Search Results

Search found 3875 results on 155 pages for 'hibernate criteria'.

Page 146/155 | < Previous Page | 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153  | Next Page >

  • Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

    - by Tiago Alves
    As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

    Read the article

  • JAR files, don't they just bloat and slow Java down?

    - by Josamoto
    Okay, the question might seem dumb, but I'm asking it anyways. After struggling for hours to get a Spring + BlazeDS project up and running, I discovered that I was having problems with my project as a result of not including the right dependencies for Spring etc. There were .jars missing from my WEB-INF/lib folder, yes, silly me. After a while, I managed to get all the .jar files where they belong, and it comes at a whopping 12.5MB at that, and there's more than 30 of them! Which concerns me, but it probably and hopefully shouldn't be concerned. How does Java operate in terms of these JAR files, they do take up quite a bit of hard drive space, taking into account that it's compressed and compiled source code. So that can really quickly populate a lot of RAM and in an instant. My questions are: Does Java load an entire .jar file into memory when say for instance a class in that .jar is instantiated? What about stuff that's in the .jar that never gets used. Do .jars get cached somehow, for optimized application performance? When a single .jar is loaded, I understand that the thing sits in memory and is available across multiple HTTP requests (i.e. for the lifetime of the server instance running), unlike PHP where objects are created on the fly with each request, is this assumption correct? When using Spring, I'm thinking, I had to include all those fiddly .jars, wouldn't I just be better off just using native Java, with say at least and ORM solution like Hibernate? So far, Spring just took extra time configuring, extra hard drive space, extra memory, cpu consumption, so I'm concerned that the framework is going to cost too much application performance just to get for example, IoC implemented with my BlazeDS server. There still has to come ORM, a unit testing framework and bits and pieces here and there. It's just so easy to bloat up a project quickly and irresponsibly easily. Where do I draw the line?

    Read the article

  • Why is there so much XML in Java these days?

    - by BD at Rivenhill
    This is really more of a philosophy/design issue. I did some work in Java back in the middle 90's and again in the early 2000's and now I'm coming back to it after spending a lot of time in C/C++ and it seems like there was an explosion of XML dependency while I was gone. Major build system tools like ant and maven depend on XML for their configuration, but I'm actually more concerned with all the frameworks, such as Spring, Hibernate, etc. My experience is that powerful supporting libraries like these are where a developer can really get leverage for building programs with lots of features without writing a lot of code, but it really seems like I'm getting one language for the price of two here. I write a bunch of Java classes, but then I also write a bunch of XML files to glue them together. The things that get done in the XML are things that I can see reasonable ways of doing in straight code without the middleman, and they don't really seem to be treated exactly like configuration files: they change rarely and they end up getting committed to source code control like the Java code itself, but they are distributed with the resulting application and need to be unpacked and installed in the classpath in order to get the application to work. I'm working with server applications that are not web-based, so maybe the domain is a bit different from what most people are doing, but I just can't help feeling that I must be doing something wrong here. Can someone point me to a good source of information for why these design choices were made and what problems they are meant to solve so that I can analyze my own experiences in this context?

    Read the article

  • Grails one-to-many mapping with joinTable

    - by intargc
    I have two domain-classes. One is a "Partner" the other is a "Customer". A customer can be a part of a Partner and a Partner can have 1 or more Customers: class Customer { Integer id String name static hasOne = [partner:Partner] static mapping = { partner joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'partner_id',key:'customer_id'] } } class Partner { Integer id static hasMany = [customers:Customer] static mapping = { customers joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'customer_id',key:'partner_id'] } } However, whenever I try to see if a customer is a part of a partner, like this: def customers = Customer.list() customers.each { if (it.partner) { println "Partner!" } } I get the following error: org.springframework.dao.InvalidDataAccessResourceUsageException: could not execute query; SQL [select this_.customer_id as customer1_162_0_, this_.company as company162_0_, this_.display_name as display3_162_0_, this_.parent_customer_id as parent4_162_0_, this_.partner_id as partner5_162_0_, this_.server_id as server6_162_0_, this_.status as status162_0_, this_.vertical_market as vertical8_162_0_ from Customer this_]; nested exception is org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query It looks as if Grails is thinking partner_id is a part of the Customer query, and it's not... It is in the PartnerMap table, which is supposed to find the customer_id, then get the Partner from the corresponding partner_id. Anyone have any clue what I'm doing wrong? Edit: I forgot to mention I'm doing this with legacy database tables. So I have a Partner, Customer and PartnerMap table. PartnerMap has simply a customer_id and partner_id field.

    Read the article

  • Domain validates but won't save

    - by marko
    I have the following setup. Class, say, Car that has a CarPart (belongsTo=[car:Car]). When I'm creating a Car I also want to create som default CarParts, so I do def car = new Car(bla bla bla) def part = new CarPart(car:car) Now, when I do car.validate() or part.validate() it seems fine. But when I do if(car.save && part.save() I get this exception: 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, car_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - ERROR: value too long for type character varying(6) 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR events.PatchedDefaultFlushEventListener - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: Could not execute JDBC batch update Stacktrace follows: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, deal_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement$BatchResultHandler.handleError(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2621) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.processResults(QueryExecutorImpl.java:1837) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.execute(QueryExecutorImpl.java:407) at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement.executeBatch(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2754) at $Proxy20.flush(Unknown Source) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy:109) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722) Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Mappings ClassMap<Entities>....

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I was going through fluent hibernate getting started tutorial.... In my asp.net mvc web application i have created Entities and Mapping folder as they stated... I created an entity class and i tried to map it my mapping class using this, using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Mappings { public class ClientMap : ClassMap<Client> { } } I cant able to find a ClassMap keyword in my autosuggest list why? This is my entity class using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace FluentNhibernateMVC.Entities { public class Client { public int ClientId { get; set; } public string ClientName { get; set; } public string ClientMobNo { get; set; } public string ClientAddress { get; set; } public DateTime CreatedDate { get; set; } public byte IsDeleted { get; set; } public int CreatedBy { get; set; } } } I have added all references to my project...Am i missing some thing...

    Read the article

  • JPA - Can an @JoinColumn be an @Id as well? SerializationException occurs.

    - by Shivago
    Hi everyone, I am trying to use an @JoinColumn as an @Id using JPA and I am getting SerializationExceptions, "Could not serialize." UserRole.java: @Entity @Table(name = "authorities") public class UserRole implements Serializable { @Column(name = "authority") private String role; @Id @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name = "username") private User owner; ... } User.java: @Entity @Table(name = "users") public class User implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue protected Long id; @Column(name = "username") protected String email; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "owner", fetch = FetchType.LAZY, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) protected Set<UserRole> roles = new HashSet<UserRole>(); .... } "username" is set up as a unique index in my Users table but not as the primary key. Is there any way to make "username" act as the ID for UserRole? I don't want to introduce a numeric key in UserRole. Have I totally lost the plot here? I am using MySQL and Hibernate under the hood.

    Read the article

  • nhibernate sessionfactory instance more than once on web service

    - by Manuel
    Hello, i have a web service that use nhibernate. I have a singleton pattern on the repositorry library but on each call the service, it creates a new instance of the session factory wich is very expensive. What can i do? region Atributos /// <summary> /// Session /// </summary> private ISession miSession; /// <summary> /// Session Factory /// </summary> private ISessionFactory miSessionFactory; private Configuration miConfiguration = new Configuration(); private static readonly ILog log = LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(NHibernatePersistencia).Name); private static IRepositorio Repositorio; #endregion #region Constructor private NHibernatePersistencia() { //miConfiguration.Configure("hibernate.cfg.xml"); try { miConfiguration.Configure(); this.miSessionFactory = miConfiguration.BuildSessionFactory(); this.miSession = this.SessionFactory.OpenSession(); log.Debug("Se carga NHibernate"); } catch (Exception ex) { log.Error("No se pudo cargar Nhibernate " + ex.Message); throw ex; } } public static IRepositorio Instancia { get { if (Repositorio == null) { Repositorio = new NHibernatePersistencia(); } return Repositorio; } } #endregion #region Propiedades /// <summary> /// Sesion de NHibernate /// </summary> public ISession Session { get { return miSession.SessionFactory.GetCurrentSession(); } } /// <summary> /// Sesion de NHibernate /// </summary> public ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { return this.miSessionFactory; } } #endregion In wich way can i create a single instance for all services?

    Read the article

  • How to model and handle presentation DTO's to abstract from complicated domain model?

    - by arrages
    Hi I am developing an application that needs to work with a complex domain model using Hibernate. This application uses Spring MVC and using the domain objects in the presentation layer is very messy so I think I should use DTO's that go to and from my service layer so that these match what I need in my views. Now lets assume I have a CarLease entity whose properties are not simple java primitives but it's composed with other entities like Make, Model, etc public class CarLease { private Make make; Private Model model; . . . } most properties are in this fashion and they are selectable using drop down selects on the jsp view, each will post back an ID to the controller. Now considering some standard use cases: create, edit, display How would you go about modeling the presentation DTO's to be used as form backing objects and communication between presentation and service layers?? Would you create a different DTO for each case (create, edit, display), would you make DTO's for the complex attributes? if so where would you translate the ID to entity? how and where would you handle validation, DTO/Domain assembly, what would you return from service layer methods? (create, edit, get) As you can see, I now I will benefit by separating my view from the domain objects (very complex with lots of stuff I don't need.) but I am having a hard time finding any real world examples and best practices for this. I need some architecture guidance from top to bottom, please keep in mind I will use Spring MVC in case that may leverage on your anwser. thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

    - by HDave
    I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

    Read the article

  • Error using maven profiles

    - by user3127896
    I've added two profiles to my application and that how it looks: <profiles> <profile> <id>dev</id> <properties> <db.username>root</db.username> <db.password>root</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> <profile> <id>prod</id> <properties> <db.username>prodroot</db.username> <db.password>prodpass</db.password> <db.connectionURL>localhost:3306</db.connectionURL> <db.driverClass>com.mysql.jdbc.Driver</db.driverClass> </properties> </profile> </profiles> In my jdbc.properties file i changed values like this: jdbc.driverClassName=${db.driverClass} jdbc.dialect=org.hibernate.dialect.MySQLDialect jdbc.databaseurl=jdbc:mysql://${db.connectionURL}/dbname jdbc.username=${db.username} jdbc.password=${db.password} And here's bean from spring-container.xml <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" p:driverClassName="${jdbc.driverClassName}" p:url="${jdbc.databaseurl}" p:username="${jdbc.username}" p:password="${jdbc.password}" /> When i try to deploy my application i got following error: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'dataSource' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring-servlet.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'db.driverClass' Structure of project: Any ideas what i'm doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • FILESTREAM/FILETABLE Clarifications for Implementation

    - by user1209734
    Recently our team was looking at FILESTREAM to expand the capabilities of our proprietary application. The main purpose of this app is managing the various PDFS, Images and documents to all of the parts we manufacture. Our ASP application uses a few third party tools to allow viewing of these files. We currently have 980GB of data on the Fileserver. We have around 200GB of Binary data in SQL Server that we would like to extract since it is not performing well hence FILESTREAM seems to be a good compromise to the two major data storage/access issues. A few things are not exactly clear to us: FILESTREAM Can or Cannot store its data on a drive that is not locally attached. We already have a File Server with a RAID 10 (1.5TB drives). This server stores all of the documents right now, would we have to move these drives to the SQL Server for FILESTREAM? That would be a tough bullet to bite since the server also is doubling as the Application Server (Two VMs on one physical server). FILETABLE stores the common metadata about the files but where is the Full Text part of it stored to allow searching of files like doc/docx? Is this separate? Are you able to freely add criteria to this to search by? If so any links to clarify would be appreciated. Can FILETABLE be referenced in another table with a foreign key? Thank you in advance EDIT: For those having these questions this web video covered everything and more in terms of explaining filestream from 2008 to 2012 and the cavets to consider (I would seriously rep him if I could): http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechDays/Techdays-2012-the-Netherlands/2270 In conclusion we will not be using FILESTREAM as it would be way to huge of an upsurge to accommodate for investment. EDIT 2: Update to #1 - After carefully assessing FileTable in addition to FILESTREAM we got a winning combination. We did have to move the files over to the new server (wasn't to painful since they were on the same VM).It honestly took more time to write an extraction tool to dump the binary data within SQL to the File System. Update to #2 - This was seperate but again Bob had an excellent webinar explaining this: http://channel9.msdn.com/Events/TechEd/Europe/2012/DBI411 Update to #3 - Using TFT inheritance we recycled the Docs table we had (minus the huge binary blobs) which required very little changes in our legacy apps. This was a huge upshot for the developer team.

    Read the article

  • Prevent recursive CTE visiting nodes multiple times

    - by bacar
    Consider the following simple DAG: 1->2->3->4 And a table, #bar, describing this (I'm using SQL Server 2005): parent_id child_id 1 2 2 3 3 4 //... other edges, not connected to the subgraph above Now imagine that I have some other arbitrary criteria that select the first and last edges, i.e. 1-2 and 3-4. I want to use these to find the rest of my graph. I can write a recursive CTE as follows (I'm using terminology from MSDN): with foo(parent_id,child_id) as ( // anchor member that happens to select first and last edges: select parent_id,child_id from #bar where parent_id in (1,3) union all // recursive member: select #bar.* from #bar join foo on #bar.parent_id = foo.child_id ) select parent_id,child_id from foo However, this results in edge 3-4 being selected twice: parent_id child_id 1 2 3 4 2 3 3 4 // 2nd appearance! How can I prevent the query from recursing into subgraphs that have already been described? I could achieve this if, in my "recursive member" part of the query, I could reference all data that has been retrieved by the recursive CTE so far (and supply a predicate indicating in the recursive member excluding nodes already visited). However, I think I can access data that was returned by the last iteration of the recursive member only. This will not scale well when there is a lot of such repetition. Is there a way of preventing this unnecessary additional recursion? Note that I could use "select distinct" in the last line of my statement to achieve the desired results, but this seems to be applied after all the (repeated) recursion is done, so I don't think this is an ideal solution. Edit - hainstech suggests stopping recursion by adding a predicate to exclude recursing down paths that were explicitly in the starting set, i.e. recurse only where foo.child_id not in (1,3). That works for the case above only because it simple - all the repeated sections begin within the anchor set of nodes. It doesn't solve the general case where they may not be. e.g., consider adding edges 1-4 and 4-5 to the above set. Edge 4-5 will be captured twice, even with the suggested predicate. :(

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC2: Getting textbox data from a view to a controller

    - by mr_plumley
    Hi, I'm having difficulty getting data from a textbox into a Controller. I've read about a few ways to accomplish this in Sanderson's book, Pro ASP.NET MVC Framework, but haven't had any success. Also, I've ran across a few similiar questions online, but haven't had any success there either. Seems like I'm missing something rather fundamental. Currently, I'm trying to use the action method parameters approach. Can someone point out where I'm going wrong or provide a simple example? Thanks in advance! Using Visual Studio 2008, ASP.NET MVC2 and C#: What I would like to do is take the data entered in the "Investigator" textbox and use it to filter investigators in the controller. I plan on doing this in the List method (which is already functional), however, I'm using the SearchResults method for debugging. Here's the textbox code from my view, SearchDetails: <h2>Search Details</h2> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <fieldset> <%= Html.ValidationSummary() %> <h4>Investigator</h4> <p> <%=Html.TextBox("Investigator")%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Search", "SearchResults")%> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> Here is the code from my controller, InvestigatorsController: private IInvestigatorsRepository investigatorsRepository; public InvestigatorsController(IInvestigatorsRepository investigatorsRepository) { //IoC: this.investigatorsRepository = investigatorsRepository; } public ActionResult List() { return View(investigatorsRepository.Investigators.ToList()); } public ActionResult SearchDetails() { return View(); } public ActionResult SearchResults(SearchCriteria search) { string test = search.Investigator; return View(); } I have an Investigator class: [Table(Name = "INVESTIGATOR")] public class Investigator { [Column(IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = false, AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert)] public string INVESTID { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_FNAME { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_MNAME { get; set; } [Column] public string INVEST_LNAME { get; set; } } and created a SearchCriteria class to see if I could get MVC to push the search criteria data to it and grab it in the controller: public class SearchCriteria { public string Investigator { get; set; } } } I'm not sure if project layout has anything to do with this either, but I'm using the 3 project approach suggested by Sanderson: DomainModel, Tests, and WebUI. The Investigator and SearcCriteria classes are in the DomainModel project and the other items mentioned here are in the WebUI project. Thanks again for any hints, tips, or simple examples! Mike

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Update/Trigger IValueConverter in Listbox DataTemplate in a DataGrid

    - by LJ
    Hi I am building an application to display a datagrid bound to an ObservableCollection of Records, where each record has a Course Object and an ObservableCollection of Results Objects. The course is changed using an autocomplete box. The results collection is displayed in a Listbox with an IValueConverter implementation to change the colour of the ellipse template based on criteria of the course currently selected. It works great on loading, but subsequent updates to the course selection via the autocomplete does not trigger a recalculation/refresh of the value converter. Is there a way to trigger the refresh in XAML. I added UpdateSource=Property changed to the binding of the list box - but this caused a stack overflow (haha). Here is the code: <data:DataGrid x:Name="MyDatGrid"> <data:DataGrid.Columns> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Results"> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding ListOfResults}"> <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Ellipse Width="20" Height="20" Fill="{Binding Converter={StaticResource resultToBrushConverter} }" Stroke="Black" StrokeThickness="1" /> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn> <data:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Course" > <data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border> <input:AutoCompleteBox ItemsSource="{Binding Courses, Source={StaticResource coursesSource}}"/> </Border> </DataTemplate> </data:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> I managed to subscribe to the LostFocus Event on the autocomplete box and reset a filter that I already have on the datagrid. But isn;t this very inefficient ? Refreshing the view on the datagrid does not have any effect in that method. Any steps in the right direction are greatly appreciated. Trying to prevent myself going anymore grey :) Had thoughts of getting the binding expression of the list in the grid and updating it, but no clue ? Thanks guys

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • Which functions in the C standard library commonly encourage bad practice?

    - by Ninefingers
    Hello all, This is inspired by this question and the comments on one particular answer in that I learnt that strncpy is not a very safe string handling function in C and that it pads zeros, until it reaches n, something I was unaware of. Specifically, to quote R.. strncpy does not null-terminate, and does null-pad the whole remainder of the destination buffer, which is a huge waste of time. You can work around the former by adding your own null padding, but not the latter. It was never intended for use as a "safe string handling" function, but for working with fixed-size fields in Unix directory tables and database files. snprintf(dest, n, "%s", src) is the only correct "safe strcpy" in standard C, but it's likely to be a lot slower. By the way, truncation in itself can be a major bug and in some cases might lead to privilege elevation or DoS, so throwing "safe" string functions that truncate their output at a problem is not a way to make it "safe" or "secure". Instead, you should ensure that the destination buffer is the right size and simply use strcpy (or better yet, memcpy if you already know the source string length). And from Jonathan Leffler Note that strncat() is even more confusing in its interface than strncpy() - what exactly is that length argument, again? It isn't what you'd expect based on what you supply strncpy() etc - so it is more error prone even than strncpy(). For copying strings around, I'm increasingly of the opinion that there is a strong argument that you only need memmove() because you always know all the sizes ahead of time and make sure there's enough space ahead of time. Use memmove() in preference to any of strcpy(), strcat(), strncpy(), strncat(), memcpy(). So, I'm clearly a little rusty on the C standard library. Therefore, I'd like to pose the question: What C standard library functions are used inappropriately/in ways that may cause/lead to security problems/code defects/inefficiencies? In the interests of objectivity, I have a number of criteria for an answer: Please, if you can, cite design reasons behind the function in question i.e. its intended purpose. Please highlight the misuse to which the code is currently put. Please state why that misuse may lead towards a problem. I know that should be obvious but it prevents soft answers. Please avoid: Debates over naming conventions of functions (except where this unequivocably causes confusion). "I prefer x over y" - preference is ok, we all have them but I'm interested in actual unexpected side effects and how to guard against them. As this is likely to be considered subjective and has no definite answer I'm flagging for community wiki straight away. I am also working as per C99.

    Read the article

  • Which version of MSXML should I use?

    - by Cheeso
    Seems like this would be a common question, though I could not find it on SO. Which version of MSXML should I use in my applications, and more importantly, how should I decide? There is MSXML3, 4, 5 and 6. I recently posted some code in calling-wcf-service-by-vbscript that used MSXML v4. AnthonyWJones posted that I shouldn't use 4, but instead 3 or 6, but probably 3. Certainly not v5! Why? I'd like to know more about the criteria for selecting the version of MSXML to use in my apps. Bonus question: Does anyone have a summary of the differences between the various versions of MSXML over time? Summary so far: MSXML6 Should be first choice. was released in 2006, and includes perf and compliance fixes. Use this if you can. It's good. There are no merge modules; to bundle the MSXML6 runtime with your app, MS suggests packaging the MSXML6 msi file. MSXML6 is an upgrade from MSXML3/4 but does not replace them, because it discontinues some features. You can get the MSI here. MSXML3 Second choice. Most widely deployed version. Originally shipped in March 2000. Actively maintained, no new features. Currently supported, if you are on SP5 (shipped in 2005) or later. SP7 is current (also from 2005). MSXML5 was released only as part of MS-Office. Currently supported by Microsoft, but only as part of Office, not for building apps. Don't build apps that depend on MSXML5: Verboten. MSXML4 originally shipped? Currently in "maintenance mode". Microsoft is encouraging people to move off MSXML4 to MSXML6. Currently supported if you are on MSXML4SP2 or later, which shipped in 2003. download MSXML4SP2 here. Can be redisributed. Using the right version of MSXML in Internet Explorer is a good entry on the blog from Microsoft's xmlteam.

    Read the article

  • Windows Vista: Networking can only connect "local only"

    - by Damien
    I am attempting to debug a problem on a Windows Vista laptop - not mine! Until just recently (last week or so), it was operating normally for about 4 years :) The problem is that I am having issues connecting to the local network (a basic wireless home router; more later) and the internet (via ADSL). This is both for wired [Broadcom chipset] and wireless [Intel chipset]. I will elaborate further later. To detail the network. I have three other clients (HTC phone, Ubuntu 12.04 desktop [wired] and Ubuntu 10.04 laptop [wireless]), all of whom are able to connect to the network and internet normally. A windows 7 virtual machine running on said desktop connects normally. I have tried two different wireless routers - Netgear DG834G and Netgear DGN3500. The same error mode is common to both. Updating the firmware to the latest on both routers does not help. Overall, it seems safe to say it's localised to the laptop in question. I do not have another Vista client to test with. The specific symptoms are as follows: When "connected", it says "Local Only", and says it cannot connect to the internet. This is true for both wired and wireless. It can get an IP address (192.168.0.5), and the router (192.168.0.1) reports that it can see the device. When I try to ping, I get the following results: ping 192.168.0.1 - (router) all packets lost ping 192.168.0.5 - (laptop's address) OK ping 192.168.0.4 - (desktop) all packets lost Pinging from the desktop to the problematic laptop results in "From 192.168.0.4 icmp_seq=1 Destination Host Unreachable" The most promising "fix" from trawling forums is KB928233 which does not work for me. The problem is persistent across reports (both full shutdown and hibernate) so it appears not to be sleep related. I am not a regular vista user, though I can fumble my way about a bit. Is there any other suggestions as to what I should do? Is there any further information I can provide?

    Read the article

  • Linq query challenge

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

    Read the article

  • Linq guru - filtering related entities...

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL (Question updated)

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

  • php if clause inside foreach not retrieving data correctly

    - by Mike
    Here's my issue: In my controller, I want to grab user input from a form. I then parse the input, and compare it to database values to ensure I'm grabbing the correct input. I simply want to match the user's answers to the question, grab the user ID, the question ID, and then determine if the answer applies to a multiple choice or checkbox question, or something else. I take those values and insert them into the answer table. Ignore the waiver stuff. I'll test that once I get the answers input correctly. // add answers and waiver consent records try { $answerArray = array(); $waiverArray = array(); // retrieve answers, waiver consents, and the question ID's from form object foreach ($formData as $key => $value) { $parts = explode("_", $key); if ($parts[0] == 'question') { array_push($answerArray, $value); } if ($parts[0] == 'waiverTitle') { array_push($waiverArray, $value); } } $questions = new Model_DbTable_Questions(); $questionResults = $questions->getQuestionResults($session->idEvent); foreach ( $questionResults as $qr ) { if ($qr ['questionType'] == 'multipleChoice' || $qr ['questionType'] == 'checkBox') { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], null, $aa ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } else { foreach ( $answerArray as $aa ) { $answerData = $answers->addAnswer ( $lastUserID, $qr ['idQuestion'], $aa, null ); echo count ( $answerData ) . ', ' . $qr ['questionType'] . ', ' . $aa . '<br />'; } } } } catch (Zend_Db_Statement_Exception $e) { $e->getMessage(); throw $e; } From my test data, I expect to get 2 records that match the multiple choice and checkbox criteria, and 1 record for text in the ELSE clause like this: 3, checkbox, 1 3, multipleChoice, 1 3, text, question_2 What I get is a 3x3 Cartesian product, 3 question elements each with the 3 possible answers like this output from the echo statements: 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, 1 4, checkBox, question_2 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, 1 4, multipleChoice, question_2 4, text, 1 4, text, 1 4, text, question_2 I've tried placing the IF clause inside the inner foreach, but I get the same results. I've been staring at this problem for way too long and cannot see what I'm doing wrong. Your kind assistance would be greatly appreciated. Please let me know if my request requires more clarification.

    Read the article

  • Evaluation of CTEs in SQL Server 2005

    - by Jammer
    I have a question about how MS SQL evaluates functions inside CTEs. A couple of searches didn't turn up any results related to this issue, but I apologize if this is common knowledge and I'm just behind the curve. It wouldn't be the first time :-) This query is a simplified (and obviously less dynamic) version of what I'm actually doing, but it does exhibit the problem I'm experiencing. It looks like this: CREATE TABLE #EmployeePool(EmployeeID int, EmployeeRank int); INSERT INTO #EmployeePool(EmployeeID, EmployeeRank) SELECT 42, 1 UNION ALL SELECT 43, 2; DECLARE @NumEmployees int; SELECT @NumEmployees = COUNT(*) FROM #EmployeePool; WITH RandomizedCustomers AS ( SELECT CAST(c.Criteria AS int) AS CustomerID, dbo.fnUtil_Random(@NumEmployees) AS RandomRank FROM dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') c) SELECT rc.CustomerID, ep.EmployeeID FROM RandomizedCustomers rc JOIN #EmployeePool ep ON ep.EmployeeRank = rc.RandomRank; DROP TABLE #EmployeePool; The following can be assumed about all executions of the above: The result of dbo.fnUtil_Random() is always an int value greater than zero and less than or equal to the argument passed in. Since it's being called above with @NumEmployees which has the value 2, this function always evaluates to 1 or 2. The result of dbo.fnUtil_ParseCriteria(@CustomerIDs, 'int') produces a one-column, one-row table that contains a sql_variant with a base type of 'int' that has the value 219935. Given the above assumptions, it makes sense (to me, anyway) that the result of the expression above should always produce a two-column table containing one record - CustomerID and an EmployeeID. The CustomerID should always be the int value 219935, and the EmployeeID should be either 42 or 43. However, this is not always the case. Sometimes I get the expected single record. Other times I get two records (one for each EmployeeID), and still others I get no records. However, if I replace the RandomizedCustomers CTE with a true temp table, the problem vanishes completely. Every time I think I have an explanation for this behavior, it turns out to not make sense or be impossible, so I literally cannot explain why this would happen. Since the problem does not happen when I replace the CTE with a temp table, I can only assume it has something to do with the functions inside CTEs are evaluated during joins to that CTE. Do any of you have any theories?

    Read the article

  • iPhone SDK / Core Data usage scenario, similar to GAE data store?

    - by boliva
    Hi all, I am currently rewriting a map based App which I wrote in the past, specifically for 2.2.1 devices. Originally I wrote it to make use of SQLite databases but I would like to try and migrate it over Core Data, now that it's available on 3.X (for which I am rewriting to). I am fairly experienced in iPhone/Obj-C development, SQL and server backend technologies, but I have never had the chance to work with Core Data so IDK really if it's the appropiate tool for what I am trying to accomplish. The App works on a limited area in a map over which there are about 4000 placemarks, with different kinds of icons and sizes. Of course not all 4000 placemarks are shown at once but only those currently visible in the map viewport, and depending on the zoom level. What I am doing right now is, after the user moves the map in any way (panning or zooming) I am requesting from the backend server the required information for the placemarks that would be visible given the viewport coordinates boundaries and zoom level, however the process isn't as smooth as I'd like (the backend is sending its response in XML and I am compressing it using gzip), it takes anywhere from 1 to 3 seconds to update the display of the placemarks after the user ends moving the map. What I would like to do is to prefetch all the placemarks data at the App launch and use it all through the app life time - I don't mind storing it for later use because the data should be dynamic. The way I would do it right now is, after retrieving all the data, to store it on an SQLite db which I would query later, whenever the user moves the map, to return only the placemarks inside the viewport coordinate boundaries and specific to a given zoom level. Now, the question itself is, if is it possible to use some more 'native', object driven way to carry this queries process, which got me thinking about Core Data and if it is in any way similar to what Google App Engine offers through its datastore where you can fetch a number of objects from the backend given a certain query or criteria, without resorting to an SQL query itself. Like I said before I don't have any experience on Core Data but I have a pretty deep understanding of Obj-C and iPhone development, as well as SQL databases. Any guides on how to achieve what I'm trying (if possible at all) would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153  | Next Page >