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• Weird error running com-exposed assembly

  - by Bernabé Panarello

  I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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• How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

  - by stackuser1

  In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

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• android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

  - by moonlightcheese

  I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12

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• android compile error: could not reserve enough space for object heap

  - by moonlightcheese

  I'm getting this error during compilation: Error occurred during initialization of VM Could not create the Java virtual machine. Could not reserve enough space for object heap What's worse, the error occurs intermittently. Sometimes it happens, sometimes it doesn't. It seems to be dependent on the amount of code in the application. If I get rid of some variables or drop some imported libraries, it will compile. Then when I add more to it, I get the error again. I've included the following sources into the application in the [project_root]/src/ directory: org.apache.httpclient (I've stripped all references to log4j from the sources, so don't need it) org.apache.codec (as a dependency) org.apache.httpcore (dependency of httpclient) and my own activity code consisting of nothing more than an instance of HttpClient. I know this has something to do with the amount of memory necessary during compile time or some compiler options, and I'm not really stressing my system while i'm coding. I've got 2GB of memory on this Core Duo laptop and windows reports only 860MB page file usage (haven't used any other memory tools. I should have plenty of memory and processing power for this... and I'm only compiling some common http libs... total of 406 source files. What gives? edit (4/30/2010-18:24): Just compiled some code where I got the above stated error. I closed some web browser windows and recompiled the same exact code with no edits and it compiled with no issue. this is definitely a compiler issue related to memory usage. Any help would be great.... because I have no idea where to go from here. Android API Level: 5 Android SDK rel 5 JDK version: 1.6.0_12 Sorry I had to repost this question because regardless of whether I use the native HttpClient class in the Android SDK or my custom version downloaded from apache, the error still occurs.

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• ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

  - by Mad Halfling

  Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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• xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

  - by NealWalters

  I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

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• How to fill DataGridView from nested table oracle

  - by arkadiusz85

  I want to create my type: CREATE TYPE t_read AS OBJECT ( id_worker NUMBER(20), how_much NUMBER(5,2), adddate_r DATE, date_from DATE, date_to DATE ); I create a table of my type: CREATE TYPE t_tab_read AS TABLE OF t_read; Next step is create a table with my type: enter code hereCREATE TABLE Reading ( id_watermeter NUMBER(20) constraint Watermeter_fk1 references Watermeters(id_watermeter), read t_tab_read ) NESTED TABLE read STORE AS store_read ; Microsoft Visual Studio can not display this type in DataGridView. I use Oracle.Command: C# using Oracle.DataAccess; using Oracle.DataAccess.Client; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { //my working class to connect to database ConnectionClass.BeginConnection(); OracleDataAdapter tmp = new OracleDataAdapter(); tmp = ConnectionClass.ReadCommand(ReadClass.test()); DataSet dataset4 = new DataSet(); tmp.Fill(dataset4, "Read1"); dataGridView4.DataSource = dataset4.Tables["Read1"]; } catch (Exception o) { MessageBox.Show(o.Message); } public class ReadClass { public static OracleCommand test() { string sql = "select c.id_watermeter, a. from reading c , table (c.read) a where id_watermeter=1"; ConnectionClass.Command1= new OracleCommand(sql, ConnectionClass.Connection); ConnectionClass.Command1.CommandType = CommandType.Text; return ConnectionClass.Command1; } } I tray: string sql = "select r.id_watermeter, o.id_worker, o.how_much, o.adddate_r, o.date_from, o.date_to from reading r, table (r.read) o where r.id_watermeter=1" string sql = "select a.from reading c , Table (c.read) a where id_watermeter=1" string sql = "select a.id_worker, a.how_much, a.adddate_r, a.date_from, a.date_to from reading c , table (c.read) a where id_watermeter=1" string sql = "select c.id_watermeter, a. from reading c , table (c.read) a where id_watermeter=1" Error : Unsuported Oracle data type USERDEFINED encountered Sombady can help me how to fill DataGridView using data from nested table. I am using Oracle 10g XE

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• Need advice on OOP philosophy

  - by David Jenings

  I'm trying to get the wheels turning on a large project in C#. My previous experience is in Delphi, where by default every form was created at applicaton startup and form references where held in (gasp) global variables. So I'm trying to adapt my thinking to a 100% object oriented environment, and my head is spinning just a little. My app will have a large collection of classes Most of these classes will only really need one instance. So I was thinking: static classes. I'm not really sure why, but much of what I've read here says that if my class is going to hold a state, which I take to mean any property values at all, I should use a singleton structure instead. Okay. But there are people out there who for reasons that escape me, think that singletons are evil too. None of these classes is in danger of being used anywhere except in this program. So they could certainly work fine as regular objects (vs singletons or static classes) Then there's the issue of interaction between objects. I'm tempted to create a Global class full of public static properties referencing the single instances of many of these classes. I've also considered just making them properties (static or instance, not sure which) of the MainForm. Then I'd have each of my classes be aware of the MainForm as Owner. Then the various objects could refer to each other as Owner.Object1, Owner.Object2, etc. I fear I'm running out of electronic ink, or at least taxing the patience of anyone kind enough to have stuck with me this long. I hope I have clearly explained my state of utter confusion. I'm just looking for some advice on best practices in my situation. All input is welcome and appreciated. Thanks in advance, David Jennings

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• ASP.NET MVC 2: Mechanics behind an Order / Order Line in a edit form

  - by Dr. Zim

  In this question I am looking for links/code to handle an IList<OrderLine> in an MVC 2 edit form. Specifically I am interested in sending a complete order to the client, then posting the edited order back to an object (to persist) using: Html.EditorFor(m = m.orderlines[i]) (where orderlines is an enumerable object) Editing an Order that has multiple order lines (two tables, Order and OrderLine, one to many) is apparently difficult. Is there any links/examples/patterns out there to advise how to create this form that edits an entity and related entities in a single form (in C# MVC 2)? The IList is really throwing me for a loop. Should I have it there (while still having one form to edit one order)? How could you use the server side factory to create a blank OrderLine in the form while not posting the entire form back to the server? I am hoping we don't treat the individual order lines with individual save buttons, deletes, etc. (for example, they may open an order, delete all the lines, then click cancel, which shouldn't have altered the order itself in either the repository nor the database. Example classes: public class ViewModel { public Order order {get;set;} // Only one order } public class Order { public int ID {get;set;} // Order Identity public string name {get;set;} public IList<OrderLine> orderlines {get;set;} // Order has multiple lines } public class OrderLine { public int orderID {get;set;} // references Order ID above public int orderLineID {get;set;} // Order Line identity (need?) public Product refProduct {get;set;} // Product value object public int quantity {get;set;} // How many we want public double price {get;set;} // Current sale price }

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• jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

  - by echoesofspring

  I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

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• "Work stealing" vs. "Work shrugging (tm)"?

  - by John

  Why is it that I can find lots of information on "work stealing" and nothing on a "work shrugging(tm)" as a load-balancing strategy? I am surprised because work-stealing seems to me to have an inherent weakness when implementating efficient fine-grained load-balancing. Vis:- Relying on consumer processors to implement distribution (by actively stealing) begs the question of what these processors do when they find no work? None of the work-stealing references and implementations I have come across so far address this issue satisfactorarily for me. They either:- 1) Manage not to disclose what they do with idle processors! [Cilk] (?anyone know?) 2) Have all idle processors sleep and wake periodically and scatter messages to the four winds to see if any work has arrived [e.g. JAWS] (= way too latent & inefficient for me). 3) Assume that it is acceptable to have processors "spinning" looking for work ( = non-starter for me!) Unless anyone thinks there is a solution for this I will move on to consider a "Work Shrugging(tm)" strategy. Having the task-producing processor distribute excess load seems to me inherently capable of a much more efficient implementation. However a quick google didn't show up anything under the heading of "Work Shrugging" so any pointers to prior-art would be welcome. tx Tags I would have added if I was allowed to [work-stealing]

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• Sharepoint: Integrity of lookup fields after a list import

  - by driAn

  Hi there I got a question about the behavior of lookup fields when importing data. I wonder how the lookup fields behave when the list they point to is being replaced/imported. To explain the issue, I will provide a quick example below: As example, assume we have these two sharepoint lists: Product Types ------------- + Type Name + Code Nr + etc Products -------- + Product Name + Product Type (Lookup field to list "Product Types") + etc In my scenario, the Products List contains production data on the production Sharepoint platform. It is filled with data by the business users. However the Product Types list contains rather static data and is maintained by the developer. Now after a development cycle, the developer wants to deploy his new webparts and his new data (product types list). The developer performs the following procedure: On the dev machine: Export "product type" list using stsadm On the production machine: Delete all items in the "product type" list On the production machine: Import the "product type" list using stsadm This means we basically replace the "product type" list on the production server while keeping the "product" list as it is. Now the question: Is this safe? Will the lookup references break under certain circumstances? Any downside of this import/export procedure? What happens if someone accesses a "product" during the import? Will the (now invalid) reference clear its own content (become a null value). What happens if the schema of the "product type" list changes (new column)? Will this cause any troubles? Thanks for all feedback and suggestions!

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• Amazon Elastic MapReduce: Exception from FileSystem

  - by S.N

  Hi, I run my application using ruby client: ruby elastic-mapreduce -j j-20PEKMT9BRSUC --jar s3n://sakae55/lib/edu.cit.som.jar --main-class edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/input/ecoli/ --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/output/ecoli/pl/ --arg s3n://sakae55/repository/data/ecoli/som.txt Then, I am seeing the following error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: This file system object (file:///) does not support access to the request path 'hdfs://i -10-195-207-230.ec2.internal:9000/mnt/var/lib/hadoop/tmp/mapred/system/job_201004221221_0017/job.jar' You possibly called Fi eSystem.get(conf) when you should of called FileSystem.get(uri, conf) to obtain a file system supporting your path. at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.checkPath(FileSystem.java:320) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.RawLocalFileSystem.pathToFile(RawLocalFileSystem.java:52) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.RawLocalFileSystem.getFileStatus(RawLocalFileSystem.java:416) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FilterFileSystem.getFileStatus(FilterFileSystem.java:259) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.isDirectory(FileSystem.java:676) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileUtil.copy(FileUtil.java:200) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1184) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1160) at org.apache.hadoop.fs.FileSystem.copyFromLocalFile(FileSystem.java:1132) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.configureCommandLineOptions(JobClient.java:662) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.submitJob(JobClient.java:729) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.runJob(JobClient.java:1026) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.runIteration(SOMDriver.java:106) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.train(SOMDriver.java:69) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.run(SOMDriver.java:52) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:65) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:79) at edu.cit.som.hadoop.SOMDriver.main(SOMDriver.java:36) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.apache.hadoop.util.RunJar.main(RunJar.java:155) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobShell.run(JobShell.java:54) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:65) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:79) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobShell.main(JobShell.java:68) I am not sure why the error references to "file:///" even though all the arguments I pass do not use the schema.

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• P6 Architecture - Register renaming aside, does the limited user registers result in more ops spent

  - by mrjoltcola

  I'm studying JIT design with regard to dynamic languages VM implementation. I haven't done much Assembly since the 8086/8088 days, just a little here or there, so be nice if I'm out of sorts. As I understand it, the x86 (IA-32) architecture still has the same basic limited register set today that it always did, but the internal register count has grown tremendously, but these internal registers are not generally available and are used with register renaming to achieve parallel pipelining of code that otherwise could not be parallelizable. I understand this optimization pretty well, but my feeling is, while these optimizations help in overall throughput and for parallel algorithms, the limited register set we are still stuck with results in more register spilling overhead such that if x86 had double, or quadruple the registers available to us, there may be significantly less push/pop opcodes in a typical instruction stream? Or are there other processor optmizations that also optimize this away that I am unaware of? Basically if I've a unit of code that has 4 registers to work with for integer work, but my unit has a dozen variables, I've got potentially a push/pop for every 2 or so instructions. Any references to studies, or better yet, personal experiences?

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• subsonic . navigate among records ,view,query

  - by gmo camilo

  hello everybody i'm some newbie in this matter of .net i'm trying understand this new paradigm i began with linq for SQl but i found this library, kind of framework of T4 more specifically: subsonic T4 i think it could be very usefull but the support docs outside are very scarce my first intention is use them in the very simple form: a catalog lets say... Users so... how can i use the model generated with subsonic ( using the iactiverecord) to implement the record-navigational part.,...???!!! i mean i want a simple form to create, delete or modify records and that is fairy easy but what about to move among records ? i found how to get the first, the last record.. but how can i advance or go back among them??? how can i order the records..? it seems everytime imust query the table.. its so? but how can imove among the records i already got? all of the exmples found are very simple dont touch the matter and/ or are repetitive everywhere so.. please if anybody can help me or give more references... i'd thank you a lot gmo camilo

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• Is SHA-1 secure for password storage?

  - by Tgr

  Some people throw around remarks like "SHA-1 is broken" a lot, so I'm trying to understand what exactly that means. Let's assume I have a database of SHA-1 password hashes, and an attacker whith a state of the art SHA-1 breaking algorithm and a botnet with 100,000 machines gets access to it. (Having control over 100k home computers would mean they can do about 10^15 operations per second.) How much time would they need to find out the password of any one user? find out the password of a given user? find out the password of all users? find a way to log in as one of the users? find a way to log in as a specific user? How does that change if the passwords are salted? Does the method of salting (prefix, postfix, both, or something more complicated like xor-ing) matter? Here is my current understanding, after some googling. Please correct in the answers if I misunderstood something. If there is no salt, a rainbow attack will immediately find all passwords (except extremely long ones). If there is a sufficiently long random salt, the most effective way to find out the passwords is a brute force or dictionary attack. Neither collision nor preimage attacks are any help in finding out the actual password, so cryptographic attacks against SHA-1 are no help here. It doesn't even matter much what algorithm is used - one could even use MD5 or MD4 and the passwords would be just as safe (there is a slight difference because computing a SHA-1 hash is slower). To evaluate how safe "just as safe" is, let's assume that a single sha1 run takes 1000 operations and passwords contain uppercase, lowercase and digits (that is, 60 characters). That means the attacker can test 1015*60*60*24 / 1000 ~= 1017 potential password a day. For a brute force attack, that would mean testing all passwords up to 9 characters in 3 hours, up to 10 characters in a week, up to 11 characters in a year. (It takes 60 times as much for every additional character.) A dictionary attack is much, much faster (even an attacker with a single computer could pull it off in hours), but only finds weak passwords. To log in as a user, the attacker does not need to find out the exact password; it is enough to find a string that results in the same hash. This is called a first preimage attack. As far as I could find, there are no preimage attacks against SHA-1. (A bruteforce attack would take 2160 operations, which means our theoretical attacker would need 1030 years to pull it off. Limits of theoretical possibility are around 260 operations, at which the attack would take a few years.) There are preimage attacks against reduced versions of SHA-1 with negligible effect (for the reduced SHA-1 which uses 44 steps instead of 80, attack time is down from 2160 operations to 2157). There are collision attacks against SHA-1 which are well within theoretical possibility (the best I found brings the time down from 280 to 252), but those are useless against password hashes, even without salting. In short, storing passwords with SHA-1 seems perfectly safe. Did I miss something?

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• The name capture does not exist in the current context ERROR

  - by Haxed

  Hi I am developing a campera capture application. I am currently using EmguCV 2.0. I get an error with the following line of code : Image image = capture.QueryFrame(); I have added all the required references of EmguCV like Emgu.CV,Emgu.CV.UI, Emgu.CV.ML, Emgu.Util, but still it gives a error saying : Error 1 The name 'capture' does not exist in the current context C:\Documents and Settings\TLNA\my documents\visual studio 2010\Projects\webcamcapture\webcamcapture\Form1.cs 27 38 webcamcapture I got this code from here. The full program code is given below:- using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Emgu.CV; using Emgu.CV.UI; using Emgu.CV.Structure; using Emgu.CV.ML; namespace webcamcapture { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { Image<Bgr, Byte> image = capture.QueryFrame(); pictureBox1.Image = image.ToBitmap(pictureBox1.Width, pictureBox1.Height); } } }

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• How to temporarily replace one primitive type with another when compiling to different targets in c#

  - by Keith

  How to easily/quickly replace float's for doubles (for example) for compiling to two different targets using these two particular choices of primitive types? Discussion: I have a large amount of c# code under development that I need to compile to alternatively use float, double or decimals depending on the use case of the target assembly. Using something like “class MYNumber : Double” so that it is only necessary to change one line of code does not work as Double is sealed, and obviously there is no #define in C#. Peppering the code with #if #else statements is also not an option, there is just too much supporting Math operators/related code using these particular primitive types. I am at a loss on how to do this apparently simple task, thanks! Edit: Just a quick comment in relation to boxing mentioned in Kyles reply: Unfortunately I need to avoid boxing, mainly since float's are being chosen when maximum speed is required, and decimals when maximum accuracy is the priority (and taking the 20x+ performance hit is acceptable). Boxing would probably rules out decimals as a valid choice and defeat the purpose somewhat. Edit2: For reference, those suggesting generics as a possible answer to this question note that there are many issues which count generics out (at least for our needs). For an overview and further references see Using generics for calculations

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• Why can I run JUnit tests for my Spring project, but not a main method?

  - by FarmBoy

  I am using JDBC to connect to MySQL for a small application. In order to test without altering the real database, I'm using HSQL in memory for JUnit tests. I'm using Spring for DI and DAOs. Here is how I'm configuring my HSQL DataSource <bean id="mockDataSource" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.SingleConnectionDataSource"> <property name="driverClassName" value="org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver"/> <property name="url" value="jdbc:hsqldb:mem:mockSeo"/> <property name="username" value="sa"/> </bean> This works fine for my JUnit tests which use the mock DB. But when I try to run a main method, I find the following error: Error creating bean with name 'mockDataSource' defined in class path resource [beans.xml]: Error setting property values; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.PropertyBatchUpdateException; nested PropertyAccessExceptions (1) are: PropertyAccessException 1: org.springframework.beans.MethodInvocationException: Property 'driverClassName' threw exception; nested exception is java.lang.IllegalStateException: Could not load JDBC driver class [org.hsqldb.jdbcDriver] I'm running from Eclipse, and I'm using the Maven plugin. Is there a reason why this would work as a Test, but not as a main()? I know that the main method itself is not the problem, because it works if I remove all references to the HSQL DataSource from my Spring Configuration file.

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• XNA 2D mouse picking

  - by Corndog

  I'm working on a simple 2D Real time strategy game using XNA. Right now I have reached the point where I need to be able to click on the sprite for a unit or building and be able to reference the object associated with that sprite. From the research I have done over the last three days I have found many references on how to do "Mouse picking" in 3D which does not seem to apply to my situation. I understand that another way to do this is to simply have an array of all "selectable" objects in the world and when the player clicks on a sprite it checks the mouse location against the locations of all the objects in the array. the problem I have with this approach is that it would become rather slow if the number of units and buildings grows to larger numbers. (it also does not seem very elegant) so what are some other ways I could do this. (Please note that I have also worked over the ideas of using a Hash table to associate the object with the sprite location, and using a 2 dimensional array where each location in the array represents one pixel in the world. once again they seem like rather clunky ways of doing things.)

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• Function syntax puzzler in scalaz

  - by oxbow_lakes

  Following watching Nick Partidge's presentation on deriving scalaz, I got to looking at this example, which is just awesome: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ def even(x: Int) : Validation[NonEmptyList[String], Int] = if (x % 2 ==0) x.success else "not even: %d".format(x).wrapNel.fail println( even(3) <|*|> even(5) ) //prints: Failure(NonEmptyList(not even: 3, not even: 5)) I was trying to understand what the <|*|> method was doing, here is the source code: def <|*|>[B](b: M[B])(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[(A, B)] = <**>(b, (_: A, _: B)) OK, that is fairly confusing (!) - but it references the <**> method, which is declared thus: def <**>[B, C](b: M[B], z: (A, B) => C)(implicit t: Functor[M], a: Apply[M]): M[C] = a(t.fmap(value, z.curried), b) So I have a few questions: How come the method appears to take a monad of one type parameter (M[B]) but can get passed a Validation (which has two type paremeters)? How does the syntax (_: A, _: B) define the function (A, B) => C which the 2nd method expects? It doesn't even define an output via =>

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• Correct escaping of delimited identifers in SQL Server without using QUOTENAME

  - by Ross Bradbury

  Is there anything else that the code must do to sanitize identifiers (table, view, column) other than to wrap them in double quotation marks and "double up" and double quotation marks present in the identifier name? References would be appreciated. I have inherited a code base that has a custom object-relational mapping (ORM) system. SQL cannot be written in the application but the ORM must still eventually generate the SQL to send to the SQL Server. All identifiers are quoted with double quotation marks. string QuoteName(string identifier) { return "\" + identifier.Replace("\"", "\"\"") + "\""; } If I were building this dynamic SQL in SQL, I would use the built-in SQL Server QUOTENAME function: declare @identifier nvarchar(128); set @identifier = N'Client"; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --'; declare @delimitedIdentifier nvarchar(258); set @delimitedIdentifier = QUOTENAME(@identifier, '"'); print @delimitedIdentifier; -- "Client""; DROP TABLE [dbo].Client; --" I have not found any definitive documentation about how to escape quoted identifiers in SQL Server. I have found Delimited Identifiers (Database Engine) and I also saw this stackoverflow question about sanitizing. If it were to have to call the QUOTENAME function just to quote the identifiers that is a lot of traffic to SQL Server that should not be needed. The ORM seems to be pretty well thought out with regards to SQL Injection. It is in C# and predates the nHibernate port and Entity Framework etc. All user input is sent using ADO.NET SqlParameter objects, it is just the identifier names that I am concerned about in this question. This needs to work on SQL Server 2005 and 2008.

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• Managing common components with Fossil CVS

  - by Larry Lustig

  I'm a Fossil (and CVS configuration novice) attempting to create and manage a set of distributed Fossil repositories for a Delphi project. I have the following directory tree: Projects Some Project Delphi Components LookupListView Some Client Some Project For Client Some Other Project For Client Source Code Project Resources Project Database I am setting up Fossil version control in order to version and share Projects\Some Client\Some Other Project For Client\Source Code, which contains Delphi 2010 source for a database project. This project makes use of Projects\Delphi Components\LookupListView which is a Delphi component. I need this code to be included in the versioning system for my project. I will, in theory, need to include it in other Fossil repositories in the future, as well. If I create my Fossil repository at the Source Code or Some Other Project For Client level, I cannot add any code above that level to my repository. What is the proper way to deal with this? The two solutions that occur to me are 1) Creating a separate repository for LookupListView and make sure that everyone who uses a repository for a project that references it "knows" that they must also get the current version of this project as well. This seems to defeat the purpose of being able to obtain a complete, current version of the project with a single checkout. The problem is magnified because there are other common component dependencies in this project. 2) Establishing my Fossil repository in the Projects directory, so I can check in files from various subfolders. This seems to me to involve an awful lot of extra path-typing when doing adds, and also to impose my directory structure (Some Client\Some Other Project For Client\Source) on the other users of the repository -- in this case, the actual client. Any suggestions appreciated.

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• How to use Common Table Expression and check no duplication in SQL Server

  - by vodkhang

  I have a table references to itself. User table: id, username, managerid and managerid links back to id Now, I want to get all the managers including direct manager, manager of direct manager, so on and so forth... The problem is that I do not want to have a unstop recursive sql. So, I want to check if an id alreay in a list, I will not include it anymore. Here is my sql for that: with all_managers (id, username, managerid, idlist) as ( select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' from users u1, users u2 where u1.id = u2.managerid and u2.id = 6 UNION ALL select u.id, u.username, u.managerid, idlist + ' ' + u.id from all_managers a, users u where a.managerid = u.id and charindex(cast(u.id as nvarchar(5)), idlist) != 0 ) select id, username from all_managers; The problem is that in this line: select u1.id, u1.username, u1.managerid, ' ' The SQL Server complains with me that I can not put ' ' as the initialized for idlist. nvarchar(40) does not work as well. I do not know how to declare it inside a common table expression like this one. Usually, in db2, I can just put varchar(40) My sample data: ID UserName ManagerID 1 admin 1 2 a 1 3 b 1 4 c 2 What I want to do is that I want to find all managers of c guy. The result should be: admin, a, b. Some of the user can be his manager (like admin) because the ManagerID does not allow NULL and some does not have direct manager. With common table expression, it can lead to an infinite recursive. So, I am also trying to avoid that situation by trying to not include the id twice. For example, in the 1st iteration, we already have id : 1, so, in the 2nd iteration and later on, 1 should never be allowed. I also want to ask if my current approach is good or not and any other solutions? Because if I have a big database with a deep hierarchy, I will have to initialize a big varchar to keep it and it consumes memory, right?

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• HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

  - by Paul Smith

  My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

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