - by mazhar kaunain baig
    how to add multiple fckeditor field on asp.net mvc page ok here is the code <% foreach (var OrganizationMeta in ((IEnumerable<Egovt.Models.OrganizationMeta>)ViewData["OrganizationMeta"])) { %> <% if (OrganizationMeta.vcr_DateType == "text") { %> <% TempData["OrganizationMeta"] = OrganizationMeta.vcr_MetaKey + Lang.int_LangId; %> <% Html.RenderPartial("ControlRender"); %> <% } %> <% } %> </div> controlrender <script src="<%= Url.Content("~/Content/js/fck/fckeditor.js") %>" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function() { var sBasePath = '<%= Url.Content("~/Content/js/fck/") %>'; var oFCKeditor = new FCKeditor('<%=TempData["OrganizationMeta"] %>'); oFCKeditor.BasePath = sBasePath; oFCKeditor.ReplaceTextarea(); } </script> <%= Html.TextArea(TempData["OrganizationMeta"].ToString(),"", new { @name = TempData["OrganizationMeta"] })%> How will i implement it

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  • jquery-ui autocomplete with ASP MVC suggestions not displaying

    - by adamnickerson
    I have been trying to get a simple example of the jquery-ui autocomplete to work. I have a controller setup to handle the query, and it returns the json that looks to be in order, but I am getting no suggestions showing up. Here are the js libraries I am including: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"></script> <link href="/Content/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> and here is the javascript and the form tags: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#organization").autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '/Organization/OrganizationLookup', dataType: "json", data: { limit: 12, q: request.term } }) }, minLength: 2 }); }); </script> <div class="ui-widget"> <label for="organization">Organization: </label> <input id="organization" /> </div> I get back a json response that looks reasonable from my controller: [{"id":"Sector A","value":"Sector A"},{"id":"Sector B","value":"Sector B"},{"id":"Sector C","value":"Sector C"}] id and value seem to be the default naming that autocomplete is looking for. But I get no joy at all. Any thoughts?

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  • Internet Explorer not incrementing number for non-sibling <li> elements

    - by biagidp
    I've got some html that looks like this: <ol> <div> <li>one</li> </div> <div> <li>two</li> </div> <div> <li>three</li> </div> </ol> Which looks like this in Chrome/Firefox: 1. one 2. two 3. three But looks like this in IE: 1. one 1. two 1. three If I change the code so that the li element is the parent of the div element instead of the other way around (so that all the li elements are siblings) IE renders it correctly. Anyone know what causes this or if this is the intended working behavior of IE? Furthermore is one way technically more correct than the other? <div><li></li></div> VS. <li><div></div></li> Thanks, David

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  • AngularJS: How to make angular load script inside ng-include?

    - by Ranjith R
    Hey I am building a web page with angular. The problem is that there are somethings already build without angular and I have to include them as well The problem is this. I have something like this in my main.html: <ngInclude src="partial.html"> </ngInclude> And my partial.html has something like this <h2> heading 1 <h2> <script type="text/javascript" src="static/js/partial.js"> </script> And my partial.js has nothing to do with angularjs. nginclude works and I can see the html, but I can not see the javascript file being loaded at all. I know how to use firebug/ chrome-dev-tool, but I can not even see the network request being made. What am I doing wrong? I knwo angular has some special meaning to script tag. Can I override it?

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  • JavaScript cookie value can't be retrieved in Django

    - by Boris Rusev
    I am trying to build a web site in both English and Bulgarian using the Django framework. My idea is the user should click on a button, the page will reload and the language will be changed. This is how I am trying to do it: In my html I hava a the button tag <button id='btn' onclick="changeLanguage();" type="button"> ... </button> An excerpt from cookies.js: function changeLanguage() { if (getCookie('language') == 'EN') { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'BG'); } else { document.getElementById('btn').innerHTML = getCookie('language'); setCookie("language", 'EN'); } } function setCookie(sName, sValue, oExpires, sPath, sDomain, bSecure) { var sCookie = sName + "=" + encodeURIComponent(sValue); if (oExpires) { sCookie += "; expires=" + oExpires.toGMTString(); } if (sPath) { sCookie += "; path=" + sPath; } if (sDomain) { sCookie += "; domain=" + sDomain; } if (bSecure) { sCookie += "; secure"; } document.cookie = sCookie; } And in my views.py file this is the situation @base def index(request): if request.session['language'] == 'EN': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "Home" else request.session['language'] == 'BG': return """<b>%s</b>""" % "??????" So I know that my JS changes the value of the language cookie but I think Django doesn't get that. On the other hand when I set and get the cookie in my Python code again the cookie is set. My question is whether there is a way to make JS and Django work together - JavaScript sets the cookie value and Python only reads it when asked and takes adequate actions? Thank you.

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  • How add class='active' to html menu with php

    - by meow
    Hello I want to put my html navigation in a separate php file so when I need to edit it, I only have to edit it once. The problem starts when I want to add the class active to the active page. I've got three pages and one common file. common.php : <?php $nav = <<<EOD <div id="nav"> <ul> <li><a <? if($page == 'one'): ?> class="active"<? endif ?> href="index.php">Tab1</a>/</li> <li><a href="two.php">Tab2</a></li> <li><a href="three.php">Tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> EOD; ?> index.php : All three pages are identical except their $page is different on each page. <?php $page = 'one'; require_once('common.php'); ?> <html> <head></head> <body> <?php echo $nav; ?> </body> </html> This simply won't work unless I put my nav on each page, but then the whole purpose of separating the nav from all pages is ruined. Is what I want to accomplish even possible? What am I doing wrong? Thanks EDIT: When doing this, the php code inside the li don't seem to run, it's just being printed as if it was html

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  • Component based web project directory layout with git and symlinks

    - by karlthorwald
    I am planning my directory structure for a linux/apache/php web project like this: Only www.example.com/webroot/ will be exposed in apache www.example.com/ webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp2/ component/ comp1/ comp1.class.php comp1.js comp2/ comp2.class.php comp2.css lib/ lib1/ lib1.class.php the component/ and lib/ directory will only be in the php path. To make the css and js files visible in the webroot directory I am planning to use symlinks. webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp1.js (symlinked) comp2/ comp2.css (symlinked) I tried following these principles: layout by components and libraries, not by file type and not by "public' or 'non public', index.php is an exception. This is for easier development. symlinking files that need to be public for the components and libs to a public location, but still mirroring the layout. So the component and library structure is also visible in the resulting html code in the links, which might help development. git usage should be safe and always work. it would be ok to follow some procedure to add a symlink to git, but after that checking them out or changing branches should be handled safely and clean How will git handle the symlinking of the single files correctly, is there something to consider? When it comes to images I will need to link directories, how to handle that with git? component/ comp3/ comp3.class.php img/ img1.jpg img2.jpg img3.jpg They should be linked here: webroot/ comp3/ img/ (symlinked ?) If using symlinks for that has disadvantages maybe I could move images to the webroot/ tree directly, which would break the first principle for the third (git practicability). So this is a git and symlink question. But I would be interested to hear comments about the php layout, maybe you want to use the comment function for this.

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  • Vertically Merge Multiple Tables in MySQL by Joint Primary Key

    - by world
    Hello, I'll attempt to make my question as clear as possible. I'm fairly unexperienced with SQL, only know the really basic queries. In order to have a better idea I'd been reading the MySQL manual for the past few days, but I couldn't really find a concrete solution and my needs are quite specific. I've got 3 MySQL MyISAM tables: table1, table2 and table3. Each table has an ID column (ID, ID2, ID3 respectively), and different data columns. For example table1 has [ID, Name, Birthday, Status, ...] columns, table2 has [ID2, Country, Zip, ...], table3 has [ID3, Source, Phone, ...] you get the idea. The ID, ID2, ID3 columns are common to all three tables... if there's an ID value in table1 it will also appear in table2 and table3. The number of rows in these tables is identical, about 10m rows in each table. What I'd like to do is create a new table that contains (most of) the columns of all three tables and merge them into it. The dates, for instance, must be converted because right now they're in VARCHAR YYYYMMDD format. Reading the MySQL manual I figured STR_TO_DATE() would do the job, but I don't know how to write the query itself in the first place so I have no idea how to integrate the date conversion. So basically, after I create the new table (which I do know how to do), how can I merge the three tables into it, integrating into the query the date conversion?

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  • RetinaJS and LESS : Background image doesn't show on iOS

    - by jidma
    I am trying to make a background image into a retina image using LESS CSS and RetinaJs: in my index.html file : <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0, minimum-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-capable" content="yes"> <meta name="apple-mobile-web-app-status-bar-style" content="black"> [...] <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet/less" href="resources/css/retina.less"> <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/less-1.3.0.minjs" ></script> [...] </head> <body> [...] <script type="text/javascript" src="resources/js/retina.js"></script> </body> </html> in my retina.less file: .at2x(@path, @w: auto, @h: auto) { background-image: url("@{path}"); @at2x_path: ~`"@{path}".split('.').slice(0, "@{path}".split('.').length - 1).join(".") + "@2x" + "." + "@{path}".split('.')["@{path}".split('.').length - 1]`; @media all and (-webkit-min-device-pixel-ratio : 1.5) { background-image: url("@{at2x_path}"); background-size: @w @h; } } .topMenu { .at2x('../../resources/img/topMenuTitle.png'); } I have both topMenuTitle.png (320px x 40px) and [email protected] (640px x 80px) in the same folder. When test this code: In Firefox i have the normal Background In the XCode iPhone simulator I also have the normal Background In the iPhone device, I don't have any background at all. I'm using GWT if that matters. Any suggestions ? Thanks.

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • In Visual Studio (2008) is there a way to have a custom dependent file on another custom file?

    - by rball
    Instead of a *.cs code behind or beside I'd like to have a *.js file. I'm developing a MVC application an have no need for a code beside because I have controllers, but in certain cases it'd be nice to have a JavaScript code beside or some way to associate the file to the page it's being used on. I suppose I could just name them similarly, but I'm wanting to show the association if possible so there's no question about what the file is for. Typically what I'm talking about is within Visual Studio now under your Global.asax file you will have a plus sign to the left: + Global.asax Once you expand it you'll get - Global.asax Global.asax.cs I'd like the same thing to happen: + Home.spark - Home.spark Home.spark.js Updated: My existing csproj file has a path to the actual file, not sure if that's screwing it up. I've currently got: <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark.js"> <DependentUpon>Views\User\Profile.spark</DependentUpon> </Content> </ItemGroup> <ItemGroup> <Content Include="Views\User\Profile.spark" /> </ItemGroup> and it's simply just showing the files besides each other.

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  • Best approach for Java/Maven/JPA/Hibernate build with multiple database vendor support?

    - by HDave
    I have an enterprise application that uses a single database, but the application needs to support mysql, oracle, and sql*server as installation options. To try to remain portable we are using JPA annotations with Hibernate as the implementation. We also have a test-bed instance of each database running for development. The app is building nicely in Maven, and I've played around with the hibernate3-maven-plugin and can auto-generate DDL for a given database dialect. What is the best way to approach this so that individual developers can easily test against all three databases and our Hudson based CI server can build things propertly. More specifically: 1) I thought the hbm2ddl goal in the hibernate3-maven-plugin would just generate a schema file, but apparently it connects to a live database and attempts to create the schema. Is there a way to have this just create the schema file for each database dialect without connecting to a database? 2) If the hibernate3-maven-plug insists on actually creating the database schema, is there a way to have it drop the database and recreate it before creating the schema? 3) I am thinking that each developer (and the hudson build machine) should have their own separate database on each database server. Is this typical? 4) Will developers have to run Maven three times...once for each database vendor? If so, how do I merge the results on the build machine? 5) There is a hbm2doc goal within hibernate3-maven-plugin. It seems overkill to run this three times...I gotta believe it'd be nearly identical for each database.

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  • XAML get new width and height for Canvas

    - by Jack Navarro
    I have searched through many times but have not seen this before. Probably really simple question but can't wrap my head around it. Wrote a VSTO add-in for Excel that draws a Grid dynamically. Then launches a new window and replaces the contents of the Canvas with the generated Grid. The problem is with printing. When I call the print procedure the canvas.height and canvas.width returned is the old value prior to replacing it with the grid. Sample: string="<Grid Name=\"CanvasGrid\" xmlns=\"http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation\">..Lots of stuff..</Grid>"; // Launch new window and replace the Canvas element WpfUserControl newWindow = new WpfUserControl(); newWindow.Show(); //To test MessageBox.Show(myCanvas.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 894 Grid testGrid = myCanvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 StringReader stringReader = new StringReader(LssAllcChrt); XmlReader xmlReader = XmlReader.Create(stringReader); Canvas myCanvas = newWindow.FindName("GrphCnvs") as Canvas; myCanvas.Children.Clear(); myCanvas.Children.Add((UIElement)XamlReader.Load(xmlReader)); //To test MessageBox.Show(myCanvas.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 894 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens Grid testGrid = myCanvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens //Run code from WpfUserControl.cs after it loads from button click Grid testGrid = canvas.FindName("CanvasGrid") as Grid; MessageBox.Show("Grid " + testGrid.ActualWidth.ToString()); //return 234 but should be much larger the Grid spans all three of my screens So basically I have no way of telling what my new width and height are.

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  • How to access child div elements under a given condition with javascript?

    - by hlovdal
    My main question is to calculate the last alert message, but any other information is also welcome. I am trying to learn javascript (to use with greasemonkey later), but I am struggling a bit to grasp the DOM and how to process it. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function my_test() { var elements = document.getElementsByTagName("div"); // prints "found [object HTMLCollection] with length 8" alert("found " + elements + " with length " + elements.length); // prints "0:[object HTMLDivElement]" alert("0:" + elements[0]); // how to calculate the following? alert("for intereting one is AAAA and three is CCCC"); } </script> </head> <body> <div class="interesing"> <div class="one">AAAA</div> <div class="two">BBBB</div> <div class="three">CCCC</div> </div> <div class="boring"> <div class="one">1111</div> <div class="two">2222</div> <div class="three">3333</div> </div> <input type="button" onclick="my_test()" value="my test" </body> </html> So elements is now an array of elements and I can access each of them individually. But where can I find what methods/properties these elements have?

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  • Apache Content negotiation returns wrong Content-Type with Mulitviews :(

    - by edbras
    I am using Apache webserver 2.2 with Content Negotiation through Multiviews. I have: <Directory /home/develop/web/prodBuild> Options +MultiViews AddEncoding x-gzip .gz </Directory> This directory contains the gzip files. So if a browser requests the file bla.js, the server will return the file bla.js.gz as the file bla.js doesn't exists. However, the Content-Type on my Ubuntu server is set to be "application/x-gzip" which is wrong as it's a javascript file, so is has be "application/javascript" I have this working on my local Windows Apache server, but don't seem to get it working on the remote Ubuntu server. :(... NO idea why... Who/why is it setting this wrong Content-Type ? BTW: I don't have this line "AddType application/x-gzip .gz .tgz" somwhere in my config, as then I understand why it goes wrong. My workaround: add the following line under the above "AddEncoding": AddType "" .gz It will then set an empty string as Content-Type and then it works.. I think that the browser will try to discover the content type itself... I hope somebody can explain to me why this is not working and why this content type is set ? :(

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  • What is the best unobtrusive and lightweight jquery solution to make tab?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Which is the best unobtrusive and lightweight jquery solution to make tab? Although Jquery similar to jquery ui. jquery ui tab is good but it's overkill fro for just tab. we will have to add jquery ui core.js, jquery ui tab.js then a little code snippet. I need lightweight solution. using this type HTML. and jquery code should be in no.conflict mode. <ul> <li><a href="#example-1">example 1</a></li> <li><a href="#example-2">example 2</a></li> <li><a href="#example-3">example 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <p> tab 1 content</p> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <p> tab 2 content</p> </div> <div id="tabs-3"> <p> tab 3 content</p> </div> tabs content should be accessible if js is disabled.

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  • How to maintain long-lived python projects w.r.t. dependencies and python versions ?

    - by Gyom
    short version: how can I get rid of the multiple-versions-of-python nightmare ? long version: over the years, I've used several versions of python, and what is worse, several extensions to python (e.g. pygame, pylab, wxPython...). Each time it was on a different setup, with different OSes, sometimes different architectures (like my old PowerPC mac). Nowadays I'm using a mac (OSX 10.6 on x86-64) and it's a dependency nightmare each time I want to revive script older than a few months. Python itself already comes in three different flavours in /usr/bin (2.5, 2.6, 3.1), but I had to install 2.4 from macports for pygame, something else (cannot remember what) forced me to install all three others from macports as well, so at the end of the day I'm the happy owner of seven (!) instances of python on my system. But that's not the problem, the problem is, none of them has the right (i.e. same set of) libraries installed, some of them are 32bits, some 64bits, and now I'm pretty much lost. For example right now I'm trying to run a three-year-old script (not written by me) which used to use matplotlib/numpy to draw a real-time plot within a rectangle of a wxwidgets window. But I'm failing miserably: py26-wxpython from macports won't install, stock python has wxwidgets included but also has some conflict between 32 bits and 64 bits, and it doesn't have numpy... what a mess ! Obviously, I'm doing things the wrong way. How do you usally cope with all that chaos ?

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  • How can I execute an ANTLR parser action for each item in a rule that can match more than one item?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I am trying to write an ANTLR parser rule that matches a list of things, and I want to write a parser action that can deal with each item in the list independently. Some example input for these rules is: $(A1 A2 A3) I'd like this to result in an evaluator that contains a list of three MyIdentEvaluator objects -- one for each of A1, A2, and A3. Here's a snippet of my grammar: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN op=my_ident+ { /* want to do something here for each 'my_ident'. */ /* the following seems to see only the 'A3' my_ident */ $e.Add($op.e); } RPAREN ; my_ident returns [IEvaluator e] : IDENT { $e = new MyIdentEvaluator($IDENT.text); } ; I think my_ident is defined correctly, because I can see the three MyIdentEvaluators getting created as expected for my input string, but only the last my_ident ever gets added to the list (A3 in my example input). How can I best treat each of these elements independently, either through a grammar change or a parser action change? It also occurred to me that my vocabulary for these concepts is not what it should be, so if it looks like I'm misusing a term, I probably am. EDIT in response to Wayne's comment: I tried to use op+=my_ident+. In that case, the $op in my action becomes an IList (in C#) that contains Antlr.Runtime.Tree.CommonTree instances. It does give me one entry per matched token in $op, so I see my three matches, but I don't have the MyIdentEvaluator instances that I really want. I was hoping I could then find a rule attribute in the ANTLR docs that might help with this, but nothing seemed to help me get rid of this IList. Result... Based on chollida's answer, I ended up with this which works well: my_list returns [IEvaluator e] : { $e = new MyListEvaluator(); } '$' LPAREN (op=my_ident { $e.Add($op.e); } )+ RPAREN ; The Add method gets called for each match of my_ident.

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  • CreateThread() fails on 64 bit Windows, works on 32 bit Windows. Why?

    - by Stephen Kellett
    Operating System: Windows XP 64 bit, SP2. I have an unusual problem. I am porting some code from 32 bit to 64 bit. The 32 bit code works just fine. But when I call CreateThread() for the 64 bit version the call fails. I have three places where this fails. 2 call CreateThread(). 1 calls beginthreadex() which calls CreateThread(). All three calls fail with error code 0x3E6, "Invalid access to memory location". The problem is all the input parameters are correct. HANDLE h; DWORD threadID; h = CreateThread(0, // default security 0, // default stack size myThreadFunc, // valid function to call myParam, // my param 0, // no flags, start thread immediately &threadID); All three calls to CreateThread() are made from a DLL I've injected into the target program at the start of the program execution (this is before the program has got to the start of main()/WinMain()). If I call CreateThread() from the target program (same params) via say a menu, it works. Same parameters etc. Bizarre. If I pass NULL instead of &threadID, it still fails. If I pass NULL as myParam, it still fails. I'm not calling CreateThread from inside DllMain(), so that isn't the problem. I'm confused and searching on Google etc hasn't shown any relevant answers. If anyone has seen this before or has any ideas, please let me know. Thanks for reading.

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  • Porting a web application to work in IE7

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm developing a web application that uses lots of Javascript and CSS, both of my own creation and through third-party libraries. These include jQuery and Google Maps & Visualization JS APIs. I've been testing everything in Firefox 3. Things are peachy until it turns out the main target of this webapp is (cue sad trombone) IE7. I'm looking for caveats, advice, libraries, or other references to help make this transition as easy as possible (not that it's actually going to be easy). I've already tried IE7.js though it hasn't yet shown itself to be the silver bullet I was hoping for. I'm sure that it works as advertised, I think it's just not as all-encompassing as I'd like (example: colors like #4684EE and #DC3912, which are correctly rendered in FF3, are rendered as black in IE7, with or without IE7.js). Are there other libraries out there to help bring IE7 (more) in line with FF3? A corollary question: what debugger would you recommend for IE7? I'm currently using Firebug Lite, but it runs painfully slowly. Is there anything out there with similar features that I might have missed?

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  • Chrome extension custom cursor

    - by the_nakos
    Hi, I building an Google Chrome extension that place some IMG tag in sites. This img tag on :hover must show a custom cursor. The extension uses jQuery as its injected core script. I tried the following methods: 1. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('#myImgId').css({ 'position': 'absolute', 'top':'5px', 'left':'5px', 'cursor':cursor }); This is the best working. On smaller sites its shows the cursor. On slower loading sites it does not. But on little sites it fails sometimes. 2. var cursor = 'url('+chrome.extension.getURL('icons/cursor.cur')+')'; $('<style>#myImgId{cursor:'+cursor+'}</style>').appendTo('head'); This did nothing at all. 3. In manifest.json I injected the css. "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["http://*/*"], "css": ["css/style.css"], "js": ["j/c.js", "j/s.js"] } The css file just had the cursor:url(icons/cursor.cur) as I don't have idea, how to get real url in a css file. This isn't working at all. I think it must work like this, I didn't find reference for this on code.google though.

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  • How can I refactor these script tags?

    - by Shpigford
    I have the following script tags in the <head> so that they don't prompt any security errors when going back and forth between SSL and non-SSL pages. But it just looks hairy. Any way I can combine them or reduce some of the code? <script type="text/javascript">document.write(["\<script src='",("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://" : "http://","ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js' type='text/javascript'>\<\/script>"].join(''));</script> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(["\<script src='",("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://" : "http://","html5shiv.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/html5.js' type='text/javascript'>\<\/script>"].join(''));</script> <script type="text/javascript">document.write(["\<script src='",("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://" : "http://","use.typekit.com/12345.js' type='text/javascript'>\<\/script>"].join(''));</script>

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  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

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