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  • AutoCompleteTextView with custom list: how to set up onClick Listeners and getting the selected item

    - by steff
    Hi everyone, I am working on an app which uses tags. Accessing those should be as simple as possible. Working with an AutoCompleteTextView seems appropriate to me. What I want: existing tags should be displayed in a selectable list with a CheckBox on each item's side existing tags should be displayed UPON FOCUS of AutoCompleteTextView (i.e. not after typing a letter) What I've done so far is storing tags in a dedicated sqlite3 table. Tags are queried resulting in a Cursor. The Cursor is passed to a SimpleCursorAdapter which looks like this: Cursor cursor = dbHelper.getAllTags(); startManagingCursor(cursor); String[] columns = new String[] { TagsDB._TAG}; int[] to = new int[] { R.id.tv_tags}; SimpleCursorAdapter cursAdapt = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.tags_row, cursor, columns, to); actv.setAdapter(cursAdapt); As you can see I created *tags_row.xml* which looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:paddingLeft="4dip" android:paddingRight="4dip" android:orientation="horizontal"> <TextView android:id="@+id/tv_tags" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_weight="1" android:textColor="#000" android:onClick="actv_item_click" /> <CheckBox android:id="@+id/cb_tags" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:onClick="actv_item_checked" /> </LinearLayout> It looks like this: So the results are displayed just as I'd want them to. But the TextView's onClick listener does not respond. And I don't have a clue on how to access the data once an item is (de-)selected. Behaviour of the list should be the following: tapping a CheckBox item should insert/append the corresponding tag into the AutoCompleteTextView (tags will be semicolon-seperated) tapping a TextView item should insert/apped the corresponding tag into the AutoCompleteTextView AND close the list. So please help me out. Thanks in advance, steff

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  • getJSON not working if the mvc model view controller has a parameter

    - by Paul
    I'm having an issue with a callback. I'm not even getting an error in Firebug. If I alert before and after the getjson call both alerts show but the getjson call doesn't fire. public ActionResult TestPage() { return View(); } public ActionResult LoadMapLonLats(int mapId) { //some code return Json(_myMaps); } $("#Search").click(function() { $.getJSON("LoadMapLonLats", { mapId: 73 }, loadDbMap); }); function loadDbMap(maps) { alert('m'); $.each(maps, function(i) { alert(maps[i]); }); } As long as I leave TestPage without a parameter is works. If I add a parameter to TestPage(int id) then the call back to LoadMapLonLats doesn't work. Seems odd. Of course TestPage is the page I'm loading so I need to do some work here before rendering the page. Not sure why adding a parameter to the view would break the callback to another function. //this breaks he callback to LoadMapLonLats public ActionResult TestPage(int id) { return View(); } Any ideas? Seems like this may be related, if not sorry I can post a new thread.

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  • apache htaccess rewrite rules make redirection loop

    - by Ali
    Hi guys, Have a very strange problem with Apache .htaccess URL Rewriting and Redirection. Here's my setup: I have a zend application with a single point of entry (index.php) directly under my apache document root (call this the "public" folder). I also have all other public files (images, js, css, etc.) under the public folder. Here, I also have a wordpress blog under the "blog" folder. There's an empty test folder too The Problem When I go to mydomain.com/blog, I get redirected to http://www.theredpin.com/blog (correctly), then to http://www.theredpin.com/blog/ (just with an extra / at end), finally to http://theredpin.com/blog/ -- and we're back where we started. The loop continues. What I don't understand is why would wordpress try to remove the www? I'm guessing it's wordpress because my empty test folder acts just fine! PLEASE HELP. I"M REALLY DESPERATE :( Thank you very much Other things that happen: When I go to mydomain.com, i correctly get redirected to www.mydomain.com When I go to www.mydomain.com, i correctly stay where I am When I go to www.mydomain.com/test or mydomain.com/test, behaviour is correct. Setup So my .htaccess file does the following: If there's no www., then add it and do a 301 redirect. Here's the code I use RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^mydomain.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.mydomain.com/$1 [L,R=301] If the request is NOT for a resource (image, etc.), or the blog, then load zend application by rewriting to index.php RewriteRule !((^blog(/)?.*$)|(.(js|ico|gif|jpg|jpeg|png|css|cur|JPG|html|txt))$) index.php Thanks again for all your help!!! Ali

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  • android: AbsListView.OnScrollListener SCROLL_STATE_IDLE is not called after SCROLL_STATE_TOUCH_SCROL

    - by Francesco
    I have a problem with android version 2.1. It looks like a bug. I attached an OnScrollListener to my listView. I'm using the method onScrollStateChanged(AbsListView view, int scrollState) for monitoring the scroll's state of my listview. The scrollstate could assume 3 value (taken from the documentation): SCROLL_STATE_FLING: The user had previously been scrolling using touch and had performed a fling. The animation is now coasting to a stop SCROLL_STATE_IDLE:The view is not scrolling. Note navigating the list using the trackball counts as being in the idle state since these transitions are not animated. SCROLL_STATE_TOUCH_SCROLL:The user is scrolling using touch, and their finger is still on the screen I assume that the SCROLL_STATE_IDLE will always be passed after one of other two states. It's always true excepted for android version 2.1. SCROLL_STATE_IDLE is not passed after SCROLL_STATE_TOUCH_SCROLL The problem happens also if you stop the fling by a touch instead of let the scroll stop by itself. This strange behaviour leaves my listView in an unconsistate state. Someonelse has the same problem? Suggestion for a "not-so-dirty" work around?

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  • Correctly calling setGridWidth on a jqGrid inside a jQueryUI Dialog

    - by Dan
    I have a jQueryUI dialog (#locDialog) which has a jqGrid ($grid) inside it. When the Dialog opens (initially, but it gets called whenever it opens), I want the $grid to resize to the size of the $locDialog. When I do this initially, I get scrollbars inside the grid (not inside the dialog). If I debug the code, I see the width of the $grid is 677. So, I call setGridWidth() again and check the width and now I have 659, which is 18px less, which is the size of the scroll area for the jqGrid (Dun-dun-dun..) When I rezie the dialog, I resize the grid as well, and everything is happy - no scrollbars, except where necessary. My dialog init code: $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, position: ['center', 100], width: 700, height:500, resizable: true, buttons: { "Show Selected": function() {alert($('#grid').jqGrid('getGridParam','selarrrow'));}, "OK": function() {$(this).dialog('close');}, "Cancel": function() {$(this).dialog('close');} }, open: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridHeight($(this).height()-54); // No idea why 54 is the magic number here $grid.setGridWidth($(this).width(), true); }, close: function(event, ui) { }, resizeStop: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridWidth($locDialog.width(), true); $grid.setGridHeight($locDialog.height()-54); } }); I am curious if anyone has seen this before. Really, it isn't the end of the world if I initially have unnecessary scrollbars at first, but it is just odd that when I call setGridWidth initially, it doesn't take into account the scroll area of 18px. As far as the magical number 54, that is the number I had to subtract from the height of the dialog value to get the grid to render without unnecessary scrollbars.

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  • Philosophy of [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)]

    - by Mikey Cee
    Hi everyone, I'm writing what I'm referring to as a POJ (Plain Old JSON) WCF web service - one that takes and emits standard JSON with none of the crap that ASP.NET Ajax likes to add to it. It seems that there are three steps to accomplish this: Change to in the endpoint's tag Decorate the method with [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] Add an incantation of [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] to the service contract This is all working OK for me - I can pass in and am being returned nice plain JSON. If I remove the WebInvoke attribute, then I get XML returned instead, so it is certainly doing what it is supposed to do. But it strikes me as odd that the option to specify JSON output appears here and not in the configuration file. Say I wanted to expose my method as an XML endpoint too - how would I do this? Currently the only way I can see would be to have a second method that does exactly the same thing but does not have WebMethodFormat.Json specified. Then rinse and repeat for every method in my service? Yuck. Specifying that the output should be serialized to JSON in the attribute seems to be completely contrary to the philosophy of WCF, where the service is implemented is a transport and encoding agnostic manner, leaving the nasty details of how the data will be moved around to the configuration file. Is there a better way of doing what I want to do? Or are we stuck with this awkward attribute? Or do I not understanding WCF deeply enough?

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  • jQuery UI dialog on ASP.NET page (inside user control)

    - by marc_s
    I have a really odd behavior here: I created a little popup dialog in jQuery UI, and in my test HTML page, it works flawlessly. When I click on the button, the popup comes up, covers the background, and remains on screen until I click on one of the two buttons (OK or Cancel) provided. So now I wanted to add this into my ASP.NET 3.5 app. I wanted to add it to a GridView inside a user controls (ASCX), which is on a page (ASPX) contained inside a master page. The jQuery 1.4.2 and jQuery UI 1.8.1 scripts are referenced on the master page: <body> <form id="XXXXXX" runat="server"> <Ajax:ScriptManager ID="masterScriptManager" runat="server" ScriptMode="Auto"> <Scripts> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" /> <asp:ScriptReference Path="~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js" /> </Scripts> </Ajax:ScriptManager> I had to change this to use the Ajax script manager, since adding them to the as never worked. So in my gridview, I have a column with image buttons, and when the user clicks on those, I am calling a little javascript function to show the jQuery UI dialog: function showDialog() { $("#dlg-discount").dialog('open'); $("#txtAmount").focus(); } When I run this page in MS IE 8, I get a separate page, and at the top of the page, I get the contents of my , with proper background color and all. In Firefox 3.5.6, I do get the dialog as a popup. In both cases, the dialog page/popup disappears again after a second or less - without me clicking anything! It seems similar to this question but the solution provided there doesn't work in my case. This one here also seems similar but again: the solution presented doesn't seem to work in my case... Any ideas / hints / tips on what the h** is going on here?? Thanks!

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  • Scrollbar problem with jquery ui dialog in Chrome and Safari

    - by alexis.kennedy
    I'm using the jquery ui dialog with modal=true. In Chrome and Safari, this disables scrolling via the scroll bar and cursor keys (scrolling with the mouse wheel and page up/down still works). This is a problem if the dialog is too tall to fit on one page - users on a laptop get frustrated. Someone raised this three months ago on the jquery bug tracker - http://dev.jqueryui.com/ticket/4671 - it doesn't look like fixing it is a priority. :) So does anyone (i) have a fix for this? (ii) have a suggested workaround that would give a decent usability experience? I'm experimenting with mouseover / scrollto on bits of the form, but it's not a great solution :( EDIT: props to Rowan Beentje (who's not on SO afaict) for finding a solution to this. jQueryUI prevents scrolling by capturing the mouseup / mousedown events. So this: $("dialogId").dialog({ open: function(event, ui) { window.setTimeout(function() { jQuery(document) .unbind('mousedown.dialog-overlay') .unbind('mouseup.dialog-overlay') ; }, 100); }, modal: true}); seems to fix it. Use at own risk, I don't know what other unmodal behaviour unbinding this stuff might allow.

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  • WiX/Windows Installer: Re-install to a new folder

    - by vitalyval
    1. I am using WiX for creating installer and would like to implement the following behaviour: If a user launches msi installer for the product and the product already installed, then wizard works similar to pure (first time) installation with exception of some things (e.g. license aggrement screen is omitted). The wizard should allow for example to change installation folder, select whether to place desktop shortcut,... I tried to do: <Publish Event="ReinstallMode" Value="amus"><![CDATA[INSTALL_MODE = "Change"]]></Publish> <Publish Event="Reinstall" Value="ALL"><![CDATA[INSTALL_MODE = "Change"]]></Publish> But after installation completes: the product is in the same folder, where it was installed first time; desktop icon in the same state as it was after first time install. MSDN says: "Do not attempt to change the target directory path if some components that use the path are already installed for the current user or for a different user". Is there a way to re-install in another forlder and add/remove desktop icon in re-install? 2. Is this normal to use the same KeyPath for some components? For example the same registry values for DeskTop and Programs menu shortcuts? MSDN says: "Two components cannot share the same key path value". But compiling and verifying goes OK. And I did not discover problems using the same keypaths.

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  • Delphi Exception Handling - How to clean up properly?

    - by Tom
    I'm looking at some code in an application of ours and came across something a little odd from what I normally do. With exception handling and cleanup, we (as well as many other programmers out there, I'm sure) use a Try/Finally block embedded with a Try/Except block. Now I'm used to the Try/Except inside the Try/Finally like so: Try Try CouldCauseError(X); Except HandleError; end; Finally FreeAndNil(x); end; but this other block of code is reversed as so: Try Try CouldCauseError(X); Finally FreeAndNil(x); end; Except HandleError; end; Looking around the web, I'm seeing folks doing this both ways, with no explanation as to why. My question is, does it matter which gets the outside block and which gets the inside block? Or will the except and finally sections get handled no matter which way it is structured? Thanks.

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  • How create a Firefox-like search textbox in WPF?

    - by Simon
    Hey there. I'm writing an application in WPF using the MVVM-pattern and will really often use TextBoxes. I don't want to use labels for the user to know user what the text box is for, i.e. I don't want something like this: <TextBlock> Name: </TextBlock> <TextBox /> Instead, I would like the TextBox to contain its own label. Statically, you would express it like this: <TextBox>Name</TextBox> If the cursor is displayed in the textbox, i.e. the TextBox gains focus, I want the description text to disappear. If the TextBox is left empty and it loses the focus, the description text should be shown again. It's similar to the search textbox of StackOverflow or the one of Firefox. (please tell me if your not sure what I mean). One TextBox's label may change at runtime, dependending on e.g. a ComboBox's selected element or a value in my ViewModel. (It's like in Firefox's search TextBox, if you select google from the search engins' menu, the TextBox's label changes to "Google", if you select "Yahoo" its set to "Yahoo"). Thus I want to be able to bind the label's content. Consider that I may already have a Binding on the Text-Property of the TextBox. How can implement such a behaviour and make it reusable for any of my TextBox's? Code is welcome but not needed; a description of what to do is enough. Thank you in advance.

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  • X509 Certificates, DigitalSignature vs NonRepudiation (C#)

    - by Eyvind
    We have been handed a set of test sertificates on smart cards for developing a solution that requires XML messages to be signed using PKI. Each (physical) smart card seems to have two certificates stored on it. I import them into the Windows certificate store using software supplied by the smart card provider, and then use code resembling the following to iterate over the installed certificates: foreach (X509Certificate2 x509 in CertStore.Certificates) { foreach (X509Extension extension in x509.Extensions) { if (extension.Oid.Value == "one we are interested in") { X509KeyUsageExtension ext = (X509KeyUsageExtension)extension; if ((ext.KeyUsages & X509KeyUsageFlags.DigitalSignature) != X509KeyUsageFlags.None) { // process certs here We have been told to use the certificates that have the NonRepudiation key usage flag set to sign the XMLs. However, the certificate that has the NonRepudiation flag has this flag only, and not for instance the DigitalSignature flag which I check for above. Does this strike anyone but me as slightly odd? I am in other words told to sign with a certificate that does not (appear to) have the DigitalSignature usage flag set. Is this normal procedure? Any comments? Thanks.

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  • Jquery Fancybox not working after postback

    - by Lee Englestone
    I have a Fancybox (or more accurately) a number of fancy boxes on an asp.net page. My Fancybox (jquery plugin) works fine until a postback occurs on the page then it refuses to work. Any thoughts? Anyone experienced similar behaviour? UPDATE : Some Code.. I have a databound repeater with a fancybox on each repeating item. They are instanciated by (outside the repeater) $(document).ready(function() { $("a.watchvideo").fancybox({ 'overlayShow': false, 'frameWidth' : 480, 'frameHeight' : 400 }); }); The anchor tag is repeated.. href="#watchvideo_<%#Eval("VideoId")%" As is a div with id="watchvideo_<%#Eval("VideoId") %> As is a script element that instanciates the flash movies Yes the VideoIds are being output the the page. UPDATE : It's not a problem with the flash.. It is not a problem with the flash as i've tried it without the flash, it wont even pop a window with a simple message in. UPDATE : I wonder if it is the updatepanel. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/301473/rebinding-events-in-jquery-after-ajax-update-updatepanel -- lee

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  • Autorotate works for iOS 6 but gives weird behavior in iOS 5

    - by Jeanne
    I seem to be having the opposite problem from this post: Autorotate in iOS 6 has strange behaviour When I submitted my paid app to Apple, XCode made me update to iOS 6 on my test devices. I used the GUI in XCode to set my app to display only in portrait mode on the iPhone and only in landscape mode on the iPad. This works great on my iOS 6 iPhone and iPad. In iOS 5, however, the iPad is allowing the app to rotate to portrait, displaying my buttons in a letterbox-like black area that shouldn't be there, and crashing repeatedly. I am using a Navigation Controller and storyboards. I know shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation is deprecated in iOS 6, but figuring it should still be called in iOS 5, I tried this: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight))) { return YES; } else return NO; } else { if ((UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortrait))||(UIDeviceOrientationIsLandscape(UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown))) { return YES; } else return NO; } // Return YES for supported orientations } The above code seems to have done nothing. I am putting it in each of my view controllers; it seems I should really be putting it in my navigation controller, but because I set that up graphically, I'm not sure how to do that. Do I have to subclass my navigation controller and do everything in code? There must be a way to use the storyboard settings for this! (Note: I am not using AutoLayout and apparently can't because of some older components I am including my software that just plain don't like it.) What might be causing this? I'd like to fix it before too many people buy the app and complain! Thanks in advance...

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  • VS2010 - How to automatically stop compile on first compile error

    - by Ben Robbins
    {rant}First I'd like to say that this IS NOT A DUPLICATE. I've asked this question previously but it got closed as a duplicate when it isn't. This question is SPECIFIC to VS 2010 and the answers to the so-called duplicate work in VS 2008 but not in VS 2010 (at least not for me or anyone I know). So before you go closing something as a duplicate how about you read the question carefully and try the answer for yourself and see if it actually works. Apologies for the rant but there is no obvious way to contact the SO police that closed the issue or get it reopened. {/rant} At work we have a C# solution with over 80 projects. In VS 2008 we use a macro to stop the compile as soon as a project in the solution fails to build (see this question for several options for VS 2005 & VS 2008: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/134796/how-to-automatically-stop-visual-c-build-at-first-compile-error). Is it possible to do the same in VS 2010? What we have found is that in VS 2010 the macros don't work (at least I couldn't get them to work) as it appears that the environment events don't fire in VS 2010. The default behaviour is to continue as far as possible and display a list of errors in the error window. I'm happy for it to stop either as soon as an error is encountered (file-level) or as soon as a project fails to build (project-level). Answers for VS 2010 only please. If the macros do work then a detailed explanation of how to configure them for VS 2010 would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • UISearchBar in a UITableView

    - by petert
    I'm trying to mimic the behaviour of a table view like one in the iPod app for Artists - it's a sectioned table view with a section index on the right and with a search bar at the top, but initially hidden when view shown. I am using sdk 3.1.2 and IB, so simply dragged a UISearchDisplayController in to my NIB - it does wire everything up ready for searching. The problem starts because I'm adding the UISearchBar in to the first section of the UITableView, because if I understand correctly I must do this so I can jump to the search bar by touching the search icon in the section index directly? When the table view appears I see the search bar but it has resized and I now have a white block behind the section index at the top. It does'nt take the color of the UISearchBar's surround which interestingly is different to that shown in Interface Builder. Searching around, I did find a tip to add a small navigation bar and a UISearchBar in a UIView, then add this to the table view cell - this works.. BUT the color of the navigation bar's background is what you'd expect normally (gray), not the different color as noted above?! More interesting, if I click the search bar to start a search, then click Cancel, all is fixed!!! The background along the whole tableview cell when the search bar is, is the same!!?! Thanks for any tips.

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  • Linq-to-Sql IIS7 Login failed for user ‘DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$’

    - by cfdev9
    I am encountering unexpected behaviour using Linq-to-sql DataContext. When I run my application locally it works as expected however after deploying to a test server which runs IIS7, I get an error Login failed for user ‘DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$’ when attempting to open objects from the DataContext. This code explains the error, which breaks on the very last line with the error "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user". var connStr ="Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=Test;User Id=testuser;Password=password"; //Test 1 var conn1 = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr); var cmdString = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Table1"; var cmd = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(cmdString, conn1); conn1.Open(); var count1 = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); conn1.Close(); //Test 2 var conn2 = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr); var context = new TestDataContext(conn2); var count2 = context.Table1s.Count(); The connection string is not even using integrated security, so why is Linq-to-sql trying to connect as a specific user? If I change the server name in the connection string I get a different error so its using atleast part of the connection string, but apparently ignoring the UserId and Password. Very confused.

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  • ReSharper - Possible Null Assignment when using Microsoft.Contracts

    - by HVS
    Is there any way to indicate to ReSharper that a null reference won't occur because of Design-by-Contract Requires checking? For example, the following code will raise the warning (Possible 'null' assignment to entity marked with 'NotNull' attribute) in ReSharper on lines 7 and 8: private Dictionary<string, string> _Lookup = new Dictionary<string, string>(); public void Foo(string s) { Contract.Requires(!String.IsNullOrEmpty(s)); if (_Lookup.ContainsKey(s)) _Lookup.Remove(s); } What is really odd is that if you remove the Contract.Requires(...) line, the ReSharper message goes away. Update I found the solution through ExternalAnnotations which was also mentioned by Mike below. Here's an example of how to do it for a function in Microsoft.Contracts: Create a directory called Microsoft.Contracts under the ExternalAnnotations ReSharper directory. Next, Create a file called Microsoft.Contracts.xml and populate like so: <assembly name="Microsoft.Contracts"> <member name="M:System.Diagnostics.Contracts.Contract.Requires(System.Boolean)"> <attribute ctor="M:JetBrains.Annotations.AssertionMethodAttribute.#ctor"/> <parameter name="condition"> <attribute ctor="M:JetBrains.Annotations.AssertionConditionAttribute.#ctor(JetBrains.Annotations.AssertionConditionType)"> <argument>0</argument> </attribute> </parameter> </member> </assembly> Restart Visual Studio, and the message goes away!

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  • WCF Maximum Read Depth Exception

    - by Burt
    I get the following exception when trying to pass a DTO over WCF services. System.Xml.XmlException: The maximum read depth (32) has been exceeded because XML data being read has more levels of nesting than is allowed by the quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxDepth property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. Line 1, position 5230. at System.Xml.XmlExceptionHelper.ThrowXmlException The app.config binding looks like this <binding name="WSHttpBinding_IProjectWcfService" closeTimeout="00:10:00" openTimeout="00:10:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:10:00" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" transactionFlow="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="10240000" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true" allowCookies="false"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="200" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="Message"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm=""> <extendedProtectionPolicy policyEnforcement="Never" /> </transport> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="true" algorithmSuite="Default" establishSecurityContext="true" /> </security> </binding> Web.config service behaviour: <behavior name="BehaviorConfiguration" > <!-- To avoid disclosing metadata information, set the value below to false and remove the metadata endpoint above before deployment --> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="6553600" /> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles" roleProviderName="SqlRoleProvider" /> <serviceCredentials> <serviceCertificate findValue="localhost" x509FindType="FindBySubjectName" storeLocation="LocalMachine" storeName="My" /> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider" membershipProviderName="SqlMembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> And the DTO looks like this: [Serializable] [DataContract(IsReference=true)] public class MyDto { Any help would be appreciated as I am pulling my hair out with it.

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  • SSRS 2008 Report Manager Error

    - by Nick
    I have just installed SQL Server 2008 including Reporting Services on Windows Server 2003. I'm having a problem though accessing the Report Manager. When the Reporting Service is first started I can access it fine but after maybe an hour when I try and access it I get an error saying: Unable to connect to the remote server. The reporting service is still running at this point. I can connect to it through Reporting Services Configuration Manager and clicking on the Web Service URL gives a directory listing (I assume that is correct behaviour). If I stop and start the service through Reporting Services Configuration Manager then I can access Report Manager once again (although in maybe an hour I will get the same error once again). I've installed the latest SP1 service pack. I'm using the same domain account to run all the SQL services. The report server is set to use the default ReportServer virtual directory, is set to IP address All Assigned, TCP Port 80 and no SSL certificate. The report manager is set to use the default Reports virtual directory, IP address All Assigned, TCP Port 80 and no SSL certificates. In the log file I get an error: Unable to connect to remote server HTTP status code 500 An attempt was made to access a socket in a way forbidden by its access permissions. Does anyone have any idea why this is happening? I've searched the net but haven't been able to find a solution.

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  • Remoting server forcibly closing client connections in the middle of remote calls

    - by Carsten Hess
    Hello everyone. I have a system consisting of a server accepting remoting calls from clients with TCP as the underlying transportlayer. It normally works like a charm, but if I increase the no. of clients, the server starts at random to close the TCP connections in the middle of the calls. Not all calls are interrupted this way. That is really unexpected behaviour... I get no exceptions on the server side, just the client side exception: System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Server stack trace: ved System.Net.Sockets.Socket.Receive(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size, SocketFlags socketFlags) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.SocketStream.Read(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 size) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.SocketHandler.ReadFromSocket(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 count) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.SocketHandler.Read(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 count) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.SocketHandler.ReadAndMatchFourBytes(Byte[] buffer) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.Tcp.TcpSocketHandler.ReadAndMatchPreamble() ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.Tcp.TcpSocketHandler.ReadVersionAndOperation(UInt16& operation) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.Tcp.TcpClientSocketHandler.ReadHeaders() ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.Tcp.TcpClientTransportSink.ProcessMessage(IMessage msg, ITransportHeaders requestHeaders, Stream requestStream, ITransportHeaders& responseHeaders, Stream& responseStream) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.BinaryClientFormatterSink.SyncProcessMessage(IMessage msg) Exception rethrown at [0]: ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) ved System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) ved EBH.GuG.AgentKit.Transports.RemotingAgentHostEndPoint.SyncInvoke(Agent a, Int32 port)

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  • Strings in array are no longer strings after jQuery.each()

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm pretty confused with the behaviour of arrays of strings when I loop them through the jQuery.each() method. Apparently, the strings become jQuery objects inside the callback function. However, I cannot use the this.get() method to obtain the original string; doing so triggers a this.get is not a function error message. I suppose the reason is that it's not a DOM node. I can do $(this).get() but it makes my string become an array (from "foo" to ["f", "o", "o"]). How can I cast it back to string? I need to get a variable of String type because I pass it to other functions that compare the values among them. I enclose a self-contained test case (requires Firebug's console): <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head><title></title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- $(function(){ var foo = []; var $foo = $(foo); foo.push("987"); $foo.push("987"); foo.push("654"); $foo.push("654"); $.each(foo, function(i){ console.log("foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); $foo.each(function(i){ console.log("$foo[%d]: object=%o; value=%s; string=%o", i, this, this, $(this).get()); // this.get() does not exist }); }); //--></script> </head> <body> </body> </html>

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  • html textfield in WebView in an Android application is hidden by the soft keyboard

    - by user280503
    Hello, I have an Android application that is a TabHost with a WebView. I use it to load a specific html file that has a text field in its bottom part. When I touch the html textfield, the soft keyboard pops up, and hides the textfield, so that I cannot see what I have typed. Here is the layout: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <TabHost xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/tabhost" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/main" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <TabWidget android:focusableInTouchMode="false" android:id="@android:id/tabs" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="63dp" /> <FrameLayout android:id="@android:id/tabcontent" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/layout" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" > <WebView android:id="@+id/webview" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1" /> </LinearLayout> </FrameLayout> </LinearLayout> </TabHost> I have tried to configure the AndroidManifest.xml file with android:windowSoftInputMode="adjustResize" with no success. I have also tried replacing the FrameLayout in my layout with ScollView, but that caused my webview to increase in size indefinitely when the application is running.. this may be due to some javascript I have running on the page. I have noticed that the android's web browser has a nifty behaviour - in a web page, after the soft keyboard pops up, the web page scrolls smoothly so that the focusable textfield is visible to the user. How can I have this kind of behavior in my applicaiton?

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  • determine parity of a bit representation of a number in MIPS

    - by Hristo
    Is there some instruction in MIPS that will determine the parity of a certain bit representation? I know to determine whether a "number" has an even parity or an odd parity is to XOR the individual bits of the binary representation together, but that seems computationally-intensive for a set of MIPS instructions... and I need to do this as quick as possible. Also, the number I'm working in is represented in Grey Code... just to throw that in there. So is there some pseudo-instruction in MIPS to determine the parity of a "number" or do I have to do it by hand? If there is no MIPS instruction, which it seems very unlikely to be, any advice on how to do it by hand? Thanks, Hristo follow-up: I found a optimization, but my implementation isn't working. unsigned int v; // 32-bit word v ^= v >> 1; v ^= v >> 2; v = (v & 0x11111111U) * 0x11111111U; return (v >> 28) & 1;

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  • How would you solve this graph theory handshake problem in python?

    - by Zachary Burt
    I graduated college last year with a degree in Psychology, but I also took a lot of math for fun. I recently got the book "Introductory Graph Theory" by Gary Chartrand to brush up on my math and have some fun. Here is an exercise from the book that I'm finding particularly befuddling: Suppose you and your husband attended a party with three other married couples. Several handshakes took place. No one shook hands with himself (or herself) or with his (or her) spouse, and no one shook hands with the same person more than once. After all the handshaking was completed, suppose you asked each person, including your husband, how many hands he or she had shaken. Each person gave a different answer. a) How many hands did you shake? b) How many hands did your husband shake? Now, I've been reasoning about this for a while, and trying to draw sample graphs that could illustrate a solution, but I'm coming up empty-handed. My logic is this: there are 8 different vertices in the graph, and 7 of them have different degrees. The values for the degrees must therefore be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and x. The # of degrees for one married couple is (0, 6). Since all graphs have an even number of odd vertices, x must be either 5, 3, or 1. What's your solution to this problem? And, if you could solve it in python, how would you do it? (python is fun.) Cheers.

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