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• Unregistering COM dll with a C# Setup Project

  - by lb

  Hi All. I've been stuck on this one for a while. I'll try explain in the simplest terms and at the best of my knowledge. I will honour any help. I've got a C# project which uses a VB6 compiled ActiveX DLL that I'm constantly updating. I compile the setup project, send it to the client and they run the setup. When building the updated setup project, I would increase the 'Version' of the setup project so it wouldn't bother with 'Another version is already installed'. What started happening after a few updates I began to notice the DLL would not be updated to the new version in the installer. The client computer had the original DLL both installed and registered. First symptom: method not found exceptions from the client C# code. This is not a shared DLL and only this application needs it. I've noticed that when uninstalling the application (through the usual procedure) the DLL is also not removed from the application folder although I would set this file's property 'Permanent' to false. The registration entries in the registry are mantained also. I do update in VS6.0 the version of the DLL (usually increase the build number) before building it. Then in VS2008, I remove it from the References, and add it again from the 'Browse tab', without re-registering it on my dev machine and adding it from the COM tab. I've thought of these options. Custom step in Setup project to regsvr32.exe /u 'hardcoded path of my dll' at uninstall (ugly) Somehow find out how the 'Isolate' property can work for me without registering Find out how to execute setup project 'Conditions' that would actually check the version of the library and to update the file accordingly at every install) Any help would be incredibly welcome.

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• Iphone: TabView + TableView

  - by OneTrickPonySoft

  I think I'm missing something simple, but I can't figure out exactly what it is. I'm trying to set up an App with a UITabViewController, and one of the Tabs will have a UITableView and UISearchBar (but no Navigation Controller). I set up the UITabViewController with all the tabs in interface builder, and the views are in their own xib files. The xib file for the tab with the UITableView is set up and connected as follows. Stuff in the browser: File's owner (Class is my custom class that is a child of UITableViewController) view - View View (class UIView, reference view - File's owner) contains: UITableView (if i try and set references to the data source / delegate, the app breaks) UISearchBar (unconfigured at the moment) This setup displays all the items and doesn't lock up, but I can't assign a DataSource without it crashing when i try and load the tab with the UITableView. What should I do to get data into this table, either in IB or code? My ideas are as follows: Implement custom UITableView class, hook up to table view in IB or to custom tableviewcontroller in Xcode. Pound head or laptop against the wall until it works. Update: Here's the error the simulator pushes to the console when I connect the Tableview's data source and delegate to File Owner (who's class is my custom tableviewcontroller). 2/14/09 6:59:12 PM TabBarWillbeRight[33172] * Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '* -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x523760'

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• Why is my Map broken?

  - by Kirk

  Scenario: Creating a server which has Room objects which contain User objects. I want to store the rooms in a Map of some sort by Id (a string). Desired Behavior: When a user makes a request via the server, I should be able to look up the Room by id from the library and then add the user to the room, if that's what the request needs. Currently I use the static function in my Library.java class where the Map is stored to retrieve Rooms: public class Library { private static Hashtable<String, Rooms> myRooms = new Hashtable<String, Rooms>(); public static addRoom(String s, Room r) { myRooms.put(s, r); } public static Room getRoomById(String s) { return myRooms.get(s); } } In another class I'll do the equivalent of myRoom.addUser(user); What I'm observing using Hashtable, is that no matter how many times I add a user to the Room returned by getRoomById, the user is not in the room later. I thought that in Java, the object that was returned was essentially a reference to the data, the same object that was in the Hashtable with the same references; but, it isn't behaving like that. Is there a way to get this behavior? Maybe with a wrapper of some sort? Am I just using the wrong variant of map? Help?

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• How to define index by several columns in hibernate entity?

  - by foobar

  Morning. I need to add indexing in hibernate entity. As I know it is possible to do using @Index annotation to specify index for separate column but I need an index for several fields of entity. I've googled and found jboss annotation @Table, that allows to do this (by specification). But (I don't know why) this functionality doesn't work. May be jboss version is lower than necessary, or maybe I don't understant how to use this annotation, but... complex index is not created. Why index may not be created? jboss version 4.2.3.GA Entity example: package somepackage; import org.hibernate.annotations.Index; import javax.persistence.Column; import javax.persistence.Entity; import javax.persistence.GeneratedValue; import javax.persistence.Id; @Entity @org.hibernate.annotations.Table(appliesTo = House.TABLE_NAME, indexes = { @Index(name = "IDX_XDN_DFN", columnNames = {House.XDN, House.DFN} ) } ) public class House { public final static String TABLE_NAME = "house"; public final static String XDN = "xdn"; public final static String DFN = "dfn"; @Id @GeneratedValue private long Id; @Column(name = XDN) private long xdn; @Column(name = DFN) private long dfn; @Column private String address; public long getId() { return Id; } public void setId(long id) { this.Id = id; } public long getXdn() { return xdn; } public void setXdn(long xdn) { this.xdn = xdn; } public long getDfn() { return dfn; } public void setDfn(long dfn) { this.dfn = dfn; } public String getAddress() { return address; } public void setAddress(String address) { this.address = address; } } When jboss/hibernate tries to create table "house" it throws following exception: Reason: org.hibernate.AnnotationException: @org.hibernate.annotations.Table references an unknown table: house

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• Field specific errors for ETL

  - by AaronLS

  I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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• Shared classes are build under VS2008 only but not under MSBuild.

  - by Vasiliy Borovyak

  We share our classes between silverlight 3.0 client and server as is it described here. Everything works fine under Visual Studio 2008 only. Using msbuild with following command line parameters: C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v3.5\msbuild.exe FoobarApplication.sln /t:Rebuild /p:Configuration=Release /p:Platform="Any CPU" we get following error: Class1.cs(28,54): error CS0234: The type or namespace name 'WcfService' does not exist in the namespace 'Company.FoobarApplication' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Service References\geoServiceReference1\Reference.cs(24,81): error CS0234: The type or namespace name 'WcfService' does not exist in the namespace 'Company.FoobarApplication' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Done Building Project "C:\work\bov-tmp\FoobarApplication\SilverlightClassLibrary3\SilverlightClassLibrary3.csproj" (Rebuild target(s)) -- FAILED. Done Building Project "C:\work\bov-tmp\FoobarApplication\FoobarApplication.sln" (Rebuild target(s)) -- FAILED. I found exactly the same question here. There are 4 workarounds there, I tried first 3 of them and those did not worked out. The 4-th workaround is not the acceptable solution. Any thoughts how to build the solution?

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• Using objective-c objects with an NSDictionary

  - by Mark

  I want store a URL against a UILabel so that when a user touches the label it takes them to that URL in a UIWebView. I have declared a NSDictionary like so: NSMutableArray *linksArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem1ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem2ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem3ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem4ReadMoreLabel]]; [linksArray addObject: [NSValue valueWithNonretainedObject: newsItem5ReadMoreLabel]]; //NSString *ageLink = @"http://www.theage.com.au"; NSArray *defaultLinks = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: @"1", @"2", @"3", @"4", @"5", nil]; self.urlToLinkDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; self.urlToLinkDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:defaultLinks forKeys:linksArray]; Considering I used a NSValue as the key, how do I get/set the URL associated with that key given that I only have references to the UILabels? this is what I have but it doesn't work: for(NSValue *key in [self.urlToLinkDictionary allKeys]) { if ([key nonretainedObjectValue] == linkedLabel) { [self.urlToLinkDictionary setValue:[newsItem link] forKey: key]; } } but I get an error: "objc_exception_throw" resolved

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• getting proxies of the correct type in nhibernate

  - by Nir

  I have a problem with uninitialized proxies in nhibernate The Domain Model Let's say I have two parallel class hierarchies: Animal, Dog, Cat and AnimalOwner, DogOwner, CatOwner where Dog and Cat both inherit from Animal and DogOwner and CatOwner both inherit from AnimalOwner. AnimalOwner has a reference of type Animal called OwnedAnimal. Here are the classes in the example: public abstract class Animal { // some properties } public class Dog : Animal { // some more properties } public class Cat : Animal { // some more properties } public class AnimalOwner { public virtual Animal OwnedAnimal {get;set;} // more properties... } public class DogOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } public class CatOwner : AnimalOwner { // even more properties } The classes have proper nhibernate mapping, all properties are persistent and everything that can be lazy loaded is lazy loaded. The application business logic only let you to set a Dog in a DogOwner and a Cat in a CatOwner. The Problem I have code like this: public void ProcessDogOwner(DogOwner owner) { Dog dog = (Dog)owner.OwnedAnimal; .... } This method can be called by many diffrent methods, in most cases the dog is already in memory and everything is ok, but rarely the dog isn't already in memory - in this case I get an nhibernate "uninitialized proxy" but the cast throws an exception because nhibernate genrates a proxy for Animal and not for Dog. I understand that this is how nhibernate works, but I need to know the type without loading the object - or, more correctly I need the uninitialized proxy to be a proxy of Cat or Dog and not a proxy of Animal. Constraints I can't change the domain model, the model is handed to me by another department, I tried to get them to change the model and failed. The actual model is much more complicated then the example and the classes have many references between them, using eager loading or adding joins to the queries is out of the question for performance reasons. I have full control of the source code, the hbm mapping and the database schema and I can change them any way I want (as long as I don't change the relationships between the model classes). I have many methods like the one in the example and I don't want to modify all of them. Thanks, Nir

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• Returning a Value From the Bit.ly JS API Callback

  - by mtorbin

  Hey all, I am attempting to turn this "one shot" script into something more extensible. The problem is that I cannot figure out how to get the callback function to set a value outside of itself (please note that references to the Bit.ly API and the prototype.js frame work which are required have been left out due to login and apiKey information): CURRENTLY WORKING CODE var setShortUrl = function(data) { var resultOBJ, myURL; for(x in data.results){resultOBJ = data.results[x];} for(key in resultOBJ){if(key == "shortUrl"){myURL = resultOBJ[key];}} alert(myURL); } BitlyClient.shorten('http://www.thinkgeek.com', 'setShortUrl'); PROPOSED CHANGES var setShortUrl = function(data) { var resultOBJ, myURL; for(x in data.results){resultOBJ = data.results[x];} for(key in resultOBJ){if(key == "shortUrl"){myURL = resultOBJ[key];}} alert(myURL); return myURL; } var myTEST = BitlyClient.shorten('http://www.thinkgeek.com', 'setShortUrl'); alert(myTEST); As you can see this doesn't work the way I'm am expecting. If I could get a pointer in the right direction it would be most appreciated. Thanks, MT

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• Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

  - by LOSnively

  I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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• Base class deleted before subclass during python __del__ processing

  - by Oddthinking

  Context I am aware that if I ask a question about Python destructors, the standard argument will be to use contexts instead. Let me start by explaining why I am not doing that. I am writing a subclass to logging.Handler. When an instance is closed, it posts a sentinel value to a Queue.Queue. If it doesn't, a second thread will be left running forever, waiting for Queue.Queue.get() to complete. I am writing this with other developers in mind, so I don't want a failure to call close() on a handler object to cause the program to hang. Therefore, I am adding a check in __del__() to ensure the object was closed properly. I understand circular references may cause it to fail in some circumstances. There's not a lot I can do about that. Problem Here is some simple example code: explicit_delete = True class Base: def __del__(self): print "Base class cleaning up." class Sub(Base): def __del__(self): print "Sub-class cleaning up." Base.__del__(self) x = Sub() if explicit_delete: del x print "End of thread" When I run this I get, as expected: Sub-class cleaning up. Base class cleaning up. End of thread If I set explicit_delete to False in the first line, I get: End of thread Sub-class cleaning up. Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute '__del__'" in <bound method Sub.__del__ of <__main__.Sub instance at 0x00F0B698>> ignored It seems the definition of Base is removed before the x._del_() is called. The Python Documentation on _del_() warns that the subclass needs to call the base-class to get a clean deletion, but here that appears to be impossible. Can you see where I made a bad step?

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• Extracting email addresses in an html block in ruby/rails

  - by corroded

  I am creating a parser that wards off against spamming and harvesting of emails from a block of text that comes from tinyMCE (so it may or may not have html tags in it) I've tried regexes and so far this has been successful: /\b[A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+\.[A-Z]{2,4}\b/i problem is, i need to ignore all email addresses with mailto hrefs. for example: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">[email protected]</a> should only return the second email add. To get a background of what im doing, im reversing the email addresses in a block so the above example would look like this: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">moc.liam@tset</a> problem with my current regex is that it also replaces the one in href. Is there a way for me to do this with a single regex? Or do i have to check for one then the other? Is there a way for me to do this just by using gsub or do I have to use some nokogiri/hpricot magicks and whatnot to parse the mailtos? Thanks in advance! Here were my references btw: so.com/questions/504860/extract-email-addresses-from-a-block-of-text so.com/questions/1376149/regexp-for-extracting-a-mailto-address im also testing using this: http://rubular.com/ edit here's my current helper code: def email_obfuscator(text) text.gsub(/\b[A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+\.[A-Z]{2,4}\b/i) { |m| m = "<span class='anti-spam'>#{m.reverse}</span>" } end which results in this: <a target="_self" href="mailto:<span class='anti-spam'>moc.liamg@tset</span>"><span class="anti-spam">moc.liamg@tset</span></a>

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• How can I reject a Windows "Service Stop" request in ATL 7?

  - by Matt Dillard

  I have a Windows service built upon ATL 7's CAtlServiceModuleT class. This service serves up COM objects that are used by various applications on the system, and these other applications naturally start getting errors if the service is stopped while they are still running. I know that ATL DLLs solve this problem by returning S_OK in DllCanUnloadNow() if CComModule's GetLockCount() returns 0. That is, it checks to make sure no one is currently using any COM objects served up by the DLL. I want equivalent functionality in the service. Here is what I've done in my override of CAtlServiceModuleT::OnStop(): void CMyServiceModule::OnStop() { if( GetLockCount() != 0 ) { return; } BaseClass::OnStop(); } Now, when the user attempts to Stop the service from the Services panel, they are presented with an error message: Windows could not stop the XYZ service on Local Computer. The service did not return an error. This could be an internal Windows error or an internal service error. If the problem persists, contact your system administrator. The Stop request is indeed refused, but it appears to put the service in a bad state. A second Stop request results in this error message: Windows could not stop the XYZ service on Local Computer. Error 1061: The service cannot accept control messages at this time. Interestingly, the service does actually stop this time (although I'd rather it not, since there are still outstanding COM references). I have two questions: Is it considered bad practice for a service to refuse to stop when asked? Is there a polite way to signify that the Stop request is being refused; one that doesn't put the Service into a bad state?

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• Excel VBA SQL Import

  - by user307655

  Hi All, I have the following code which imports data from a spreadsheet to SQL directly from Excel VBA. The code works great. However I am wondering if somebody can help me modify the code to: 1) Check if data from column A already exists in the SQL Table 2) If exists, then only update rather than import as a new role 3) if does not exist then import as a new role. Thanks again for your help Sub SQLIM() ' Send data to SQL Server ' This code loads data from an Excel Worksheet to an SQL Server Table ' Data should start in column A and should be in the same order as the server table ' Autonumber fields should NOT be included' ' FOR THIS CODE TO WORK ' In VBE you need to go Tools References and check Microsoft Active X Data Objects 2.x library Dim Cn As ADODB.Connection Dim ServerName As String Dim DatabaseName As String Dim TableName As String Dim UserID As String Dim Password As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim RowCounter As Long Dim ColCounter As Integer Dim NoOfFields As Integer Dim StartRow As Long Dim EndRow As Long Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ServerName = "WIN764X\sqlexpress" ' Enter your server name here DatabaseName = "two28it" ' Enter your database name here TableName = "COS" ' Enter your Table name here UserID = "" ' Enter your user ID here ' (Leave ID and Password blank if using windows Authentification") Password = "" ' Enter your password here NoOfFields = 7 ' Enter number of fields to update (eg. columns in your worksheet) StartRow = 2 ' Enter row in sheet to start reading records EndRow = shtSheetToWork.Cells(Rows.Count, 1).End(xlUp).Row ' Enter row of last record in sheet ' CHANGES ' Dim shtSheetToWork As Worksheet ' Set shtSheetToWork = ActiveWorkbook.Worksheets("Sheet1") '** Set Cn = New ADODB.Connection Cn.Open "Driver={SQL Server};Server=" & ServerName & ";Database=" & DatabaseName & _ ";Uid=" & UserID & ";Pwd=" & Password & ";" rs.Open TableName, Cn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic For RowCounter = StartRow To EndRow rs.AddNew For ColCounter = 1 To NoOfFields rs(ColCounter - 1) = shtSheetToWork.Cells(RowCounter, ColCounter) Next ColCounter Next RowCounter rs.UpdateBatch ' Tidy up rs.Close Set rs = Nothing Cn.Close Set Cn = Nothing End Sub

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• XmlHttpRequest in a bookmarklet returns empty responseText on GET?

  - by David Eyk

  I'm trying to build a javascript bookmarklet for a special URL shortening service we've built at http://esv.to for shortening scripture references (i.e. "Matthew 5" becomes "http://esv.to/Mt5". The bookmarklet is supposed to do a GET request to http://api.esv.to/Matthew+5, which returns a text/plain response of http://esv.to/Mt5. The code for the bookmarklet itself looks like this (expanded for readability): var body = document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0], script = document.createElement('script'); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = 'http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js'; body.appendChild(script); void(0); The code from http://esv.to/media/js/bookmarklet.js looks like this: (function() { function shorten(ref, callback) { var url = "http://esv.to/api/" + escape(ref); var req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.onreadystatechange = function shortenIt() { if ( this.readyState == 4 && this.status == 200 ) { callback(req.responseText); }; }; req.open( "GET", url ); req.send(); }; function doBookmarklet() { var ref = prompt("Enter a scripture reference or keyword search to link to:", "") shorten(ref, function (short) { prompt("Here is your shortened ESV URL:", short); }); }; doBookmarklet(); })(); When called from http://esv.to itself, the bookmarklet works correctly. But when used on another page, it does not. The strange thing is, when I watch the request from Firebug, the response is 200 OK, the browser downloads 17 bytes (the length of the returned string), but the response body is empty! No error is thrown, just an empty responseText on the XmlHttpRequest object. Now, according to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/664689/ajax-call-from-bookmarklet, GET shouldn't violate the same origin policy. Is this a bug? Is there a workaround?

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• How can I factor out repeated expressions in an SQL Query? Column aliases don't seem to be the ticke

  - by Weston C

  So, I've got a query that looks something like this: SELECT id, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00'),'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') >= '2010-04-25' AND CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') <= '2010-05-25' If you're like me, you probably start thinking that maybe it would improve readability and possibly the performance of this query if I wasn't asking it to compute CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') four separate times. So I try to create a column alias for that expression and replace further occurances with that alias: SELECT id, CONVERT_TZ(callTime,'+0:00','-7:00') as callTimeZoned, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%b %d %Y') as callDate, DATE_FORMAT(callTimeZoned,'%H:%i') as callTimeOfDay, SEC_TO_TIME(callLength) as callLength FROM cs_calldata WHERE customerCode='5999999-abc-blahblahblah' AND callTimeZoned >= '2010-04-25' AND callTimeZoned <= '2010-05-25' This is when I learned, to quote the MySQL manual: Standard SQL disallows references to column aliases in a WHERE clause. This restriction is imposed because when the WHERE clause is evaluated, the column value may not yet have been determined. So, that approach would seem to be dead in the water. How is someone writing queries with recurring expressions like this supposed to deal with it?

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• resource-ref at application scope in EJB 2.1 Project

  - by Mike Deck

  Is it possible to define resource references that are applicable to all EJBs in an application? Currently I have an ejb-jar.xml that looks something like this: <ejb-jar> <enterprise-beans> <session id="foo"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> <session id="bar"> <!-- snip --> <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/myDatasource</res-ref-name> <res-type>javax.sql.DataSource</res-type> <res-auth>Container</res-auth> </resource-ref> </session> </enterprise-beans> </ejb-jar> You'll notice that both EJBs have the same resource-ref defined for both of them. Is there a way to factor this duplication out within a J2EE 1.4 application? Ideally I should be able to define the jdbc/myDatasource resource once within the application and have anything running inside that container be able to access it by doing a JNDI lookup for "java:comp/env/jdbc/myDatasource". Is there any way to accomplish this?

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• asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

  - by ajitatif

  i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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• Microsoft JScript runtime error: '(function name)' is undefined

  - by Velika2

  Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'txtGivenName_OnFocus' is undefined After adding what I thought was unrelated javascript code to a web page, I am suddenly getting errors that suggest that the browser cannot locate a javascript function that, to me, appears plain as day in design mode. I'm thinking that this is a load sequence order problem of some sort. Originally, my script was at the bottom of the page. I did this with the intent of helping my site's SEO ranking. When I moved the function to the top of the web page, the error went away. Now it is back. I have a feeling someone is going to suggest a jQuery solution to execute some code only when the page is fully loaded. I'm I ignorant of jQuery. IfjQuery is given in the answer, please explain what I need to do (references, placement of script files) for VS 2010 RTM. I am trying to set the focus to the first textbox on the webpage and preselect all of the text in the textbox More info: If I disable this Validator, the problem goes away: <asp:CustomValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ErrorMessage="Required" ClientValidationFunction="txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate" Display="Dynamic" Enabled="False"></asp:CustomValidator> function txtSpecifyOccupation_ClientValidate(source, args) { var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%=optOccupationRetired.ClientID %>"); if (optOccupationRetired.checked) { args.IsValid = true; } else { var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%=txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientID %>"); args.IsValid = ValidatorTrim(txtSpecifyOccupation.value) != ""; } }

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• Is there a disassembler + debugger for java (ala OllyDbg / SoftICE for assembler)?

  - by Ran Biron

  Is there a utility similar to OllyDbg / SoftICE for java? I.e. execute class (from jar / with class path) and, without source code, show the disassembly of the intermediate code with ability to step through / step over / search for references / edit specific intermediate code in memory / apply edit to file... If not, is it even possible to write something like this (assuming we're willing to live without hotspot for the debug duration)? Edit: I'm not talking about JAD or JD or Cavaj. These are fine decompilers, but I don't want a decompiler for several reasons, most notable is that their output is incorrect (at best, sometimes just plain wrong). I'm not looking for a magical "compiled bytes to java code" - I want to see the actual bytes that are about to be executed. Also, I'd like the ability to change those bytes (just like in an assembly debugger) and, hopefully, write the changed part back to the class file. Edit2: I know javap exists - but it does only one way (and without any sort of analysis). Example (code taken from the vmspec documentation): From java code, we use "javac" to compile this: void setIt(int value) { i = value; } int getIt() { return i; } to a java .class file. Using javap -c I can get this output: Method void setIt(int) 0 aload_0 1 iload_1 2 putfield #4 5 return Method int getIt() 0 aload_0 1 getfield #4 4 ireturn This is OK for the disassembly part (not really good without analysis - "field #4 is Example.i"), but I can't find the two other "tools": A debugger that goes over the instructions themselves (with stack, memory dumps, etc), allowing me to examine the actual code and environment. A way to reverse the process - edit the disassembled code and recreate the .class file (with the edited code).

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• Publish failed using Ant publisher (Eclipse/datanucleus).

  - by aronp

  Dear All, I am being driven mad the following (apparently hard) error from eclipse. Publish failed using Ant publisher Resource is out of sync with the file system: '/MyServlet/build/classes/com/inver/hotzones/database/BaseNetworkData.class'. I have seen comments on similar errors where refreshing eclipses view of the project helps but it is not helping me. Have tried cleaning the project, removing it from the webserver, deleting war files but cant seem to clear it. I have reset my TMPDIR variable so that it uses a directory on the same filesystem as that appeared to be another possible cause. The error occurs on classes which have been enhanced by datanuculeus. I have auto-enhance on the project. The other references to this problem indicate that it is due to Eclipses view of the project being out of step with the filesystem, and I am guessing that this has something to do with thedata nucleus enhancement. Any ideas? Thanks. I am using Eclipse 3.5.2 with latest datanucleus pluggins. Stack trace org.eclipse.core.runtime.CoreException: Resource is out of sync with the file system: '/MyServlet/build/classes/com/inver/hotzones/database/BaseNetworkData.class'. at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AbstractModuleAssembler.copyModule(AbstractModuleAssembler.java:172) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.WarModuleAssembler.assemble(WarModuleAssembler.java:31) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.assembleModule(AntPublisher.java:167) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.publish(AntPublisher.java:128) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.GenericServerBehaviour.publishModule(GenericServerBehaviour.java:82) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModule(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:949) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModules(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:1039) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publish(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:872) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publish(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:708) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server.publishImpl(Server.java:2731) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server$PublishJob.run(Server.java:278) at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55)

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• Writing fortran robust and "modern" code

  - by Blklight

  In some scientific environments, you often cannot go without FORTRAN as most of the developers only know that idiom, and there is lot of legacy code and related experience. And frankly, there are not many other cross-platform options for high performance programming ( C++ would do the task, but the syntax, zero-starting arrays, and pointers are too much for most engineers ;-) ). I'm a C++ guy but I'm stuck with some F90 projects. So, let's assume a new project must use FORTRAN (F90), but I want to build the most modern software architecture out of it. while being compatible with most "recent" compilers (intel ifort, but also including sun/HP/IBM own compilers) So I'm thinking of imposing: global variable forbidden, no gotos, no jump labels, "implicit none", etc. "object-oriented programming" (modules with datatypes + related subroutines) modular/reusable functions, well documented, reusable libraries assertions/preconditions/invariants (implemented using preprocessor statements) unit tests for all (most) subroutines and "objects" an intense "debug mode" (#ifdef DEBUG) with more checks and all possible Intel compiler checks possible (array bounds, subroutine interfaces, etc.) uniform and enforced legible coding style, using code processing tools C stubs/wrappers for libpthread, libDL (and eventually GPU kernels, etc.) C/C++ implementation of utility functions (strings, file operations, sockets, memory alloc/dealloc reference counting for debug mode, etc.) ( This may all seem "evident" modern programming assumptions, but in a legacy fortran world, most of these are big changes in the typical programmer workflow ) The goal with all that is to have trustworthy, maintainable and modular code. Whereas, in typical fortran, modularity is often not a primary goal, and code is trustworthy only if the original developer was very clever, and the code was not changed since then ! (i'm a bit joking here, but not much) I searched around for references about object-oriented fortran, programming-by-contract (assertions/preconditions/etc.), and found only ugly and outdated documents, syntaxes and papers done by people with no large-scale project involvement, and dead projects. Any good URL, advice, reference paper/books on the subject?

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• MonoRail ActiveRecord - The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE

  - by Justin

  Hey all, I'm new to MonoRail and ActiveRecord and have inherited an application that I need to modify. I have a Category table (Id, Name) and I'm adding a ParentId FK which references the Id in the same table so that you can have parent/child category relationships. I tried adding this to my Category model class: [Property] public int ParentId { get; set; } I also tried doing it this way: [BelongsTo("ParentId")] public Category Parent { get; set; } When I call a method to get all parent categories (they have a null ParentId), it works fine: public static Category[] GetParentCategories() { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", null)); } However, when I call a method to get all child categories within a specific category, it errors out: public static Category[] GetChildCategories(int parentId) { var criteria = DetachedCriteria.For<Core.Models.Category>(); return (FindAllByProperty("ParentId", parentId)); } The error is: "The UPDATE statement conflicted with the FOREIGN KEY SAME TABLE constraint \"FK_Category_ParentId\". The conflict occurred in database \"UCampus\", table \"dbo.Category\", column 'Id'.\r\nThe statement has been terminated." I'm hard-coding in the parentId parameter as 1 and I'm 100% sure it exists as an id in the Category table so I don't know why it'd give this error. Also, I'm doing a select, not an update, so what is going on here?? Thanks for any input on this, Justin

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• How to nest shapes in a DSL Tools diagram?

  - by Paul Lalonde

  I have a DSL containing two main domain classes: Area and Entity. Areas are represented visually by a GeometryShape, whereas entities are represented by a CompartmentShape. Entities can be embedded in an Area, or not (in this case they are embedded in the root object, which is a kind of Area). There may be relationships between entities, including between entities in different areas. Areas cannot be embedded inside of other areas, nor entities embedded inside of other entities. My problem is that I cannot get the behavior I want from the diagram. The embedding of entities in areas works perfectly well at the model level, but the visual representation behaves erratically. For example, if I drag an entity that was created in an area outside of that area, it no longer responds to mouse clicks (I have code that performs the re-parenting, but somehow the diagram side of things is broken). I have searched high and low for samples of how to do this, and come up empty. Every example I've found on the web simulates nesting via "references" relationships, whereas I am performing true embedding of the domain classes (and therefore of their associated shape classes). Does anyone have an example of how to do this? While I'm venting, am I the only one who thinks the diagram/shape classes are massively under-documented?

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• Unidentifiable Vim Keymap

  - by asdf.qwer

  Hi I'm trying to get rid of a pesky keymapping in vim, namely \c The mapping is only loaded for latex files, so it should be related to the latex-suite. It's annoying, because it can't type \cite without this keymap ruining everything. I can unmap it "manually" by typing: :unmap! \c But this doesn't work when I put that into my ~/.vimrc file because it says there's no such keymap. I think this is because the keymap is loaded after .vimrc, although I'm not sure. I've tried locate in bash to locate all files on my system that start have "vim" in their filename, and subsequently grep keyword $filename to find all references to keyword that should be relevant. The keyword I search for is "Traditional" because that's what the mapping is called (that's what I find by typing :map! in vim normal mode). It finds some entries that contain "Traditional" but nothing that corresponds to \c, except in the file: ~/.gnome2/gvim-sA9LOO-session.vim But this file is not used by vim when starting up, as far as I know. Anyone know any fix?

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