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  • Rotating an Image in Silverlight without cropping

    - by Tim Saunders
    I am currently working on a simple Silverlight app that will allow people to upload an image, crop, resize and rotate it and then load it via a webservice to a CMS. Cropping and resizing is done, however rotation is causing some problems. The image gets cropped and is off centre after the rotation. WriteableBitmap wb = new WriteableBitmap(destWidth, destHeight); RotateTransform rt = new RotateTransform(); rt.Angle = 90; rt.CenterX = width/2; rt.CenterY = height/2; //Draw to the Writeable Bitmap Image tempImage2 = new Image(); tempImage2.Width = width; tempImage2.Height = height; tempImage2.Source = rawImage; wb.Render(tempImage2,rt); wb.Invalidate(); rawImage = wb; message.Text = "h:" + rawImage.PixelHeight.ToString(); message.Text += ":w:" + rawImage.PixelWidth.ToString(); //Finally set the Image back MyImage.Source = wb; MyImage.Width = destWidth; MyImage.Height = destHeight; The code above only needs to rotate by 90° at this time so I'm just setting destWidth and destHeight to the height and width of the original image.

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  • How can you replace the src of an image that points to mjpeg?

    - by user165623
    I have an application that displays images from network cameras. The application will show multiple images on a single page. Each image container has a button on it that causes jQuery to scale that image up to fill a 64x480 div vs much smaller when multiple images are present. I change the src in the image with jquery as you'd expect: $("#imageId").attr("src", "http://cameraUrl.com:6000?width=640&height=480&d="+date.getTime()); the date.getTime() is intended to override the caching in a browser. It works for retrieving still images. Sometimes the video changes to the larger resolution. Other times it just sticks with the original image scaled up to fit the larger div as if it is not loading the new URL. This is evident by the fact it's grainy and the text overlay from the camera is scaled up. Occasionally the image finally loads in the higher resolution version and it works evidenced by the image clarity and the text overlay scaling to what it should be. Is there a correct way to force the setting of an image src where the src points to a motion jpeg stream to reload?

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  • Remove file from git repository (history)

    - by Devenv
    (solved, see bottom of the question body) Looking for this for a long time now, what I have till now is: http://dound.com/2009/04/git-forever-remove-files-or-folders-from-history/ and http://progit.org/book/ch9-7.html Pretty much the same method, but both of them leave objects in pack files... Stuck. What I tried: git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_name' rm -Rf .git/refs/original rm -Rf .git/logs/ git gc Still have files in the pack, and this is how I know it: git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/pack-3f8c0...bb.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -3 And this: git filter-branch --index-filter "git rm -rf --cached --ignore-unmatch file_name" HEAD rm -rf .git/refs/original/ && git reflog expire --all && git gc --aggressive --prune The same... Tried git clone trick, it removed some of the files (~3000 of them) but the largest files are still there... I have some large legacy files in the repository, ~200M, and I really don't want them there... And I don't want to reset the repository to 0 :( SOLUTION: This is the shortest way to get rid of the files: check .git/packed-refs - my problem was that I had there a refs/remotes/origin/master line for a remote repository, delete it, otherwise git won't remove those files (optional) git verify-pack -v .git/objects/pack/#{pack-name}.idx | sort -k 3 -n | tail -5 - to check for the largest files (optional) git rev-list --objects --all | grep a0d770a97ff0fac0be1d777b32cc67fe69eb9a98 - to check what files those are git filter-branch --index-filter 'git rm --cached --ignore-unmatch file_names' - to remove the file from all revisions rm -rf .git/refs/original/ - to remove git's backup git reflog expire --all --expire='0 days' - to expire all the loose objects (optional) git fsck --full --unreachable - to check if there are any loose objects git repack -A -d - repacking the pack git prune - to finally remove those objects

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  • Singletons, thread safety and structuremap

    - by Ben
    Hi, Currently I have the following class: public class PluginManager { private static bool s_initialized; private static object s_lock = new object(); public static void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { lock (s_lock) { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } } } The important thing here is that Initialize() should only be executed once whilst the application is running. I thought that I would refactor this into a singleton class since this would be more thread safe?: public sealed class PluginService { static PluginService() { } private static PluginService _instance = new PluginService(); public static PluginService Instance { get { return _instance; } } private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } Question one, is it still necessary to have the lock here (I have removed it) since we will only ever be working on the same instance? Finally, I want to use DI and structure map to initialize my servcices so I have refactored as below: public interface IPluginService { void Initialize(); } public class NewPluginService : IPluginService { private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } And in my registry: ForRequestedType<IPluginService>() .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<NewPluginService>().AsSingletons(); This works as expected (singleton returning true in the following code): var instance1 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); var instance2 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); bool singleton = (instance1 == instance2); So my next question, is the structure map solution as thread safe as the singleton class (second example). The only downside is that this would still allow NewPluginService to be instantiated directly (if not using structure map). Many thanks, Ben

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  • How to configure properly IntelliJ IDEA for deployment of JBoss Seam project?

    - by Piotr Kochanski
    I would like to use IntelliJ IDEA for development of JBoss Seam project. seam-gen is creating the project stub, however the stub is not complete. In particular it is not clear how to deploy such project. First of all I had to define manually web project facelet and add libraries to its deployment definition. The other problem was persistence.xml file. In the Seam generated project it does not exists, since Ant is using one of the persistence-dev.xml, persistence-prod.xml, persistence-test.xml files, changing its name, depending on deployment type (which is ok). Obviously I can create persistence.xml by hand, but it goes againts Seam way of development. Finally I decided to use directly ant, which is not partucularly comfortable. All these tweaks made me think that I am doing something wrong from the IntelliJ IDEA point of view. What is the efficient way of configuring IntelliJ for usage with JBoss Seam (deployment, in particular)? I am using JBoss Seam 2.1.1, Intellij 8.1.4, JBoss 4.3.3

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  • WCF timeout exception on calling service on 11th time

    - by Sergej Andrejev
    I'm creating a WCF service and stumbled with request timeout problem. When I load test the service the 11th call always fails with "System.Net.WebException: The operation has timed out". I have read that would happen if serviceThrotling is set to defaults so I added following lines to my service configuration file <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <!-- ... --> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="100" maxConcurrentSessions="100" maxConcurrentInstances="100" /> </behavior> But this doesn't help. I thought that closing the proxy might be a problem, but I do close all proxies. try { response = service.GetCustomerHdQuotes(request); } finally { try { if (service.State != CommunicationState.Faulted) service.Close(); else service.Abort(); // Abort if the State is Faulted. } catch (Exception) { service.Abort(); } } I also have an idea that inside service some resources pile up preventing service to accept new connections, but the fact that this is always 11th request points that this is more likely due to some configuration problems. Can anybody help me with that?

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  • How to upload images from iPhone app developed using Titanium

    - by Karthik.K
    Hi, I finally landed up in developing an iPhone app using Titanium Mobile. Now the problem I face is, Im able to run the app, and the app also sends the image to the server. But Im not able to see the file that got uploaded to the server. I have pasted the iPhone app's code to send image to the server and also, the PHP file that would receive the file from the app. var win = Titanium.UI.currentWindow; var ind=Titanium.UI.createProgressBar({ width:200, height:50, min:0, max:1, value:0, style:Titanium.UI.iPhone.ProgressBarStyle.PLAIN, top:10, message:'Uploading Image', font:{fontSize:12, fontWeight:'bold'}, color:'#888' }); win.add(ind); ind.show(); Titanium.Media.openPhotoGallery({ success:function(event) { Ti.API.info("success! event: " + JSON.stringify(event)); var image = event.media; var xhr = Titanium.Network.createHTTPClient(); xhr.onerror = function(e) { Ti.API.info('IN ERROR ' + e.error); }; xhr.onload = function() { Ti.API.info('IN ONLOAD ' + this.status + ' readyState ' + this.readyState); }; xhr.onsendstream = function(e) { ind.value = e.progress ; Ti.API.info('ONSENDSTREAM - PROGRESS: ' + e.progress+' '+this.status+' '+this.readyState); }; // open the client xhr.open('POST','http://www.myserver.com/tmp/upload2.php'); xhr.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); // send the data xhr.send({media:image}); }, cancel:function() { }, error:function(error) { }, allowImageEditing:true }); And here is the PHP code on the server: http://www.pastie.org/891050 I'm not sure where I'm going wrong. Please help me out in this issue. Would love to provide if you need some more information.

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  • Symfony forms question (restoring selected value of a dynamically populated sfWidgetFormSelect widge

    - by Stick it to THE MAN
    I am using Symfony 1.3.2 with Propel ORM on Ubuntu 9.10. I have developed a form that dynamically populates a select widget with cities in a selected country, using AJAX. Before the data entered on the form is saved, I validate the form. If validation fails, the form is presented back to the user for correction. However, because the country list is dynamically generated, the form that is presented for correction does not have a valid city selected (it is empty, since the country widget has not changed yet). This is inconvenient for the user, because it means they have to select ANOTHER country (so the change event is fired), and then change back to the original country they selected, then FINALLY select the city which they had last selected. All of this is forced on the user because another (possibly unrelated) field did not vaildate. I tried $form-getValue('widget_name'), called immediately after $form-bind(), but it seems (infact, IIRC, if form fails to validate, all the values are reset to null) - so that does not work. I am currently trying a nasty hack which involves the use of directly accesing the input (i.e. tainted) data via $_POST, and setting them into a flash variable - but I feel its a very nasty hack) What I'm trying to do is a common use case scenario - is there a better way to do this, than hacking around with $_POST etc?

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  • .NET COM Interop on Windows 7 64Bit gives me a headache

    - by Kevin Stumpf
    Hey guys, .NET COM interop so far always has been working quite nicely. Since I upgraded to Windows 7 I don't get my .NET COM objects to work anymore. My COM object is as easy as: namespace Crap { [ComVisible(true)] [Guid("2134685b-6e22-49ef-a046-74e187ed0d21")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class MyClass : IMyClass { public MyClass() {} public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("Finally got in here."); } } } namespace Crap { [Guid("1234685b-6e22-49ef-a046-74e187ed0d21")] public interface IMyClass { } } assembly is marked ComVisible as well. I register the assembly using regasm /codebase /tlb "path" registers successfully (admin mode). I tried regasm 32 and 64bit. Both time I get the error "ActiveX component cant create object Crap.MyClass" using this vbscript: dim objReg Set objReg = CreateObject("Crap.MyClass") MsgBox typename(objReg) fuslogvw doesn't give me any hints either. That COM object works perfectly on my Vista 32 Bit machine. I don't understand why I haven't been able to google a solution for that problem.. am I really the only person that ever got into that problem? Looking at OleView I see my object is registered successfully. I am able to create other COM objects as well.. it only does not work with my own ones. Thank you, Kevin

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  • Friend Assemblies in C#

    - by Tim Long
    I'm trying to create some 'friend assemblies' using the [InternalsVisibleTo()] attribute, but I can't seem to get it working. I've followed Microsoft's instructions for creating signed friend assemblies and I can't see where I'm going wrong. So I'll detail my steps here and hopefully someone can spot my deliberate mistake...? Create a strong name key and extract the public key, thus: sn -k StrongNameKey sn -p public.pk sn -tp public.pk Add the strong name key to each project and enable signing. Create a project called Internals and a class with an internal property: namespace Internals { internal class ClassWithInternals { internal string Message { get; set; } public ClassWithInternals(string m) { Message = m; } } } Create another project called TestInternalsVisibleTo: namespace TestInternalsVisibleTo { static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { var c = new Internals.ClassWithInternals("Test"); Console.WriteLine(c.Message); } } } Edit the AssemblyInfo.cs file for the Internals project, and add teh necessary attribute: [assembly: AssemblyTitle("AssemblyWithInternals")] [assembly: AssemblyDescription("")] [assembly: AssemblyConfiguration("")] [assembly: AssemblyCompany("Microsoft")] [assembly: AssemblyProduct("Internals")] [assembly: AssemblyCopyright("Copyright © Microsoft 2010")] [assembly: AssemblyTrademark("")] [assembly: AssemblyCulture("")] [assembly: ComVisible(false)] [assembly: Guid("41c590dc-f555-48bc-8a94-10c0e7adfd9b")] [assembly: AssemblyVersion("1.0.0.0")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("1.0.0.0")] [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("TestInternalsVisibleTo PublicKey=002400000480000094000000060200000024000052534131000400000100010087953126637ab27cb375fa917c35b23502c2994bb860cc2582d39912b73740d6b56912c169e4a702bedb471a859a33acbc8b79e1f103667e5075ad17dffda58988ceaf764613bd56fc8f909f43a1b177172bc4143c96cf987274873626abb650550977dcad1bb9bfa255056bb8d0a2ec5d35d6f8cb0a6065ec0639550c2334b9")] And finally... build! I get the following errors: error CS0122: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' is inaccessible due to its protection level error CS1729: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' does not contain a constructor that takes 1 arguments error CS1061: 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' does not contain a definition for 'Message' and no extension method 'Message' accepting a first argument of type 'Internals.ClassWithInternals' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Basically, it's as if I had not used the InternalsVisibleTo attrbute. Now, I'm not going to fall into the trap of blaming the tools, so what's up here? Anyone?

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  • How to access Actionscript from Javascript in Adobe AIR

    - by David Robinson
    I have an AIR application written in html/javascript and I want to use the Actionscript print functions but I have no experience in Actionscript for AIR. Where do I put the Actionscript code ? Does it go into an mxml file or does it need to be compiled into a Flash application. Where do I put it and how do I include it into the html document ? Finally, how do I call the AS function from Javascript ? =====update===== I know I have to compile either an .mxml or .as file into .swf using mxmlc and I have the following in my .as file: package { import mx.controls.Alert; public class HelloWorld { public function HelloWorld():void { trace("Hello, world!"); } } } Or alternately, this in a .mxml file: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.Alert; public function HelloWorld():void { Alert.show("hello world!"); trace("Hello, world!"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> This compiles OK, but when I include it in a html file with: <script src="actionscript.swf" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></script> I get the following error: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. at mx.managers::FocusManager/activate() at mx.managers::SystemManager/activateForm() at mx.managers::SystemManager/activate() at mx.core::Application/initManagers() at mx.core::Application/initialize() at actionscript/initialize() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::childAdded() at mx.managers::SystemManager/initializeTopLevelWindow() at mx.managers::SystemManager/http://www.adobe.com/2006/flex/mx/internal::docFrameHandler() at mx.managers::SystemManager/docFrameListener() Any ideas what that means ?

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  • How to find first non-repetitive character from a string?

    - by masato-san
    I've spent half day trying to figure out this and finally I got working solution. However, I feel like this can be done in simpler way. I think this code is not really readable. Problem: Find first non-repetitive character from a string. $string = "abbcabz" In this case, the function should output "c". The reason I use concatenation instead of $input[index_to_remove] = '' in order to remove character from a given string is because if I do that, it actually just leave empty cell so that my return value $input[0] does not not return the character I want to return. For instance, $str = "abc"; $str[0] = ''; echo $str; This will output "bc" But actually if I test, var_dump($str); it will give me: string(3) "bc" Here is my intention: Given: input while first char exists in substring of input { get index_to_remove input = chars left of index_to_remove . chars right of index_to_remove if dupe of first char is not found from substring remove first char from input } return first char of input Code: function find_first_non_repetitive2($input) { while(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) !== false) { $index_to_remove = strpos(substr($input,1), $input[0]) + 1; $input = substr($input, 0, $index_to_remove) . substr($input, $index_to_remove + 1); if(strpos(substr($input, 1), $input[0]) == false) { $input = substr($input, 1); } } return $input[0]; }

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  • Python - Help with multiprocessing / threading basics.

    - by orokusaki
    I haven't ever used multi-threading, and I decided to learn it today. I was reluctant to ever use it before, but when I tried it out it seemed way to easy, which makes me wary. Are there any gotchas in my code, or is it really that simple? import uuid import time import multiprocessing def sleep_then_write(content): time.sleep(5) f = open(unicode(uuid.uuid4()), 'w') f.write(content) f.close() if __name__ == '__main__': for i in range(3): p = multiprocessing.Process(target=sleep_then_write, args=('Hello World',)) p.start() My primary purpose of using threading would be to offload multiple images to S3 after re-sizing them, all at the same time. Is that a reasonable task for Python's multiprocessing? I've read a lot about certain types of tasks not really getting any gain from using threading in Python due to the GIL, but it seems that multiprocessing completely removes that worry, yes? I can imagine a case where 50 users hit the system and it spawns 150 Python interpreters. I can also imagine that wouldn't be good on a production server. How can something like that be avoided? Finally (but most important): How can I return control back to the caller of the new processes? I need to be able to continue with returning an HTTP response and content back to the user and then have the processes continue doing there work after the user of my website is done with the transaction.

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  • LoginView inside FormView control is not databinding on PostBack

    - by subkamran
    I have a fairly simple form: <asp:FormView> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:LoginView> <RoleGroups> <asp:RoleGroup roles="Blah"> <ContentTemplate> <!-- Databound Controls using Bind/Eval --> </ContentTemplate> </asp:RoleGroup> </RoleGroups> </asp:LoginView> <!-- Databound Controls --> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:LinqDataSource OnUpdating="MyDataSource_Updating" /> I handle my LinqDataSource OnUpdating event and do some work handling some M:N fields. That all works. However, once the update is finished (and I call e.Cancel = true), the LoginView control does not databind its children... so they are all blank. The FormView's viewstate is still fine, as all the rest of the controls outside of the LoginView appear fine. I even handle the FormView_DataBound event and a Trace shows that the FormView is being databound on postback. Why then is the LoginView not keeping its ViewState/being databound? Here's a sample code snippet showing the flow: protected void MyDataSource_Updating(object s, LinqDataSourceUpdateEventArgs e) { try { Controller.DoSomething(newData); // attempts to databind again here fail // frmView.DataBind(); // MyDataSource.DataBind(); // LoginView.DataBind(); } catch { // blah } finally { e.Cancel = true; } }

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  • UINavigationController crash because of pushing and poping UIViewControllers

    - by Wayne Lo
    My question is related to my discovery of a reason for UINavigationController to crash. So I will tell you about the discovery first. Please bare with me. The issue: I have a UINavigationController as as subview of UIWindow, a rootViewController class and a custom MyViewController class. The following steps will get a Exc_Bad_Access, 100% reproducible.: [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_1stInstance animated:YES]; [myNaviationController pushViewController:myViewController_2ndInstance animated:YES]; Hit the left back tapBarItem twice (pop out two of the myViewController instances) to show the rootViewController. After a painful 1/2 day of try and error, I finally figure out the answer but also raise a question. The Solutio: I declared many objects in the .m file as a lazy way of declaring private variables to avoid cluttering the .h file. For instance, #impoart "MyViewController.h" NSMutableString*variable1; @implement ... -(id)init { ... varialbe1=[[NSMutableString alloc] init]; ... } -(void)dealloc { [variable1 release]; } For some reasons, the iphone OS may loose track of these "lazy private" variables memory allocation when myViewController_1stInstance's view is unloaded (but still in the navigation controller's stacks) after loading the view of myViewController_2ndInstance. The first time to tap the back tapBarItem is ok since myViewController_2ndInstance'view is still loaded. But the 2nd tap on the back tapBarItem gave me hell because it tried to dealloc the 2nd instance. Executing [variable release] resulted in Exc_Bad_Access because it pointed randomly (loose pointer). To fix this problem is simple, declare variable1 as a @private in the .h file. Here is my Question: I have been using the "lazy private" variables for quite some time without any issues until they are involved in UINavigationController. Is this a bug in iPhone OS? Or there is a fundamental misunderstanding on my part about Objective C? Please help.

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  • HttpServletRequest#login() not working in Java.

    - by Nitesh Panchal
    Hello, j_security_check just doesn't seem enough for me to perform login process. So, instead of submitting the form to j_security_check i created my own servlet and in that i am programmatically trying to do login. This works but i am not able to redirect to my restricted resource. Can anybody tell me what can be the problem? This is processRequest method of my servlet :- protected void processRequest(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { response.setContentType("text/html;charset=UTF-8"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); try { String strUsername = request.getParameter("txtusername"); String strPassword = request.getParameter("txtpassword"); if(strUsername == null || strPassword == null || strUsername.equals("") || strPassword.equals("")) throw new Exception("Username and/or password missing."); request.login(strUsername, strPassword); System.out.println("Login succeeded!!"); if(request.isUserInRole(ROLES.ADMIN.getValue())){//enum System.out.println("Found in Admin Role"); response.sendRedirect("/Admin/home.jsf"); } else if (request.isUserInRole(ROLES.GENERAL.getValue())) response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); else //guard throw new Exception("No role for user " + request.getRemoteUser()); }catch(Exception ex){ //patch work why there needs to be blogger here? System.out.println("Invalid username and/or password!!"); response.sendRedirect("/Common/index.jsf"); }finally { out.close(); } } Everything works fine and i can even see message "Found in Admin Role" but problem is even after authenticating i am not able to redirect my request to some other page. Please help geeks.

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  • C++/CLI managed thread cleanup

    - by Guillermo Prandi
    Hi. I'm writing a managed C++/CLI library wrapper for the MySQL embedded server. The mysql C library requires me to call mysql_thread_init() for every thread that will be using it, and mysql_thread_end() for each thread that exits after using it. Debugging any given VB.Net project I can see at least seven threads; I suppose my library will see only one thread if VB doesn't explicitly create worker threads itself (any confirmations on that?). However, I need clients to my library to be able to create worker threads if they need to, so my library must be thread-aware to some degree. The first option I could think of is to expose some "EnterThread()" and "LeaveThread()" methods in my class, so the client code will explicitly call them at the beginning and before exiting their DoWork() method. This should work if (1) .Net doesn't "magically" create threads the user isn't aware of and (2) the user is careful enough to have the methods called in a try/finally structure of some sort. However, I don't like it very much to have the user handle things manually like that, and I wonder if I could give her a hand on that matter. In a pure Win32 C/C++ DLL I do have the DllMain DLL_THREAD_ATTACH and DLL_THREAD_DETACH pseudo-events, and I could use them for calling mysql_thread_init() and mysql_thread_end() as needed, but there seem to be no such thing in C++/CLI managed code. At the expense of some performance (not much, I think) I can use TLS for detecting the "usage from a new thread" case, but I can imagine no mechanism for the thread exiting case. So, my questions are: (1) could .net create application threads without the user being aware of them? and (2) is there any mechanism I could use similar to DLL_THREAD_ATTACH / DLL_THREAD_DETACH from managed C++/CLI? Thanks in advance.

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  • Get contact name from just the number

    - by user1190019
    Say i have an edit text and a button. In the edit text you would type a number and then when you hit the button it will either show the contact information or return with the name of that contact. I have tried all sorts of methods provided with no luck. The one i have successfully gotten the furthest with was the following... But i had no luck returning the name. Cursor phoneCursor = null; contactList = new HashMap<String,String>(); try{ Uri uContactsUri = ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.CONTENT_URI; String strProjection = ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.DISPLAY_NAME; phoneCursor = getContentResolver().query(uContactsUri, null, null, null, strProjection); phoneCursor.moveToFirst(); String name = ""; String phoneNumber = ""; int nameColumn = phoneCursor.getColumnIndex(Phone.DISPLAY_NAME); int phoneColumn = phoneCursor.getColumnIndex(Phone.NUMBER); phoneCursor.moveToNext(); } } catch(Exception e){ Log.e("[SmsMain] getContactData", e.toString()); } finally{ if(phoneCursor != null){ phoneCursor.close(); phoneCursor = null; } } }

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  • Facebooker Causing Problems with Rails Integration Testing

    - by Eric Lubow
    I am (finally) attempting to write some integration tests for my application (because every deploy is getting scarier). Since testing is a horribly documented feature of Rails, this was the best I could get going with shoulda. class DeleteBusinessTest < ActionController::IntegrationTest context "log skydiver in and" do setup do @skydiver = Factory( :skydiver ) @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.create(@skydiver) @biz = Factory( :business, :ownership = Factory(:ownership, :skydiver = @skydiver )) end context "delete business" do setup do @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.find post '/businesses/destroy', :id = @biz.id end should_redirect_to('businesses_path()'){businesses_path()} end end end In theory, this test seems like it should pass. My factories seem like they are pushing the right data in: Factory.define :skydiver do |s| s.sequence(:login) { |n| "test#{n}" } s.sequence(:email) { |n| "test#{n}@example.com" } s.crypted_password '1805986f044ced38691118acfb26a6d6d49be0d0' s.password 'secret' s.password_confirmation { |u| u.password } s.salt 'aowgeUne1R4-F6FFC1ad' s.firstname 'Test' s.lastname 'Salt' s.nickname 'Mr. Password Testy' s.facebook_user_id '507743444' end The problem I am getting seems to be from Facebooker only seems to happen on login attempts. When the test runs, I am getting the error: The error occurred while evaluating nil.set_facebook_session. I believe that error is to be expected in a certain sense since I am not using Facebook here for this session. Can anyone provide any insight as to how to either get around this or at least help me out with what is going wrong?

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  • SMO restore of SQL database doesn't overwrite

    - by Tom H.
    I'm trying to restore a database from a backup file using SMO. If the database does not already exist then it works fine. However, if the database already exists then I get no errors, but the database is not overwritten. The "restore" process still takes just as long, so it looks like it's working and doing a restore, but in the end the database has not changed. I'm doing this in Powershell using SMO. The code is a bit long, but I've included it below. You'll notice that I do set $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true. Also, I use a try-catch block and report on any errors (I hope), but none are returned. Any obvious mistakes? Is it possible that I'm not reporting some error and it's being hidden from me? Thanks for any help or advice that you can give! function Invoke-SqlRestore { param( [string]$backup_file_name, [string]$server_name, [string]$database_name, [switch]$norecovery=$false ) # Get a new connection to the server [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Server]$server = New-SMOconnection -server_name $server_name Write-Host "Starting restore to $database_name on $server_name." Try { $backup_device = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.BackupDeviceItem") ($backup_file_name, "File") # Get local paths to the Database and Log file locations If ($server.Settings.DefaultFile.Length -eq 0) {$database_path = $server.Information.MasterDBPath } Else { $database_path = $server.Settings.DefaultFile} If ($server.Settings.DefaultLog.Length -eq 0 ) {$database_log_path = $server.Information.MasterDBLogPath } Else { $database_log_path = $server.Settings.DefaultLog} # Load up the Restore object settings $restore = New-Object Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.Restore $restore.Action = 'Database' $restore.Database = $database_name $restore.ReplaceDatabase = $true if ($norecovery.IsPresent) { $restore.NoRecovery = $true } Else { $restore.Norecovery = $false } $restore.Devices.Add($backup_device) # Get information from the backup file $restore_details = $restore.ReadBackupHeader($server) $data_files = $restore.ReadFileList($server) # Restore all backup files ForEach ($data_row in $data_files) { $logical_name = $data_row.LogicalName $physical_name = Get-FileName -path $data_row.PhysicalName $restore_data = New-Object("Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RelocateFile") $restore_data.LogicalFileName = $logical_name if ($data_row.Type -eq "D") { # Restore Data file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_path + "\" + $physical_name } Else { # Restore Log file $restore_data.PhysicalFileName = $database_log_path + "\" + $physical_name } [Void]$restore.RelocateFiles.Add($restore_data) } $restore.SqlRestore($server) # If there are two files, assume the next is a Log if ($restore_details.Rows.Count -gt 1) { $restore.Action = [Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo.RestoreActionType]::Log $restore.FileNumber = 2 $restore.SqlRestore($server) } } Catch { $ex = $_.Exception Write-Output $ex.message $ex = $ex.InnerException while ($ex.InnerException) { Write-Output $ex.InnerException.message $ex = $ex.InnerException } Throw $ex } Finally { $server.ConnectionContext.Disconnect() } Write-Host "Restore ended without any errors." }

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  • socket problem with MySQL

    - by Hristo
    This is a recent problem... MySQL was working and a couple of days ago I must have done something. I deleted MySQL and tried reinstalling using the .dmg file. The mysql.sock file never gets created and I get the following error messages: Hristo$ mysql Enter password: ERROR 2002 (HY000): Can't connect to local MySQL server through socket '/var/mysql/mysql.sock' (2) I also tried stopping Apache and installing but Apache gave me an error... I don't know if this is good or bad: Hristo$ sudo apachectl stop launchctl: Error unloading: org.apache.httpd I tried the MacPorts installation as well but the socket file still didn't get created. I don't really know what to do and I don't want to reinstall Snow Leopard and start from scratch :/ I also tried installing the 32-bit version and same deal. No luck. Finally... I tried doing the source installation but when I get to the configuration step, I get the following error: -bash: ./configure: No such file or directory The file is "mysql-5.1.47-osx10.6-x86_64.tar.gz" so I think it is the proper file for source installation and yes I have a 64 bit system. I don't know what to do anymore. Any ideas? Thanks, Hristo

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  • Is this error caused by a 64-bit library being accessed by a Java program running in a 32-bit JVM?

    - by Mike
    I'm trying to create a simple Java app that uses JNI to call some native functions. I've followed the examples in the JNI Programming Guide and can't seem to get them to work. I have the following Hello World program, written in Java: class HelloWorld { private native void print(); public static void main(String [] args) { new HelloWorld().print(); } static { System.load("/home/mike/Desktop/libHelloWorld.so"); } } I compile it using javac HelloWorld.java, just like normal. Then I run javah -jni HelloWorld, and finally the following: gcc34 -shared -fpic -o libHelloWorld.so -I/<path to JDK>/include -I/<path to JDK>/include/linux HelloWorld.c gcc34 is the name of the GCC program on my machine here at work (I don't control that) and I obviously place the real path to the JDK in that command. When I run my program, using the standard java HelloWorld, I get an error saying the following: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: /home/mike/Desktop/libHelloWorld.so: /home/mike/Desktop/libHelloWorld.so: wrong ELF class: ELFCLASS64 (Possible causes: architecture word width mismatch) at java.lang.ClassLoader$NativeLibrary.load(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary0(ClassLoader.java:1778) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary(ClassLoader.java:1674) at java.lang.Runtime.load0(Runtime.java:770) at java.lang.System.load(System.java:1003) at HelloWorld.<clinit>(HelloWorld.java:8) Could not find the main class: HelloWorld. Program will exit. I know I'm running a 32-bit JVM (and unfortunately, as of right now, I'm not allowed to get a 64-bit JVM). I tried telling GCC to compile in 32-bit mode using the "-m32" option, but we don't have (and again, can't get) what we need for that. Does this sound like a 32/64-bit conflict or something else?

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  • PHP session_write_close() causes empty response

    - by Xeoncross
    When using session_write_close() in a shutdown function at the end of my script - PHP just dies. There is no error logged, response headers (firebug), or data (even whitespace!) returned. I have full PHP error reporting on with STRICT enabled and PHP 5.2.1. My guess is that since session_write_close() is being called after shutdown - some fatal error is being encountered that crashes PHP before it has a chance to send the output or log anything. This only happens on the logout page where I first: ... //If there is no session to delete (not started) if ( ! session_id()) { return; } // Get the session name $name = session_name(); // Delete the session cookie (if exists) if ( ! empty($_COOKIE[$name])) { //Get the current cookie config $params = session_get_cookie_params(); // Delete the cookie from globals unset($_COOKIE[$name], $_SESSION); //Delete the cookie on the user_agent setcookie($name, '', time()-43200, $params['path'], $params['domain'], $params['secure']); } // Destroy the session session_destroy(); ... then 2) do some more stuff 3) issue a redirect and 4) finally, after the whole page is done the register_shutdown_function(); I placed earlier runs and calls session_write_close() which saves the session to the database. The end. Since this blank response only occurs on logout I'm guessing that I'm not restarting the session properly which is causing session_write_close() to die fatally at the end of the script.

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  • IE7 CSS bug aligning <img> with text in a <ul>

    - by Artem Russakovskii
    I've been banging my ahead on this IE7 bug for the last few days and it's time to resort to the mind of the crowd. I have the following HTML and CSS: http://beerpla.net/for_www/ie7_test/test.html The goal is to have a <ul>, with each <li> containing a small icon and some text. Multiline text would be aligned to itself and not wrap under the image. I've tried using float:left on the image and a bunch of other things, and finally I thought the position:absolute would work for sure but in IE7 I consistently see the text pop off to the next line and get misaligned with the image: This is what I expect it to look like: I even tried to make the div display:inline which kind of worked but then started wrapping under the image for long lines, so it was no good. zoom:1 also produced a similar effect. I'm at a loss at the moment. This code works fine in all other browsers. IE7 is a special, very special child. Any ideas? Thank you. Edit: If you have IE8, you can emulate IE7 by pressing F12 and then Alt-7.

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  • File extensions and MIME Types in .NET

    - by Marc Climent
    I want to get a MIME Content-Type from a given extension (preferably without accessing the physical file). I have seen some questions about this and the methods described to perform this can be resumed in: Use registry information. Use urlmon.dll's FindMimeFromData. Use IIS information. Roll your own MIME mapping function. Based on this table, for example. I've been using no.1 for some time but I realized that the information provided by the registry is not consistent and depends on the software installed on the machine. Some extensions, like .zip don't use to have a Content-Type specified. Solution no.2 forces me to have the file on disk in order to read the first bytes, which is something slow but may get good results. The third method is based on Directory Services and all that stuff, which is something I don't like much because I have to add COM references and I'm not sure it's consistent between IIS6 and IIS7. Also, I don't know the performance of this method. Finally, I didn't want to use my own table but at the end seems the best option if I want a decent performance and consistency of the results between platforms (even Mono). Do you think there's a better option than using my own table or one of other described methods are better? What's your experience?

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