Search Results

Search found 4489 results on 180 pages for 'logging'.

Page 145/180 | < Previous Page | 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152  | Next Page >

  • Autoresize UITextView and UIScrollView

    - by dennis3484
    Hello guys, I already did several searches on Stack Overflow and Google, but I couldn't find a solution to my problem. I have a Detail View for a product that includes a UIScrollView and a few subviews (UIImageView, UILabel, UITextView). You can find an example here. First I wanna autoresize the UITextView (not the text itself!) to the corresponding height. Then I wanna autoresize the entire UIScrollView so that it fits the height of my UITextView and the elements above it. I've tried the following code: myUITextView.frame = CGRectMake(2.0, 98.0, 316.0, self.view.bounds.size.height); [scrollView setContentOffset:CGPointMake(0.0, 0.0) animated:NO]; scrollView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(320.0, 98.0 + [myUITextView frame].size.height); [self.view addSubview:scrollView]; 98.0 + [myUITextView frame].size.height) because my thought was: After getting the height of myUITextView, add the height of the other subviews (98.0) to it. Unfortunately it doesn't work very well. Depending on the content of the UIScrollView, it is too short or too long. I did some logging with the result that the height of the UITextView is always the same: 2010-01-27 14:15:45.096 myApp[1362:207] [myUITextView frame].size.height: 367.000000 Thanks!

    Read the article

  • applicationSettings and Web.config

    - by Eric J.
    I have a DLL that provides logging that I use for WebForms projects and now wish to use it in an ASP.Net MVC 2 project. Some aspects of that DLL are configured in app.config: <configuration> <configSections> <section name="Tools.Instrumentation.Properties.Settings" type="System.Configuration.ClientSettingsSection, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" requirePermission="false" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <applicationSettings> <Tools.Instrumentation.Properties.Settings> <setting name="LogLevel" serializeAs="String"> <value>DEBUG</value> </setting> <setting name="AppName" serializeAs="String"> <value>MyApp</value> </setting> <setting name="Port" serializeAs="String"> <!--value>33333</value--> <value>0</value> </setting> </Tools.Instrumentation.Properties.Settings> </configuration> However, when I create a similar entry in Web.config, I get the error: Unrecognized configuration section applicationSettings My two-part question: How do I make this config entry work in Web.config? Where can I read up on the conceptual differences between WinForms configuration and ASP.Net configuration?

    Read the article

  • New HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions attribute in .Net 4

    - by Yaakov Davis
    I'm trying to crash my WPF application, and capture the exception using the above new .Net 4 attribute. I managed to manually crash my application by calling Environment.FailFast("crash");. (Also managed to crash it using Hans's code from here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2950130/how-to-simulate-a-corrupt-state-exception-in-net-4). The app calls the above crashing code when pressing on a button. Here are my exception handlers: protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.FirstChanceException += CurrentDomain_FirstChanceException; AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException += CurrentDomain_UnhandledException; DispatcherUnhandledException += app_DispatcherUnhandledException; } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void CurrentDomain_UnhandledException(object sender, UnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void CurrentDomain_FirstChanceException(object sender, System.Runtime.ExceptionServices.FirstChanceExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } [HandleProcessCorruptedStateExceptions] void app_DispatcherUnhandledException(object sender, System.Windows.Threading.DispatcherUnhandledExceptionEventArgs e) { //log.. } The //log... comment shown above is just for illustration; there's real logging code there. When running in VS, an exception is thrown, but it doesn't 'bubble' up to those exception handler blocks. When running as standalone (w/o debugger attached), I don't get any log, despite what I expect. Does anyone has an idea why is it so, and how to make the handling code to be executed? Many thanks, Yaakov

    Read the article

  • error_log php.ini setting has no effect on IIS 7/FastCGI/Win7/PHP5.3.2

    - by Lucas
    I have a very strange problem with PHP 5.3.2 running on IIS 7 on a fresh Windows 7 installation. Changing the error_log configuration options in the php.ini does not seem to have any effect. I cannot change the option to point to anything other than the default location. Here is a portion of my php.ini file and the output from phpinfo() before and after changing some configuration options. Everything else seems to have taken effect except the error_log option. I have noticed that the fastcgi.logging option also appears to be stuck. A previous setup with PHP 5.3.2 on Win XP and IIS 5.5 exhibited no problems. Also, this seems to be a bit different than other PHP + error_log problems that have been posted as the configuration option is never even being recognized by PHP. display_errors = On log_errors = Off error_log = mylog.log magic_quotes_gpc = Off Directive Local Value Master Value --------------- ------------------------------ ------------ display_errors On On log_errors Off Off error_log C:\Windows\temp\php-errors.log C:\Windows\temp\php-errors.log magic_quotes_gpc Off Off After changing the configuration options to: display_errors = Off log_errors = On error_log = php_errors.log magic_quotes_gpc = On I get the following from phpinfo() Directive Local Value Master Value --------------- ------------------------------ ------------ display_errors Off Off log_errors On On error_log C:\Windows\temp\php-errors.log C:\Windows\temp\php-errors.log magic_quotes_gpc On On

    Read the article

  • VISUAL STUDIO 2008 SETUP PROJECT MSI BUILD with Bootstrapping for quite installation

    - by rajadiga
    I build Visual Studio 2008 setup Project with MSI build it depends on .NET 3.5. I added Prerequisites like: .NET 3.5, Microsoft office interoperability, VS tools for office System 3.0 Run time, .etc. After that Selected "Download Prerequisite from Same location as my application" in Specify install location for Prerequisite. Build the setup. I can find mysetup.msi in Release directory. In new Machine I started fresh installation of my application... While Clicking the mySetup.msi. Dialog shows like this " This Setup Requires .NET framework 3.5 , Please install .NET setup then run this setup, .NET Framework can be obtained from web Do you want to do that now?" it gives "yes" no option - if I press YES it goes microsoft website. How can avoid it ? I wanted setup take .NET Framework to be installed from same location where I put all setup files including mysetup.msi ? In case of Quite installation cmd /c "msiexec /package mysetup.msi /quiet /log install.log" ..in log I can see only half way through installtion then error Property(S): HideFatalErrorForm = TRUE MSI (s) (D0:24) [00:07:08:015]: Product: my product-- Installation failed. === Logging stopped: 3/23/2010 0:07:08 === so how can complete the installation without user intervention and without error using VS2008 setup project thanks for all the help in advance for any input.

    Read the article

  • UIWebView is ignoring cookies?!

    - by A. Miladinovic
    Hello everybody, I am creating an app for the iPhone that fetches a specific page from a website, but to be able to view this site you need to log in with a username and a password. I've created this code: NSString *urlAddress = @"http://www.wdg-hamburg.de"; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlAddress]; NSString *post = @"name=loginname&pass=pass&form_id=user_login&op=Anmelden"; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setHTTPMethod: @"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; [vPlan loadRequest:request]; But I am not logged in at the UIWebView! I am logging NSHTTPCookieStorage to the console and it shows me the necessary cookie, but I dont get logged in. Does anybody knows how I can fix that? Kind regards, A. Miladinovic

    Read the article

  • Changing size of content in HorizontalScrollView when phone is rotated by overriding onConfiguration

    - by Emil Arfvidsson
    Hello I have a problem with resizing content in a HorizontalScrollView when the phone is rotated. I'm overriding onConfigurationChanged in my activity containing the HorizontalScrollView, since I want to handle the resizing myself. However, I'm having great problem finding where i should put the resizing of the content. The HorizontalScrollView it self has FILL_PARENT as width and a fixed height. The idea is that it should always fill the screen width-wise, while having several cells of content, each as wide as the HorizontalScrollView itself. The content in my HorizontalScrollView consists of one LinearLayout (let's call it wrapperLayout) with several LinearLayouts inside it. When the phone rotates I simply want to change the width of all the LinearLayouts inside the wrapperLayout. This is easy to do and works great when I test the resizing code by putting it in onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent ev), that is the views are resized just as they are supposed to when I touch the HorizontalScrollView. The difficulty appears when I try to find a good spot to execute resizing code, so that the resizing happens automatically when the phone is rotated. I have tried all possible combinations of requestLayout, onSizeChanged, onLayout, onConfigurationChanged and a few others and varying their calls to super (if any) before and after the resizing code. I can not make this work (the views are not resized even though the resize code is executed) and it is really frustrating. I've done a lot of logging to make sure the HorizonalScrollView really has changed width before calling my resize code but to no avail. Does anyone have any clue as to what is going on? What methods are called and in what order when I handle the onConfigurationChanged by myself like this? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • cellForRowAtIndexPath not being called on tableView reloadData

    - by BotskoNet
    I have a UITableView on one view that loads in data at the start of the application, and then later when a user enters text into a box and hits a button, I re-query the database, re-populate the original NSMutableArray that stores the data for the table. All of that is working perfectly. In some logging statements I can tell that the array has the correct information, the numberOfRowsInSection method is returning the proper count, and is being called after the reload is called. However, the cellForRowAtIndexPath is never called the second time (after the reload) and the table data is never updated. I've spent hours searching the net and I've found nothing that helps. Can anyone help? All code is at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot The specific reload is being called at: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/InMySpotViewController.m Roughly Line 94 From: http://github.com/botskonet/inmyspot/blob/master/Classes/PlateFormViewController.m Roughly line 101 A bit more info: once the new data has been added to the mutablearray, if I try to start scrolling the table, it eventually dies with: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSRangeException', reason: '* -[NSCFArray objectAtIndex:]: index (29) beyond bounds (29)'" Which I assume means the table cells can't find any data in the array to match the scroll position, which seems to be because the array has the new data, but the table doesn't.

    Read the article

  • C# Sockets Buffer Overflow No Error

    - by Michael Covelli
    I have one thread that is receiving data over a socket like this: while (sock.Connected) { // Receive Data (Block if no data) recvn = sock.Receive(recvb, 0, rlen, SocketFlags.None, out serr); if (recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected) { OnError("Error In Receive, recvn <= 0 || sock == null || !sock.Connected"); return; } else if (serr != SocketError.Success) { OnError("Error In Receive, serr = " + serr); return; } // Copy Data Into Tokenizer tknz.Read(recvb, recvn); // Parse Data while (tknz.MoveToNext()) { try { ParseMessageAndRaiseEvents(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); } catch (System.Exception ex) { string BadMessage = ByteArrayToStringClean(tknz.Buffer(), tknz.Length); string msg = string.Format("Exception in MDWrapper Parsing Message, Ex = {0}, Msg = {1}", ex.Message, BadMessage); OnError(msg); } } } And I kept seeing occasional errors in my parsing function indicating that the message wasn't valid. At first, I thought that my tokenizer class was broken. But after logging all the incoming bytes to the tokenizer, it turns out that the raw bytes in recvb weren't a valid message. I didn't think that corrupted data like this was possible with a tcp data stream. I figured it had to be some type of buffer overflow so I set sock.ReceiveBufferSize = 1024 * 1024 * 8; and the parsing error never, ever occurs in testing (it happens often enough to replicate if I don't change the ReceiveBufferSize). But my question is: why wasn't I seeing an exception or an error state or something if the socket's internal buffer was overflowing before I changed this buffer size?

    Read the article

  • Windows services with windows forms in the same process

    - by andrecarlucci
    Hello, I have a c# application that runs as a windows service controlling socket connections and other things. Also, there is another windows forms application to control and configure this service (systray with start, stop, show form with configuration parameters). I'm using .net remoting to do the IPC and that was fine, but now I want to show some real traffic and other reports and remoting will not meet my performance requirements. So I want to combine both applications in one. Here is the problem: When I started the form from the windows service, nothing happened. Googling around I've found that I have to right click the service, go to Log on and check the "Allow service to interact with desktop" option. Since I don't want to ask my users to do that, I got some code googling again to set this option in the user's regedit during installation time. The problem is that even setting this option, it doesn't work. I have to open the Log On options of the service (it is checked), uncheck and check again. So, how to solve that? How is the best way to have a windows service with a systray control in the same process, available to any user logging in? UPDATE: Thanks for the comments so far, guys. I agree it is better to use IPC and I know that it is bad to mix windows services and user interfaces. Even though, I want to know how to do that.

    Read the article

  • Accessing Elmah.axd with SqlErrorLog in SharePoint without adding user to db

    - by Chloraphil
    I have installed/configured Elmah on my personal SharePoint dev environment and everything works great since I'm logged in as admin, etc. I am using the MS Sql Server Error Log. (I am also using log4net to handle DEBUG/INFO/etc level logging and log statements are also stored in the db, in the same table as ELMAH's.) However, on the actual dev server (not my personal environment), when I access http://example/elmah.axd I get the error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'". I understand that this is the traditional error for the "double-hop problem" but I don't even want my credentials to be passed along - I would just like the database access to be made with the credentials of the Application Pool Identity. When using the SP object model the SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges is available; however, I do not want to modify the Elmah source. My production environment precludes the use of SQL Server authentication, changing impersonation to false, or giving myself permissions on the db directly. How can I get this to work? Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • Elmah for non-HTTP protocol applications OR Elmah without HttpContext

    - by Josh
    We are working on a 3-tier application, and we've been allowed to use the latest and greatest (MVC2, IIS7.5, WCF, SQL2k8, etc). The application tier is exposed to the various web applications by WCF services. Since we control both the service and client side, we've decided to use net.tcp bindings for their performance advantage over HTTP. We would like to use ELMAH for the error logging, both on the web apps and services. Here's my question. There's lots of information about using ELMAH with WCF, but it is all for HTTP bindings. Does anyone know if/how you can use ELMAH with WCF services exposing non-HTTP endpoints? My guess is no, because ELMAH wants the HttpContext, which requires the AspNetCompatibilityEnabled flag to be true in the web.config. From MSDN: IIS 7.0 and WAS allows WCF services to communicate over protocols other than HTTP. However, WCF services running in applications that have enabled ASP.NET compatibility mode are not permitted to expose non-HTTP endpoints. Such a configuration generates an activation exception when the service receives its first message. If it is true that you cannot use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints, then the follow-up question is: Can we use ELMAH in such a way that doesn't need HttpContext? Or more generally (so as not to commit the thin metal ruler error), is there ANY way to use ELMAH with WCF services having non-HTTP endpoints?

    Read the article

  • Why is my WPF splash screen progress bar out of sync with the execution of the startup steps?

    - by denny_ch
    Hello, I've implemented a simple WPF splash screen window which informs the user about the progress of the application startup. The startup steps are defined this way: var bootSequence = new[] { new {Do = (Action) InitLogging, Message = "Init logging..."}, new {Do = (Action) InitNHibernate, Message = "Init NHibernate..."}, new {Do = (Action) SetupUnityContainer, Message = "Init Unity..."}, new {Do = (Action) UserLogOn, Message = "Logon..."}, new {Do = (Action) PrefetchData, Message = "Caching..."}, }; InitLogging etc. are methods defined elsewhere, which performs some time consuming tasks. The boot sequence gets executed this way: foreach (var step in bootSequence) { _status.Update(step.Message); step.Do(); } _status denotes an instance of my XAML splash screen window containing a progress bar and a label for status information. Its Update() method is defined as follows: public void Update(string status) { int value = ++_updateSteps; Update(status, value); } private void Update(string status, int value) { var dispatcherOperation = Dispatcher.BeginInvoke( DispatcherPriority.Background, (ThreadStart) delegate { lblStatus.Content = status; progressBar.Value = value; }); dispatcherOperation.Wait(); } In the main this works, the steps get executed and the splash screen shows the progress. But I observed that the splash screen for some reasons doesn't update its content for all steps. This is the reason I called the Dispatcher async and wait for its completion. But even this didn't help. Has anyone else experienced this or some similar behaviour and has some advice how to keep the splash screen's update in sync with the execution of the boot sequence steps? I know that the users will unlikely notice this behaviour, since the splash screen is doing something and the application starts after booting is completed. But myself isn't sleeping well, because I don't know why it is not working as expected... Thx for your help, Denny

    Read the article

  • Using Ninject 2.0 with ASP .Net 3.5

    - by GK
    Hi, I am trying to use Ninject 2.0 with Asp .Net 3.5 web application. Following are the DLLS and it's versions I am using. Ninject.dll - v2.0.0.0 Ninject.Extensions.Logging.dll v2.0.0.0 Ninject.Web.dll v1.0.0.0 In my global.ascx.cs I have following method. protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); kernel.Bind<IDataAccess>().To<DataAccessEntBlock>().InSingletonScope(); return kernel; } When I run the application I get following error. Error activating ILoggerFactory No matching bindings are available, and the type is not self-bindable. Activation path: 1) Request for ILoggerFactory Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have defined a binding for ILoggerFactory. 2) If the binding was defined in a module, ensure that the module has been loaded into the kernel. 3) Ensure you have not accidentally created more than one kernel. 4) If you are using automatic module loading, ensure the search path and filters are correct. I am not understanding even though I am not trying to register Logger, it seems it is trying to create it's own. How can I resolve this error ? Do I have to use any of the Ninject's extension Logger ? Thanks GK

    Read the article

  • Paypal (sandbox) buy now link redirects to paypal (sandbox) login page instead of order summary

    - by Nicolas
    Hi, Before going live I try to test the paypal process against the paypal sandbox mode, but after the summary of what the user is going to pay on my website(buy now button), the link does not redirect to a paypal summary of the prder but ask the user to connect to paypal. Even after logging into the buyer sandbox account there's no summary of the order. It just disappears. Here's is the code I use on the checkout page: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_s-xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="hosted_button_id" value="XXXXXXXXXXXXXXXX"> <input type="hidden" name="notify_url" value="http://www.website.com/paypal/"> <div class="suggestion"> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_GB/i/btn/btn_paynowCC_LG.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online!"> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_GB/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </div> </form> Any idea why it redirects to the payapl login page instead of the order one? Btw I'm using the Website Basic Payment (not PRO then). Cheers, Nicolas.

    Read the article

  • Defining reliable SIlverlight 4 architecture

    - by doteneter
    Hello everybody, It's my first question on SO. I know that there were many topics on Silverlight and architecture but didn't find answers that satisfies me. I'm ASP.NET MVC developer and are used to work on architectures built with the best practices (loose coupling with DI, etc.) Now I'm faced to the new Silverlight 4 project and would like to be sure I'm doing the best choices as I'm not experienced. Main features required by the applications are as follows : use existing SQL Server Database but with possibility to move to the cloud. using EF4 for the data acess with SQL Server. exitensibility : adding new modules without changing the main host. loose coupling. I was looking at different webcasts (Taulty, etc.), blogs about Silverlight and came up with the following architecture. EF 4 for data access (as specified with the requirements) WCF RIA Services for mid-tiers controling access to data for queries and enabling end-to-end support for data validation, authentication and roles. MEF Support for enabling modules. Unity 2.0 for DI. The problem is that I don't know how to define a reliable architecture where all these elements play well together. Should I use a framework instead like Prism or Caliburn? But for now I'm not sure what scenarios they support. What's the best usages for Unity in Silverlight ? I used to use IoC in ASP.NET MVC for loos coupling and other things like interception for audit logging. It seems that for Silverlight Unity doesn't support Interception. I would like to use it to enable loose coupling and to enable to move to the cloud if needed. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • Ninject woes... 404 error problems

    - by jbarker7
    We are using the beloved Ninject+Ninject.Web.Mvc with MVC 2 and are running into some problems. Specifically dealing with 404 errors. We have a logging service that logs 500 errors and records them. Everything is chugging along just perfectly except for when we attempt to enter a non-existent controller. Instead of getting the desired 404 we end up with a 500 error: Cannot be null Parameter name: service [ArgumentNullException: Cannot be null Parameter name: service] Ninject.ResolutionExtensions.GetResolutionIterator(IResolutionRoot root, Type service, Func`2 constraint, IEnumerable`1 parameters, Boolean isOptional) +188 Ninject.ResolutionExtensions.TryGet(IResolutionRoot root, Type service, IParameter[] parameters) +15 Ninject.Web.Mvc.NinjectControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +36 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +68 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +118 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +46 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +63 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.System.Web.IHttpAsyncHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb, Object extraData) +13 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8679426 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 I did some searching and found some similar issues, but those 404 issues seem to be unrelated. Any help here would be great. Thanks! Josh

    Read the article

  • C# - NetUseAdd from NetApi32.dll on Windows Server 2008 and IIS7

    - by Jack Ryan
    I am attemping to use NetUseAdd to add a share that is needed by an application. My code looks like this. [DllImport("NetApi32.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal static extern uint NetUseAdd( string UncServerName, uint Level, IntPtr Buf, out uint ParmError); ... USE_INFO_2 info = new USE_INFO_2(); info.ui2_local = null; info.ui2_asg_type = 0xFFFFFFFF; info.ui2_remote = remoteUNC; info.ui2_username = username; info.ui2_password = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(password); info.ui2_domainname = domainName; IntPtr buf = Marshal.AllocHGlobal(Marshal.SizeOf(info)); try { Marshal.StructureToPtr(info, buf, true); uint paramErrorIndex; uint returnCode = NetUseAdd(null, 2, buf, out paramErrorIndex); if (returnCode != 0) { throw new Win32Exception((int)returnCode); } } finally { Marshal.FreeHGlobal(buf); } This works fine on our server 2003 boxes. But in attempting to move over to Server 2008 and IIS7 this doesnt work any more. Through liberal logging i have found that it hangs on the line Marshal.StructureToPtr(info, buf, true); I have absolutely no idea why this is can anyone shed any light on it for tell me where i might look for more information?

    Read the article

  • .NET Reference "Copy Local" True / False Being Set Based on Contents of GAC

    - by D-Sect
    We had a very interesting problem with a Win Forms project. It's been resolved. We know what happened, but we want to understand why it happened. This may help other people out in the future who have a similar problem. The WinForms project failed on 2 of our client's PCs. The error was an obscure kernel.dll error. The project ran fine on 3 other PCs. We found that a .DLL (log4net.dll - a very popular open-source logging library) was missing from our release folder. It was previously in our release folder. Why was it missing in this latest release? It was missing because I must have installed a program on my Dev box that used log4net.dll and it was added to the Global Assembly Cache. When I checked the solution's references for log4net.dll, they were changed to "copy local=FALSE". They must have changed automatically because log4net.dll was present in my GAC. Here's where my question starts: Why did my reference for log4net.dll get changed from COPY LOCAL = TRUE to COPY LOCAL = FALSE? I suspect it's because it was added to my GAC by another program. How can we prevent this from happening again? As it stands now, if I install a piece of software that uses a common library and it adds it to my GAC, then my SLNs that reference that DLL will change from Copy Local TRUE to FALSE.

    Read the article

  • Anyone have BlazeDS working with WebLogic Security (j_security_check) ??

    - by Brian
    I'm working on a Flex implementation (currently using SDK 3.5) on WebLogic 10.3 (11G.) We originally used Glassfish v2.1.1 with zero issues (there was an active directory group lookup bug but it did not hinder our progress.) Since transitioning to WebLogic we have an issue where the flexsession is invalidated after logging in using j_security_check: [BlazeDS]Unexpected error encountered in Message Broker servlet flex.messaging.LocalizedException: The FlexSession is invalid. at flex.messaging.FlexSession.checkValid(FlexSession.java:943) at flex.messaging.FlexSession.getUserPrincipal(FlexSession.java:254) at flex.messaging.HttpFlexSession.getUserPrincipal(HttpFlexSession.java:286) at flex.messaging.MessageBrokerServlet.service(MessageBrokerServlet.java:296) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:820) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper$ServletServiceAction.run(StubSecurityHelper.java:227) at weblogic.servlet.internal.StubSecurityHelper.invokeServlet(StubSecurityHelper.java:125) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:292) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletStubImpl.execute(ServletStubImpl.java:175) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext$ServletInvocationAction.run(WebAppServletContext.java:3594) at weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:321) at weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(SecurityManager.java:121) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.securedExecute(WebAppServletContext.java:2202) at weblogic.servlet.internal.WebAppServletContext.execute(WebAppServletContext.java:2108) at weblogic.servlet.internal.ServletRequestImpl.run(ServletRequestImpl.java:1432) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) at weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) I've tried almost every option in services-config.xml: [security [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.WeblogicLoginCommand" server="Weblogic"/> [!-- Uncomment the correct app server [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.TomcatLoginCommand" server="JBoss"> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.JRunLoginCommand" server="JRun"/> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.TomcatLoginCommand" server="Tomcat"/> [login-command class="flex.messaging.security.WebSphereLoginCommand" server="WebSphere"/> --> [/security> I've even completely removed this section with no luck. The login functions correctly from a non-BlazeDS perspective. It authenticates the user correctly. Without authentication, BlazeDS works fine (no errors for any remote calls.) Together its a big ball of fail (invalid flexsession every time.) Has anyone got this working? Any tips?

    Read the article

  • Perl DBI execute not maintaining MySQL stored procedure results

    - by David Dolphin
    I'm having a problem with executing a stored procedure from Perl (using the DBI Module). If I execute a simple SELECT * FROM table there are no problems. The SQL code is: DROP FUNCTION IF EXISTS update_current_stock_price; DELIMITER | CREATE FUNCTION update_current_stock_price (symbolIN VARCHAR(20), nameIN VARCHAR(150), currentPriceIN DECIMAL(10,2), currentPriceTimeIN DATETIME) RETURNS INT DETERMINISTIC BEGIN DECLARE outID INT; SELECT id INTO outID FROM mydb449.app_stocks WHERE symbol = symbolIN; IF outID 0 THEN UPDATE mydb449.app_stocks SET currentPrice = currentPriceIN, currentPriceTime = currentPriceTimeIN WHERE id = outID; ELSE INSERT INTO mydb449.app_stocks (symbol, name, currentPrice, currentPriceTime) VALUES (symbolIN, nameIN, currentPriceIN, currentPriceTimeIN); SELECT LAST_INSERT_ID() INTO outID; END IF; RETURN outID; END| DELIMITER ; The Perl code snip is: $sql = "select update_current_stock_price('$csv_result[0]', '$csv_result[1]', '$csv_result[2]', '$currentDateTime') as `id`;"; My::Extra::StandardLog("SQL being used: ".$sql); my $query_handle = $dbh-prepare($sql); $query_handle-execute(); $query_handle-bind_columns(\$returnID); $query_handle-fetch(); If I execute select update_current_stock_price('aapl', 'Apple Corp', '264.4', '2010-03-17 00:00:00') asid; using the mysql CLI client it executes the stored function correctly and returns an existing ID, or the new ID. However, the Perl will only return a new ID, (incrementing by 1 on each run). It also doesn't store the result in the database. It looks like it's executing a DELETE on the new id just after the update_current_stock_price function is run. Any help? Does Perl do anything funky to procedures I should know about? Before you ask, I don't have access to binary logging, sorry

    Read the article

  • Help/Questions About New Team Foundation Server 2010 Installation

    - by user579218
    Hello. Before starting down the TFS2010 installation process, I have a few questions I'm hoping the community can help me with. We're planning on a single-server installation of TFS2010. Initially, we want version/source control and build services, but not reporting or SharePoint. We may add reporting and SharePoint capabilities later. Our environment will be Windows Server 2008 R2 (x64), SQL Server 2008 R2 (x64), Office 2010 (x86), Visual Studio 6 and 2010, and, of course, Team Foundation Server 2010. Can I install TFS2010 on a server that is on our domain? It's not a domain controller, it's just a member server on the domain. Should I install TFS2010 before or after putting the server on the domain? We have six developers that will be logging into their local development computers (which are also on the same domain) using their domain user accounts, do I add each domain user to the TFS2010 server's security groups? If so, which one(s)? Can I or should I use a domain user account as the TFS2010 service account? Or, should I just use Network Service? The TFS2010 install guide notes that none of the service accounts should belong to the Administrators security group, so which security group(s) are recommended for the service account(s)? We're planning on using a local instance of SQL Server 2008 R2 Standard with TFS2010, what service account should we use? Should we use the same domain account as TFS2010 or Local System or ?? The TFS2010 install guide isn't very specific on this. Since we're planning on this server being both the version/source control and build server, should we install our development environments (VS6, VS2010, Access2010) before installing TFS2010? Or does it matter? Thanks in advance for answering these questions.

    Read the article

  • Debugging Cactus Tests in Eclipse

    - by Th3sandm4n
    Side note: This is inherited code, I didn't do any of the setup and am new to the project. I'm trying to set up remote debugging in Eclipse for these unit tests that use Cactus. I've read around a bit (but I can't seem to find any REAL information how to set this up). Closest I've found is here (http://www.eclipse.org/webtools/community/tutorials/CactusInWTP/CactusInWTP.html), but it just says to Debug - Debug on Server, but nowhere does it say where the debug port is set or anything, and I can't find anything on how to enable this, set it. Just asking to see if anyone has set this up before, it would really help stepping through the code rather than just logging. The plugin (http://jakarta.apache.org/cactus/integration/eclipse/runner_plugin.html) Looks promising, but I also don't even know where to download it, it doesn't link to a location -.- The project uses ant, cactus, and I'm using Eclipse. Thanks EDIT Here is the target I'm using <junit fork="no" forkmode="perTest" printsummary="yes" haltonfailure="no" haltonerror="no" failureproperty="tests.failed"> <jvmarg value="-Xdebug" /> <jvmarg value="-Xrunjdwp:transport=dt_socket,address=localhost:8005,server=y,suspend=y" /> <formatter type="xml" usefile="true" /> <formatter type="plain" usefile="false" /> <classpath> <pathelement location="${clover.jar}"/> <path refid="cactus.classpath.id" /> <pathelement location="../ejb/src" /> </classpath> <sysproperty key="cactus.contextURL" value="${cactus.contextURL}"/> <test name="com.test.AllTests" outfile="TESTS" /> </junit>

    Read the article

  • Creating a (ClickOnce) setup for VSTO Outlook Add-in

    - by Ward Werbrouck
    So I created an Outlook Add-in and used the click-once setup to deploy it. The setup runs fine when the user is administrator, but otherwise: no go. Running the setup with "run as..." and logging in as admin works, but than the add-in is installed under the admin, not the current user. The addin doesn't show up in outlook. I tried following this guide: http://blogs.msdn.com/mshneer/archive/2008/04/24/deploying-your-vsto-add-in-to-all-users-part-iii.aspx But I get stuck at part I: http://blogs.msdn.com/mshneer/archive/2007/09/04/deploying-your-vsto-add-in-to-all-users-part-i.aspx I follow the examples and start excel as described: Now start Excel application. Examine the registry keys in HKCU hive e.g. you will find two interesting registry keys that appear under your HKCU hive: HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Office\TestKey registry key containing registry value TestValue You now also have HKCU\Software\Microsoft\Office\12.0\User Settings\TestPropagation registry key with Count value set to 1 But on my machine, the keys are not created... What can I try next?

    Read the article

  • When to use custom exceptions vs. existing exceptions vs. generic exceptions

    - by Ryan Elkins
    I'm trying to figure out what the correct form of exceptions to throw would be for a library I am writing. One example of what I need to handle is logging a user in to a station. They do this by scanning a badge. Possible things that could go wrong include: Their badge is deactivated They don't have permission to work at this station The badge scanned does not exist in the system They are already logged in to another station elsewhere The database is down Internal DB error (happens sometimes if the badge didn't get set up correctly) An application using this library will have to handle these exceptions one way or another. It's possible they may decide to just say "Error" or they may want to give the user more useful information. What's the best practice in this situation? Create a custom exception for each possibility? Use existing exceptions? Use Exception and pass in the reason (throw new Exception("Badge is deactivated.");)? I'm thinking it's some sort of mix of the first two, using existing exceptions where applicable, and creating new ones where needed (and grouping exceptions where it makes sense).

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152  | Next Page >