Search Results

Search found 4882 results on 196 pages for 'odd behaviour'.

Page 147/196 | < Previous Page | 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154  | Next Page >

  • Rails PDF Generation with Prawn in IE7

    - by fluid_chelsea
    I'm using Prawn and Prawnto to generate a PDF in a Ruby on Rails app (Rails version 2.2.2) which works great and generates PDFs happily and sends them to the user to download in Firefox. The problem is in IE7. I have a route set up like so: map.invoice_pdf '/invoices.pdf', :controller => 'invoices', :action => 'index', :format => 'pdf' Which I then have a link like so to call: invoice_pdf_path(:year => params[:year], :month => params[:month], :unpaid_only => params[:unpaid_only]) And the following in my controller: def index params[:year] = default params[:year] params[:month] = default params[:month] params[:page] ||= 1 @invoices = Arobl.find_invoices_for_customer(current_customer.strCustomerID, params) respond_to do |format| format.html{ render :action => 'index' } format.pdf{ prawnto :inline => false, :filename => "#{current_customer.strCustomerID}_invoice.pdf" end In FF this works as expected, when the link is clicked the show action is invoked with a format of .pdf, and responds with the correctly named PDF. When it's hit with IE7 it says that the file or website could not be found, and references "invoices.pdf" instead of the expected customer_id_invoice.pdf filename. Any idea what could be causing this behaviour? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Db4o Mvc Application Architecture

    - by Mac
    I am currently testing out Db4o for an asp.net MVC 2 application idea but there are a few things I'm not quite sure on the best way to proceed. I want my application to use guessable routes rather than Id's for referencing my entities but I also think I need Id's of some sort for update scenarios. so for example I want /country/usa instead of /country/1 I may want to change the key name though (not perhaps on a country but on other entities) so am thinking I need an Id to use as the reference to retrieve the object prior to updating it's fields. From other comments it seems like the UUID is a bit long to be using and would prefer to use my own id's anyway for clean separation of concerns. Looking at both the KandaAlpha project I wasn't too keen on some aspects of the design and prefer something more along the lines of S#arp architecture where they use things like the [domainsignature] and EntityWithTypedId, IEntityDuplicateChecker, IHasAssignedId, BaseObject and IValidatable in their entities to control insert/update behaviour which seems cleaner and more extensible, covers validation and is encapsulated well within the core and base repository classes. So would a port of S#arp architecture to Db4o make sense of am I still thinking rmdbs in an oodb world? Also is there a best practice for managing indexes (including Unique ones as above) in Db4o? Should they be model metadata based and loaded using DI in a bootstrapper for example or should they be more loaded more like Automapper.CreateMap? Its a bit of a rambling question I know but any thoughts, ideas or suggested reading material is greatly appreciated. Thanks Mac

    Read the article

  • During suite tests EasyMock says 0 matchers expected 1 recorded

    - by holmes
    So I've been using EasyMock's class extension for a while now. All of a sudden I'm getting this exception, but only when I run the entire test suite: java.lang.IllegalStateException: 0 matchers expected, 1 recorded. at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.createMissingMatchers(ExpectedInvocation.java:42) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:34) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:26) at org.easymock.internal.RecordState.invoke(RecordState.java:64) at org.easymock.internal.MockInvocationHandler.invoke(MockInvocationHandler.java:24) at org.easymock.internal.ObjectMethodsFilter.invoke(ObjectMethodsFilter.java:56) at org.easymock.classextension.internal.ClassProxyFactory$1.intercept(ClassProxyFactory.java:74) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.matrix.PositionCategoryMatrix$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$c5298a7.getPossession(<generated>) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.stats.team.PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.testDeterminePossessionHomeWin(PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.java:45) The code involved is this little beauty (trimmed a bit): @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { homeTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); awayTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); ... } @Test public void testDeterminePossessionHomeWin() { expect(homeTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.15151515 ); expect(awayTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.01515152 ); replay( homeTeam, awayTeam ); ... } The exception is being thrown on the first expect. And it really doesn't make sense. It says it's getting a matcher, but the method doesn't even take an argument. And odd enough it's only during test suites! I'm creating a new mock in the @Before, so it shouldn't be inheriting anything from somewhere else (not that some other method would have a matcher on it) So, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Command /Developer/usr/bin/dsymutil failed with exit code 10

    - by Evan Robinson
    I am getting the above error message randomly (so far as I can tell) on iPhone projects. Occasionally it will go away upon either: Clean Restart XCode Reboot Reinstall XCode But sometimes it won't. When it won't the only solution I have found is to take all the source material, import it into a new project, and then redo all the connections in IB. Then I'm good until it strikes again. Anybody have any suggestions? [update 20091030] I have tried building both debug and release versions, both full and lite versions. I've also tried switching the debug symbols from DWARF with external dSYM file to DWARF and to stabs. Clean builds in all formats make no differences. Permission repairs change nothing. Setting up a new user has no effect. Same error on the builds. Thanks for the suggestions! [Update 20091031] Here's an easier and (apparently) reliable workaround. It hinges upon the discovery that the problem is linked to a target not a project In the same project file, create a new target Option-Drag (copy) all the files from the BAD target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder to the NEW target 'Copy Bundle Resources' folder Repeat (2) with 'Compile Sources' and 'Link Binary With Libraries' Duplicate the Info.plist file for the BAD target and name it correctly for the NEW target. Build the NEW target! [Update 20100222] Apparently an IDE bug, now apparently fixed, although Apple does not allow direct access to the original bug of a duplicate. I can no longer reproduce this behaviour, so hopefully it is dead, dead, dead.

    Read the article

  • Parsing XML with the PHP XMLReader

    - by coffeecoder
    Hi Guys, I am writing program that reads in some XML from the $_POST variable and then parses using the PHP XMLReader and the data extracted input into a database. I am using the XMLReader as the XML supplied will more than likely be too big to place into memory. However I am having some issues, my XML and basic code as are follows: '<?xml version="1.0"?> <data_root> <data> <info>value</info> </data> <action>value</action> </data_root>' $request = $_REQUEST['xml']; $reader = new XMLReader(); $reader->XML($request); while($reader->read()){ //processing code } $reader->close() My problem is that the code will work perfectly if the XML being passed does not have the <?xml version="1.0"?> line, but if i include it, and it will be included when the application goes into a live production environment, the $reader->read() code for the while loop does not work and the XML is not parsed within the while loop. Has anyone seen similar behaviour before or knows why this could be happening? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Trouble running setup package after Publishing in Visual Studio 2008

    - by Andrew Cooper
    I've got a small winform application that I've written that is running fine in the IDE. It builds with no errors or warnings. It's not using any third party controls. I'm coding in C# in Visual Studio 2008. When I Build -- Publish the application, everything seems to work fine. However, when I go and attempt to install the application via the setup.exe file I get an error message that says, "Application cannot be started." The error details are below: ERROR DETAILS Following errors were detected during this operation. * [3/18/2010 10:50:56 AM] System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException - The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B3) - Source: System.Deployment - Stack trace: at System.Deployment.Internal.Isolation.IStore.GetAssemblyInformation(UInt32 Flags, IDefinitionIdentity DefinitionIdentity, Guid& riid) at System.Deployment.Internal.Isolation.Store.GetAssemblyManifest(UInt32 Flags, IDefinitionIdentity DefinitionIdentity) at System.Deployment.Application.ComponentStore.GetAssemblyManifest(DefinitionIdentity asmId) at System.Deployment.Application.ComponentStore.GetSubscriptionStateInternal(DefinitionIdentity subId) at System.Deployment.Application.SubscriptionStore.GetSubscriptionStateInternal(SubscriptionState subState) at System.Deployment.Application.ComponentStore.CollectCrossGroupApplications(Uri codebaseUri, DefinitionIdentity deploymentIdentity, Boolean& identityGroupFound, Boolean& locationGroupFound, String& identityGroupProductName) at System.Deployment.Application.SubscriptionStore.CommitApplication(SubscriptionState& subState, CommitApplicationParams commitParams) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.InstallApplication(SubscriptionState& subState, ActivationDescription actDesc) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.PerformDeploymentActivation(Uri activationUri, Boolean isShortcut, String textualSubId, String deploymentProviderUrlFromExtension, BrowserSettings browserSettings, String& errorPageUrl) at System.Deployment.Application.ApplicationActivator.ActivateDeploymentWorker(Object state) I'm not sure what else to do. The only slightly odd thing I used in this application is the SQL Compact Server. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

    Read the article

  • Circular file references not allowed

    - by Program.X
    Hi, I am having a problem in building my solution in VS2008. Normally, it compiles fine in the environment. Sometimes, it fails with: /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. I rebuild and it works fine. Now, however, I am in the middle of setting up a CruiseControl.NET system and am testing my checked out code with MSBuild before I integrate the build into CC. Now, everytime I MSBuild, I get: "Q:\cc\xxx\checked out from svn\xxx.sln" (default target) (1) -> (xxx_WEB target) -> /xxx_WEB/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx(1): error ASPPARSE: Circular file references are not allowed. Problem is, I can't see where this reference is. I have searched for the reference across the entire solution and canf ind no references to the page itself (CMSManagedTargetPage) anywhere other than in the page or its codebehind, or within a string, eg: C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(82): inputFile = context.Server.MapPath("~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"); C:\dev2008\xxx\IWW.xxx.ASPNET\AspxHttpHandler.cs(83): virtualPath = "~/secure/CMSManagedTargetPage.aspx"; My assembly references are also fine (as far as I know). My Web Application is at the "top" of the dependencies, and nothing references it and therefore the faulting page so cannot cause a circular reference. Of course, the page itself may reference something such as a UserControl within the same assembly/web site, but as mentioned earlier, a search on CMSManagedTargetPage yielded no results so this is not happening. Changing the batch attribute in web.config had no effect on MSBuild. I find it very odd that it "sometimes" fails in VS and always fails in MSBuild. Am I missing some subtlety?

    Read the article

  • what type of bug causes a program to slowly use more processor power and all of a sudden go to 100%?

    - by reinier
    Hi, I was hoping to get some good ideas as to what might be causing a really nasty bug. This is a program which is transmitting data over a socket, and also receives messages back. I could explain lots more, but I don't think this will help here. I'm just searching for hypothetical problems which can cause the following behaviour: program runs processor time slowly accumulates (till around 60%) all of a sudden (could be after 30 but also after 60 seconds) the processor time shoots to 100%. the program halts completely In my syslog it always ends on one line with a memory allocation (something similar to: myArray = new byte[16384]) in the same thread. now here is the weird part: if I set the debugger anywhere...it immediately stops on that line. So just the act of setting a breakpoint, made the thread continue (it wasn't running since I saw no log output anymore) I was thinking 'deadlock' but that would not cause 100% processor power. If anything, the opposite. Also, setting a breakpoint would not cause a deadlock to end. anyone else a theoretical suggestion as to what kind of 'construct' might cause this effect? (apart from 'bad programming') ;^) thanks EDIT: I just noticed.... by setting the sendspeed slower, the problem shows itself much later than expected. I would think around the same amount of packets send...but no the amount of packets send is much higher this way before it has the same problem.

    Read the article

  • Annoying Twisted Python problem

    - by Kalmi
    I'm trying to answer the following question out of personal interest: What is the fastest way to send 100,000 HTTP requests in Python? And this is what I have came up so far, but I'm experiencing something very stange. When installSignalHandlers is True, it just hangs. I can see that the DelayedCall instances are in reactor._newTimedCalls, but processResponse never gets called. When installSignalHandlers is False, it throws an error and works. from twisted.internet import reactor from twisted.web.client import Agent from threading import Semaphore, Thread import time concurrent = 100 s = Semaphore(concurrent) reactor.suggestThreadPoolSize(concurrent) t=Thread( target=reactor.run, kwargs={'installSignalHandlers':True}) t.daemon=True t.start() agent = Agent(reactor) def processResponse(response,url): print response.code, url s.release() def processError(response,url): print "error", url s.release() def addTask(url): req = agent.request('HEAD', url) req.addCallback(processResponse, url) req.addErrback(processError, url) for url in open('urllist.txt'): addTask(url.strip()) s.acquire() while s._Semaphore__value!=concurrent: time.sleep(0.1) reactor.stop() And here is the error that it throws when installSignalHandlers is True: (Note: This is the expected behaviour! The question is why it doesn't work when installSignalHandlers is False.) Traceback (most recent call last): File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 396, in fireEvent DeferredList(beforeResults).addCallback(self._continueFiring) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 224, in addCallback callbackKeywords=kw) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 213, in addCallbacks self._runCallbacks() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/defer.py", line 371, in _runCallbacks self.result = callback(self.result, *args, **kw) --- <exception caught here> --- File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 409, in _continueFiring callable(*args, **kwargs) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1165, in _reallyStartRunning self._handleSignals() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/twisted/internet/base.py", line 1105, in _handleSignals signal.signal(signal.SIGINT, self.sigInt) exceptions.ValueError: signal only works in main thread What am I doing wrong and what is the right way? I'm new to twisted.

    Read the article

  • SSL certificates: No Client certificate key exhange

    - by user334246
    I am trying to access a WCF web service, that is using two way SSL encryption. When I try to call the service I get a System.ServiceModel.Security.SecurityNegotiationException: Could not establish secure channel for SSL/TLS with authority 'XXX.xx'. --- System.Net.WebException: The request was aborted: Could not create SSL/TLS secure channel. I have tried activating wire shark, to see what is sent to and from the server: I see a client hello and a server hello. But there is no client response to the server hello. I was expecting a "Certificate. Client key exchange. Change cipher. Encrypted handshake Message" package, but none is sent. I'm thinking it is a problem with the certificate sent by the server, that somehow my client server does not trusy it. Here is what I have already tried: I have created the certificate, through the proper authority, though I could have made a mistake in the certificate request without knowing it. I have added the two root certificates to: trusted root certificates, trusted publishers and trusted people. I have also added the client certificate to trusted people. My colleague has succeded in establishing connection on a win 2008 server (i'm using a 2003, because it is necessary for some odd reason - don't ask). I can't see any differences in our approach, so i'm a bit lost. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Update a single field from a single entity with ria-services

    - by TimothyP
    There are situations where I only want to update a specific field of a single entity in the database. I loaded the entities of that type into my silverlight application, and I know they are constantly changing on the server... but there is one field which has to be set by the silverlight client... the server will only read it. How can I just send the new data for that field to the server? Example an Entity called "TextField". I have a list of TextFields loaded in the silverlight application and every now and then the user will update the Preload (string) property of an entity and that has to go back to the server without changing anything else on the server. I tried adding a simple SetPreloadText(...) method to the DomainService but that just makes Silverlight crash with some odd error code. Is there a way to this? Am I working against the idea of Silverlight here? I really don't want to send the entire object back because know that at any given time the version on the client will most likely be out of date. (which is ok for this specific application)

    Read the article

  • git push error 'remote rejected] master -> master (branch is currently checked out)'

    - by hap497
    Hi, Yesterday, I post a question regarding how to clone a git repository from 1 of my machine to another. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2808177/how-can-i-git-clone-from-another-machine/2809612#2809612 I am able to successfully clone a git repository from my src (192.168.1.2) to my dest (192.168.1.1). But when I did an edit to a file and then do a 'git commit -a -m "test"' and then do a git push. I get this error on my dest (192.168.1.1): git push [email protected]'s password: Counting objects: 21, done. Compressing objects: 100% (11/11), done. Writing objects: 100% (11/11), 1010 bytes, done. Total 11 (delta 9), reused 0 (delta 0) error: refusing to update checked out branch: refs/heads/master error: By default, updating the current branch in a non-bare repository error: is denied, because it will make the index and work tree inconsistent error: with what you pushed, and will require 'git reset --hard' to match error: the work tree to HEAD. error: error: You can set 'receive.denyCurrentBranch' configuration variable to error: 'ignore' or 'warn' in the remote repository to allow pushing into error: its current branch; however, this is not recommended unless you error: arranged to update its work tree to match what you pushed in some error: other way. error: error: To squelch this message and still keep the default behaviour, set error: 'receive.denyCurrentBranch' configuration variable to 'refuse'. To git+ssh://[email protected]/media/LINUXDATA/working ! [remote rejected] master -> master (branch is currently checked out) error: failed to push some refs to 'git+ssh://[email protected]/media/LINUXDATA/working' I have 2 version of git, will that causes this problem? I have git 1.7 on 192.168.1.2 (src) but git 1.5 on 192.168.1.1 (dest). I appreciate if someone can help me with this. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • JPA : many-to-many - only one foreign key in the association table

    - by Julien
    Hi, I mapped two classes in a ManyToMany association with these annotations : @Entity @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.TABLE_PER_CLASS) public abstract class TechnicalItem extends GenericBusinessObject implements Resumable{ @SequenceGenerator(name="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN", sequenceName="TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_SEQ") @Id @Column(name = "\"ID\"", nullable = false) @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.SEQUENCE, generator = "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID_GEN") private int id; @ManyToMany(mappedBy = "referencePerformanceItems", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List testingRates; } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("T") public class TestingRate extends Rate { @ManyToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) @JoinTable(name="ecc.\"TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM\"", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TESTING_RATE_ID\"")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "\"TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID\"")}) //@ManyToMany(mappedBy = "testingRates", fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List referencePerformanceItems; } The sql generated for the association table creation is : create table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" ( "TESTING_RATE_ID" int4 not null, "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" int4 not null ); alter table ecc."TESTING_RATE_TECHNICAL_ITEM" add constraint FKC5D64DF6A2FE2698 foreign key ("TESTING_RATE_ID") references ecc."RATE"; There is no mention of the second foreign key "TECHNICAL_ITEM_ID" (the second part of the composite foreign key which should be in the association table). Is it a normal behaviour ? What should I do in the mapping if I want my 2 columns are 2 foreign keys referencing the primary keys of my 2 concerned tables. I use a PostGreSQL database and Hibernate as JPA provider. Thanks, Julien

    Read the article

  • file layout and setuptools configuration for the python bit of a multi-language library

    - by dan mackinlay
    So we're writing a full-text search framework MongoDb. MongoDB is pretty much javascript-native, so we wrote the javascript library first, and it works. Now I'm trying to write a python framework for it, which will be partially in python, but partially use those same stored javascript functions - the javascript functions are an intrinsic part of the library. On the other hand, the javascript framework does not depend on python. since they are pretty intertwined it seems like it's worthwhile keeping them in the same repository. I'm trying to work out a way of structuring the whole project to give the javascript and python frameworks equal status (maybe a ruby driver or whatever in the future?), but still allow the python library to install nicely. Currently it looks like this: (simplified a little) javascript/jstest/test1.js javascript/mongo-fulltext/search.js javascript/mongo-fulltext/util.js python/docs/indext.rst python/tests/search_test.py python/tests/__init__.py python/mongofulltextsearch/__init__.py python/mongofulltextsearch/mongo_search.py python/mongofulltextsearch/util.py python/setup.py I've skipped out a few files for simplicity, but you get the general idea; it' a pretty much standard python project... except that it depends critcally ona whole bunch of javascript which is stored in a sibling directory tree. What's the preferred setup for dealing with this kind of thing when it comes to setuptools? I can work out how to use package_data etc to install data files that live inside my python project as per the setuptools docs. The problem is if i want to use setuptools to install stuff, including the javascript files from outside the python code tree, and then also access them in a consistent way when I'm developing the python code and when it is easy_installed to someone's site. Is that supported behaviour for setuptools? Should i be using paver or distutils2 or Distribute or something? (basic distutils is not an option; the whole reason I'm doing this is to enable requirements tracking) How should i be reading the contents of those files into python scripts?

    Read the article

  • Django inlineformset validation and delete

    - by Andrew Gee
    Hi, Can someone tell me if a form in an inlineformset should go through validation if the DELETE field is checked. I have a form that uses an inlineformset and when I check the DELETE box it fails because the required fields are blank. If I put data in the fields it will pass validation and then be deleted. Is that how it is supposed to work, I would have thought that if it is marked for delete it would bypass the validation for that form. Regards Andrew Follow up - but I would still appreciate some others opinions/help What I have figured out is that for validation to work the a formset form must either be empty or complete(valid) otherwise it will have errors when it is created and will not be deleted. As I have a couple of hidden fields in my formset forms and they are pre-populated when the page loads via javascript the form fails validation on the other required fields which might still be blank. The way I have gotten around this by adding in a check in the add_fields that tests if the DELETE input is True and if it is it makes all fields on the form not required, which means it passes validation and will then delete. def add_fields(self, form, index) #add other fields that are required.... deleteValue = form.fields['DELETE'].widget.value_from datadict(form.data, form.files, form.add_prefix('DELETE')) if bool(deleteValue) or deleteValue == '': for name, field in form.fields.items(): form.fields[name].required= False This seems to be an odd way to do things but I cannot figure out another way. Is there a simpler way that I am missing? I have also noticed that when I add the new form to my page and check the Delete box, there is no value passed back via the request, however an existing form (one loaded from the database) has a value of on when the Delete box is checked. If the box is not checked then the input is not in the request at all. Thanks Andrew

    Read the article

  • javascript removeChild(this) from input[type="submit"] onclick breaks future use of form.submit() un

    - by maximumduncan
    I have come across some strange behaviour, and I'm assuming a bug in firefox, when removing a input submit element from the DOM from within the click event. The following code reproduces the issue: <form name="test_form"> <input type="submit" value="remove me" onclick="this.parentNode.removeChild(this);" /> <input type="submit" value="submit normally" /> <input type="button" value="submit via js" onclick="document.test_form.submit();" /> </form> To reproduce: Click "remove me" Click "submit via js". Note that the form does not get submitted, this is the problem. Click "submit normally". Note that the form still gets submitted normally. It appears that, under Firefox, if you remove a submit button from within the click event it puts the form in an invalid state so that any future calls to form.submit() are simply ignored. But it is a javascript-specific issue as normal submit buttons within this form still function fine. To be honest, this is such a simple example of this issue that I was expecting the internet to be awash with other people exeriencing it, but so far searching has yealded nothing useful. Has anyone else experienced this and if so, did you get to the bottom of it? Many thanks

    Read the article

  • x86 opcode alignment references and guidelines

    - by mrjoltcola
    I'm generating some opcodes dynamically in a JIT compiler and I'm looking for guidelines for opcode alignment. 1) I've read comments that briefly "recommend" alignment by adding nops after calls 2) I've also read about using nop for optimizing sequences for parallelism. 3) I've read that alignment of ops is good for "cache" performance Usually these comments don't give any supporting references. Its one thing to read a blog or a comment that says, "its a good idea to do such and such", but its another to actually write a compiler that implements specific op sequences and realize most material online, especially blogs, are not useful for practical application. So I'm a believer in finding things out myself (disassembly, etc. to see what real world apps do). This is one case where I need some outside info. I notice compilers will usually start an odd byte instruction immediately after whatever previous instruction sequence there was. So the compiler is not taking any special care in most cases. I see "nop" here or there, but usually it seems nop is used sparingly, if at all. How critical is opcode alignment? Can you provide references for cases that I can actually use for implementation? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses not behaved as I expected

    - by danielkwan
    I am starting to learn to use UIView animation. So I wrote the following lines: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:2.0]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatCount:2]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses:YES]; CGPoint position = greenView.center; position.y = position.y + 100.0f; position.x = position.x + 100.0f; greenView.center = position; [UIView commitAnimations]; In this case, the UIView (a green box) moved back and fore 2 times. So far so good, BUT I found out that after the moving twice, the green box ended up jumped to the "new position" (position.x + 100.0f, position.y + 100.0f) instead of going back to the original position (position.x, position.y). That makes the animation look pretty odd (like after the box swing back to the original position caused by setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses, it jumps back to the new position in the last microsecond!) What is the best way to make the green box NOT jump to the new position at the very last minute?

    Read the article

  • .NET custom property attribute?

    - by ropstah
    EDIT: I'd better rephrase: How can I shift the GET-implementation of a Class property to a / using a custom attribute? (I've added instantation vars (classname, propertyname) to the attribute, however I'd rather have these automatically fetched ofcourse.) Public Class CustomClass <CustomAttributeClass(ClassName:="CustomClass", PropertyName = "SomeProperty")> _ Public Property SomeProperty() as String Get() as String //This implementation should be handled by the attribute class End Get Set(Byval value as String) Me._someProperty = value End Set End Property End Class Old question: I want to create a custom property attribute for classes. I can create a class derived from Attribute, and 'mark' the property with the attribute, but where to go from here? I have a repository where I can quickly get data based on the attributes values. I would like to generalize the behaviour of the property in the attribute but I don't know how to go from here... Any help would be greatly accepted! Public Class CustomDataAttribute : Inherits Attribute Private _name As String Public Sub New(ByVal name As String) Me.Name = name End Sub Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) Me._name = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class CustomClass <CustomDataAttribute(Name:="CustomField")> _ Public Property CustomField() End Property End Class

    Read the article

  • Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, EF4, Silverlight?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

    Read the article

  • Parsing third-party XML

    - by mare
    What path would you took to parse a large XML file (2MB - 20 MB or more), that does not have a schema (I cannot infer one with XSD.exe because the file structure is odd, check the snippet below)? Options 1) XML Deserialization (but as said, I don't have a schema and XSD tool complains about the file contents), 2) Linq to XML, 3) loading into XmlDocument, 4) Manual parsing with XmlReader & stuff. This is XML file snippet: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xmlData date="29.04.2010 12:09:13"> <Table> <ident>079186</ident> <stock>0</stock> <pricewotax>33.94000000</pricewotax> <discountpercent>0.00000000</discountpercent> </Table> <Table> <ident>079190</ident> <stock>1</stock> <pricewotax>10.50000000</pricewotax> <discountpercent>0.00000000</discountpercent> <pricebyquantity> <Table> <quantity>5</quantity> <pricewotax>10.00000000</pricewotax> <discountpercent>0.00000000</discountpercent> </Table> <Table> <quantity>8</quantity> <pricewotax>9.00000000</pricewotax> <discountpercent>0.00000000</discountpercent> </Table> </pricebyquantity> </Table> </xmlData>

    Read the article

  • Office Word 2007 Interop - Header FieldCodes not showing up in my code, but are when viewed with Wor

    - by Ryan
    Hello, I'm writing an application in Delphi (have two over revisions of it written in both C# and Visual Basic, also). In my C# and Visual Basic version, I did something like the following to loop through the header/footer FieldCodes: // Supress filename, date and username field codes in headers fieldCount = WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields.Count; for (Int32 x = 1; x <= fieldCount; x++) { if ((WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldDate) || (WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldFileName) || (WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Type == Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdFieldType.wdFieldUserName)) { WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Select(); WordApp.Selection.TypeText("{ " + WordApp.ActiveDocument.Sections[1].Headers[Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word.WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary].Range.Fields[x].Code.Text + " }"); } } In my Delphi one I'm doing the same kind of routine. But, I've got a Word file that I'm trying to process and it has a Date FieldCode in the Header. My code is not finding the field code for some odd reason. It says there's no Fields in the Header. Does anyone know if there's such thing as like hidden FieldCodes, or something that would cause these to not show up in my code? Thanks, Ryan

    Read the article

  • Attached event triggering if event is same as current event

    - by Psytronic
    I have a button which start/stops a timer. When I click it, I remove the current event handler, and attach the opposite one. Ie, click "Stop", and the "Start" function is attached for the next click. However in IE (7), not sure about 8. The newly attached event is also triggering after the original function is finished: Lifeline in IE7: Button pushed -- "Stop" function begins -- "Stop" function removed -- "Start" function attached -- "Stop" function finishes -- "Start" function is called. I know it's to do with the attaching event bit, because If I remove it, the Start event doesn't fire. This seems a bit odd, as I have the same situation in the "Start" function, ie, "Start" removed, "Stop" called. But this doesn't seem to cause an infinite loop, thankfully. if(btn.attachEvent){ btn.detachEvent("onclick", stop); btn.attachEvent("onclick", start); }else if(btn.addEventListener){ btn.removeEventListener("click", stop, true); btn.addEventListener("click", start , true); } It all works fine in FF and Chrome. I have switched the order of attach/detach, just to see if it makes a difference, but it doesn't. Addendum Sorry, and no answers involving jQuery, Protoype et al. Its not something I want to integrate for this project.

    Read the article

  • Attempting to find a formula for tessellating rectangles onto a board, where middle square can't be

    - by timemirror
    I'm working on a spatial stacking problem... at the moment I'm trying to solve in 2D but will eventually have to make this work in 3D. I divide up space into n x n squares around a central block, therefore n is always odd... and I'm trying to find the number of locations that a rectangle of any dimension less than n x n (eg 1x1, 1x2, 2x2 etc) can be placed, where the middle square is not available. So far I've got this.. total number of rectangles = ((n^2 + n)^2 ) / 4 ..also the total number of squares = (n (n+1) (2n+1)) / 6 However I'm stuck in working out a formula to find how many of those locations are impossible as the middle square would be occupied. So for example: [] [] [] [] [x] [] [] [] [] 3 x 3 board... with 8 possible locations for storing stuff as mid square is in use. I can use 1x1 shapes, 1x2 shapes, 2x1, 3x1, etc... Formula gives me the number of rectangles as: (9+3)^2 / 4 = 144/4 = 36 stacking locations However as the middle square is unoccupiable these can not all be realized. By hand I can see that these are impossible options: 1x1 shapes = 1 impossible (mid square) 2x1 shapes = 4 impossible (anything which uses mid square) 3x1 = 2 impossible 2x2 = 4 impossible etc Total impossible combinations = 16 Therefore the solution I'm after is 36-16 = 20 possible rectangular stacking locations on a 3x3 board. I've coded this in C# to solve it through trial and error, but I'm really after a formula as I want to solve for massive values of n, and also to eventually make this 3D. Can anyone point me to any formulas for these kind of spatial / tessellation problem? Also any idea on how to take the total rectangle formula into 3D very welcome! Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Emphasized text in docbook, fo, pdf out put.

    - by Mica
    I am trying to emphasize a character of some static text to render into the footer of my pdf, but can't figure out the right combination of tags in my xsl. How can I accomplish this? Example: <!-- Footer content --> <xsl:template name="footer.content"> <xsl:param name="pageclass" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="sequence" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="position" select="''"/> <xsl:param name="gentext-key" select="''"/> <fo:block> <xsl:choose> ... <xsl:when test="$sequence = 'odd' and $position = 'left'"> <xsl:text>&#x00A9;<emphasis>My</emphasis>Company</xsl:text> </xsl:when> ... </xsl:choose> </fo:block> </xsl:template> This example generates an error in xsltproc. Help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154  | Next Page >