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  • Ruby on Rails: How to sanitize a string for SQL when not using find?

    - by williamjones
    I'm trying to sanitize a string that involves user input without having to resort to manually crafting my own possibly buggy regex if possible, however, if that is the only way I would also appreciate if anyone can point me in the right direction to a regex that is unlikely to be missing anything. There are a number of methods in Rails that can allow you to enter in native SQL commands, how do people escape user input for those? The question I'm asking is a broad one, but in my particular case, I'm working with a column in my Postgres database that Rails does not natively understand as far as I know, the tsvector, which holds plain text search information. Rails is able to write and read from it as if it's a string, however, unlike a string, it doesn't seem to be automatically escaping it when I do things like vector= inside the model. For example, when I do model.name='::', where name is a string, it works fine. When I do model.vector='::' it errors out: ActiveRecord::StatementInvalid: PGError: ERROR: syntax error in tsvector: "::" "vectors" = E'::' WHERE "id" = 1 This seems to be a problem caused by lack of escaping of the semicolons, and I can manually set the vector='\:\:' fine. I also had the bright idea, maybe I can just call something like: ActiveRecord::Base.connection.execute "UPDATE medias SET vectors = ? WHERE id = 1", "::" However, this syntax doesn't work, because the raw SQL commands don't have access to find's method of escaping and inputting strings by using the ? mark. This strikes me as the same problem as calling connection.execute with any type of user input, as it all boils down to sanitizing the strings, but I can't seem to find any way to manually call Rails' SQL string sanitization methods. Can anyone provide any advice?

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  • HttpUtility does not exist in the current context

    - by Shaihi
    I get this error when compiling a C# application. Looks like a trivial error, but I can't get around it. My setup is Windows 7 64 bit. Visual-Studio 2010 C# express B2Rel. I added a reference to System.Web.dll located at C:\Program Files (x86)\Reference Assemblies\Microsoft\Framework\.NETFramework\v4.0, but it has a yellow exclamation symbol and I still get the above error. I also have the using System.Web declaration. What am I doing wrong? Update: After getting the prompt answer pointing me at the root cause, I searched a bit in Google to where it states that System.Web.dll is for the full framework. I did not find such a reference. For newbies like me, this blog summarizes the difference between the frameworks (client and full) nicely. I could not find a spot that says whether a certain Dll is supported in the client framework or not. I guess the exclamation mark in Visual Studio should be the first signal...

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  • How to keep relative position of WPF elements on background image

    - by Masterfu
    Hi folks, I am new to WPF, so the answer to the following question might be obvious, however it isn't to me. I need to display an image where users can set markers on (As an example: You might want to mark a person's face on a photograph with a rectangle), however the markers need to keep their relative position when scaling the image. Currently I am doing this by using a Canvas and setting an ImageBrush as Background. This displays the image and I can add elements like a Label (as replacement for a rectangle) on top of the image. But when I set a label like this, it's position is absolute and so when the underlying picture is scaled (because the user drags the window larger) the Label stays at it's absolute position (say, 100,100) instead of moving to the new position that keeps it "in sync" with the underlying image. To cut the matter short: When I set a marker on a person's eye, it shouldn't be on the person's ear after scaling the window. Any suggestions on how to do that in WPF? Maybe Canvas is the wrong approach in the first place? I could keep a collection of markers in code and recalculate their position every time the window gets resized, but I hope there is a way to let WPF do that work for me :-) I am interested in hearing your opinions on this. Thanks

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  • Scheme Depth-first search of a graph function

    - by John Retallack
    This is a homework question,I'm trying to do a Depth-first search function in Scheme,Here's the code I've written so far: (define explore (?(node visited) (let* ([neighbors (force (cdr node))] [next (nextNode visited neighbors)] [is-visited (member? node visited)]) (cond ;if I have no unvisited neighbours print current node and go up one level [(equal? next #f) (begin (display (car node)) (display " "))] ;if current node is not visited and I have unvisited neighbors ;print current node,mark as visited and visit it's neighbors [(and (equal? is-visited #f) (not (equal? next #f))) (begin (display (car node)) (display " ") (explore next (cons node visited)))]) ;go and visit the next neighbor (if (not (equal? (nextNode (cons next visited) neighbors) #f )) (explore (nextNode (cons next visited) neighbors) (cons node visited)))))) 'node' is the current node 'visited' is a list in witch I keep track of the nodes I visited 'nextNode' is a function that returns the first unvisited neighbor if any or #f otherwise 'member?' test's if a node is in the visited list The Graph representation is using adjacent made using references to nodes with letrec so that's why I use force in 'neighbors': Eg: (letrec ([node1 (list "NY" (delay (list node2 node3)))],where node2 and node3 are defined as node1 The problem witch I'm dealing with is that my visited lists looses track of some of the nodes I visited when I come out of recursion,How can I fix this ?

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  • improve my code for collapsing a list of data.frames

    - by romunov
    Dear StackOverFlowers (flowers in short), I have a list of data.frames (walk.sample) that I would like to collapse into a single (giant) data.frame. While collapsing, I would like to mark (adding another column) which rows have came from which element of the list. This is what I've got so far. This is the data.frame that needs to be collapsed/stacked. > walk.sample [[1]] walker x y 1073 3 228.8756 -726.9198 1086 3 226.7393 -722.5561 1081 3 219.8005 -728.3990 1089 3 225.2239 -727.7422 1032 3 233.1753 -731.5526 [[2]] walker x y 1008 3 205.9104 -775.7488 1022 3 208.3638 -723.8616 1072 3 233.8807 -718.0974 1064 3 217.0028 -689.7917 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 [[3]] [1] 3 [[4]] walker x y 546 2 629.9041 831.0852 524 2 627.8698 873.3774 578 2 572.3312 838.7587 513 2 633.0598 871.7559 538 2 636.3088 836.6325 1079 3 206.3683 -729.6257 1095 3 239.9884 -748.2637 1005 3 197.2960 -780.4704 1045 3 245.1900 -694.3566 1026 3 234.1824 -723.7423 I have written a function to add a column that denote from which element the rows came followed by appending it to an existing data.frame. collapseToDataFrame <- function(x) { # collapse list to a dataframe with a twist walk.df <- data.frame() for (i in 1:length(x)) { n.rows <- nrow(x[[i]]) if (length(x[[i]])>1) { temp.df <- cbind(x[[i]], rep(i, n.rows)) names(temp.df) <- c("walker", "x", "y", "session") walk.df <- rbind(walk.df, temp.df) } else { cat("Empty list", "\n") } } return(walk.df) } > collapseToDataFrame(walk.sample) Empty list Empty list walker x y session 3 1 -604.5055 -123.18759 1 60 1 -562.0078 -61.24912 1 84 1 -594.4661 -57.20730 1 9 1 -604.2893 -110.09168 1 43 1 -632.2491 -54.52548 1 1028 3 240.3905 -724.67284 1 1040 3 232.5545 -681.61225 1 1073 3 228.8756 -726.91980 1 1091 3 209.0373 -740.96173 1 1036 3 248.7123 -694.47380 1 I'm curious whether this can be done more elegantly, with perhaps do.call() or some other more generic function?

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  • Ericsson f3507g WWAN (3G Broadband) and AT commands

    - by JD
    I have a lenovo x200t tablet with WWAN built into it. I'm trying to connect to the internet using AT commands and a C# program which I am making so that the program can connect to the net and upload information on demand. I don't want to use Lenovo's "Access Connections" as it is too complicated for the end user. So far I have been able to use terminal to turn the card on and off, ring landlines and send SMS messages. However I can't seem to access the internet using it. I could access the net through it before I removed "Access Connections" software/bloatware. The commands I am using to try and access the net are: Connect on COM7 to the modem Send initialisation string "AT+CFUN=1" Send AT*ENAP=1,1 as suggested here (http://www.thinkwiki.org/wiki/Ericsson%5FF3507g%5FMobile%5FBroadband%5FModule) Windows says it is "Identifying" the network and a yellow exclamation mark appears on the networking icon in the task bar, but the connection fails and drops off. An IP is assigned to the "Local Area Connection 2" of 169.254.1.192 with a subnet of 255.255.0.0 - no gateway or DNS. Definately no net connection... Anyone got any ideas?

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  • Reusing service proxies

    - by Hadi Eskandari
    I have a set of webservices that I connect to using Silverlight Client. I use proxies generated by "Add service reference" or SLSVCUTIL.exe tool to connect to this service. So far, I have only used one single service. Now I want to use another service on the same server. The problem is that, first service generated set of proxy classes for me, and second service will reuse the same set of classes (plus extra services/classes), e.g. CustomerService.SaveCustomer(Customer customer); OrderService.CheckCustomerLevel(Customer customer); The problem is when I add reference to the second service, I can not reuse the same namespace for the second one (VS error), and when I use a different namespace, the generated classes, although are essentially the same, reside in different namespace, hence different and I end up with two Customer classes in two different namespaces. Anyway around this? I just neeed to have two set of services, reusing the Customer class. I have already tried "reuse types in assembly / all assemblies" check mark when generating proxy classes, but it seems to have no effect. any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Multilingual spellcheck on WPF richtextbox

    - by sub-jp
    I need to turn spellcheck on for a richtextbox, and set the language to one the user has picked from a drop down. For now, I'm just testing it by building the richtextbox in xaml and providing a language to the xaml language attribute. I've read two different resources and one says I need to set the language attribute, and the other says I need to set the xml:lang attribute. Neither seems to work. I've tried setting either one to "es" for Spanish, and I've also tried setting both to "es". I've also tried french by setting them to "fr-FR", without success. The only thing that happens is that english words aren't marked, but the other language words are marked as misspelled. I also read that I need to change the keyboard language. This would be a problem for my application as the language within the application needs to be switched on the fly, so having the end user go to their keyboard settings just so spellcheck will work is a problem. However, I've changed my keyboard settings, and spell check still does not work properly. This time it doesn't mark anything as misspelled, even misspelled english words. What am I missing? Edit: some links to my references above http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.windows.controls.spellcheck(v=VS.100).aspx http://www.dev102.com/2008/03/25/customize-spellcheck-on-wpf-text-controls/ http://books.google.com/books?id=clLc5BBHqRMC&pg=PA121&lpg=PA121&dq=C%23+wpf+enable+spellcheck&source=bl&ots=_r59pZRDjP&sig=yHMBc39EHKK5gaRMzxlBaEsY890&hl=en&ei=oXnIS8zWH4G88gaq48yGBw&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6&ved=0CBMQ6AEwBQ#v=onepage&q&f=false

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  • ASP.NET with MS Chart disable the vertical line

    - by Bayonian
    Hi, I have a graph created with MS Chart like the following picture. As you can see the vertical lines are messed up with value of the top of each bar. Here's the mark-up for the graph: <asp:Chart ID="chtNBAChampionships" runat="server"> <Series> <asp:Series Name="Championships" YValueType="Int32" ChartType="Column" ChartArea="MainChartArea" IsValueShownAsLabel="true"> <Points> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Celtics" YValues="17" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Lakers" YValues="15" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Bulls" YValues="6" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Spurs" YValues="4" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="76ers" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Pistons" YValues="3" /> <asp:DataPoint AxisLabel="Warriors" YValues="3" /> </Points> </asp:Series> </Series> <ChartAreas> <asp:ChartArea Name="MainChartArea"> </asp:ChartArea> </ChartAreas> </asp:Chart> I don't want the display the vertical line because it's messed up with the value on top of the each bar. How can I disable the vertical line? Thank you.

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  • How to implement Priority Queues in Python?

    - by dragosrsupercool
    Sorry for such a silly question but Python docs are confusing.. . Link 1: Queue Implementation http://docs.python.org/library/queue.html It says thats Queue has a contruct for priority queue. But I could not find how to implement it. class Queue.PriorityQueue(maxsize=0) Link 2: Heap Implementation http://docs.python.org/library/heapq.html Here they says that we can implement priority queues indirectly using heapq pq = [] # list of entries arranged in a heap entry_finder = {} # mapping of tasks to entries REMOVED = '<removed-task>' # placeholder for a removed task counter = itertools.count() # unique sequence count def add_task(task, priority=0): 'Add a new task or update the priority of an existing task' if task in entry_finder: remove_task(task) count = next(counter) entry = [priority, count, task] entry_finder[task] = entry heappush(pq, entry) def remove_task(task): 'Mark an existing task as REMOVED. Raise KeyError if not found.' entry = entry_finder.pop(task) entry[-1] = REMOVED def pop_task(): 'Remove and return the lowest priority task. Raise KeyError if empty.' while pq: priority, count, task = heappop(pq) if task is not REMOVED: del entry_finder[task] return task raise KeyError('pop from an empty priority queue' Which is the most efficient priority queue implementation in python? And how to implement it?

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  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

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  • .NET custom property attribute?

    - by ropstah
    EDIT: I'd better rephrase: How can I shift the GET-implementation of a Class property to a / using a custom attribute? (I've added instantation vars (classname, propertyname) to the attribute, however I'd rather have these automatically fetched ofcourse.) Public Class CustomClass <CustomAttributeClass(ClassName:="CustomClass", PropertyName = "SomeProperty")> _ Public Property SomeProperty() as String Get() as String //This implementation should be handled by the attribute class End Get Set(Byval value as String) Me._someProperty = value End Set End Property End Class Old question: I want to create a custom property attribute for classes. I can create a class derived from Attribute, and 'mark' the property with the attribute, but where to go from here? I have a repository where I can quickly get data based on the attributes values. I would like to generalize the behaviour of the property in the attribute but I don't know how to go from here... Any help would be greatly accepted! Public Class CustomDataAttribute : Inherits Attribute Private _name As String Public Sub New(ByVal name As String) Me.Name = name End Sub Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) Me._name = value End Set End Property End Class Public Class CustomClass <CustomDataAttribute(Name:="CustomField")> _ Public Property CustomField() End Property End Class

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  • g++ C++0x enum class Compiler Warnings

    - by Travis G
    I've been refactoring my horrible mess of C++ type-safe psuedo-enums to the new C++0x type-safe enums because they're way more readable. Anyway, I use them in exported classes, so I explicitly mark them to be exported: enum class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyEnum : unsigned int { One = 1, Two = 2 }; Compiling this with g++ yields the following warning: type attributes ignored after type is already defined This seems very strange, since, as far as I know, that warning is meant to prevent actual mistakes like: class __attribute__((visibility("default"))) MyClass { }; class __attribute__((visibility("hidden"))) MyClass; Of course, I'm clearly not doing that, since I have only marked the visibility attributes at the definition of the enum class and I'm not re-defining or declaring it anywhere else (I can duplicate this error with a single file). Ultimately, I can't make this bit of code actually cause a problem, save for the fact that, if I change a value and re-compile the consumer without re-compiling the shared library, the consumer passes the new values and the shared library has no idea what to do with them (although I wouldn't expect that to work in the first place). Am I being way too pedantic? Can this be safely ignored? I suspect so, but at the same time, having this error prevents me from compiling with Werror, which makes me uncomfortable. I would really like to see this problem go away.

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  • Debugger ignores me.

    - by atch
    Having code: Date::Date(const char* day, const char* month, const char* year):is_leap__(false) { my_day_ = lexical_cast<int>(day); my_month_ = static_cast<Month>(lexical_cast<int>(month)); /*Have to check month here, other ctor assumes month is correct*/ if (my_month_ < 1 || my_month_ > 12) { throw std::exception("Incorrect month."); } my_year_ = lexical_cast<int>(year); if (!check_range_year_(my_year_)) { throw std::exception("Year out of range."); } if (check_leap_year_(my_year_))//SKIPS THIS LINE { is_leap__ = true; } if (!check_range_day_(my_day_, my_month_)) { throw std::exception("Day out of range."); } } bool Date::check_leap_year_(int year)const//IF I MARK THIS LINE WITH BREAKPOINT I'M GETTING MSG THAT THERE IS NO EXECUTABLE CODE IS ASSOSIATED WITH THIS LINE { if (!(year%400) || (year%100 && !(year%4))) { return true; } else { return false; } } Which is very strange in my opinion. There is call to this fnc in my code, why compiler ignores that. P.S. I'm trying to debug in release.

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  • Can I use boost::make_shared with a private constructor?

    - by Billy ONeal
    Consider the following: class DirectoryIterator; namespace detail { class FileDataProxy; class DirectoryIteratorImpl { friend class DirectoryIterator; friend class FileDataProxy; WIN32_FIND_DATAW currentData; HANDLE hFind; std::wstring root; DirectoryIteratorImpl(); explicit DirectoryIteratorImpl(const std::wstring& pathSpec); void increment(); public: ~DirectoryIteratorImpl() {}; }; class FileDataProxy //Serves as a proxy to the WIN32_FIND_DATA struture inside the iterator. { friend class DirectoryIterator; boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> iteratorSource; FileDataProxy(boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> parent) : iteratorSource(parent) {}; public: std::wstring GetFolderPath() const { return iteratorSource->root; } }; } class DirectoryIterator : public boost::iterator_facade<DirectoryIterator, detail::FileDataProxy, std::input_iterator_tag> { friend class boost::iterator_core_access; boost::shared_ptr<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl> impl; void increment() { impl->increment(); }; detail::FileDataProxy dereference() const { return detail::FileDataProxy(impl); }; public: DirectoryIterator() { impl = boost::make_shared<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl>(); }; }; It seems like DirectoryIterator should be able to call boost::make_shared<DirectoryIteratorImpl>, because it is a friend of DirectoryIteratorImpl. However, this code fails to compile because the constructor for DirectoryIteratorImpl is private. Since this class is an internal implementation detail that clients of DirectoryIterator should never touch, it would be nice if I could keep the constructor private. Is this my fundamental misunderstanding around make_shared or do I need to mark some sort of boost piece as friend in order for the call to compile?

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  • Code Golf: Tic Tac Toe

    - by Aistina
    Post your shortest code, by character count, to check if a player has won, and if so, which. Assume you have an integer array in a variable b (board), which holds the Tic Tac Toe board, and the moves of the players where: 0 = nothing set 1 = player 1 (X) 2 = player 2 (O) So, given the array b = [ 1, 2, 1, 0, 1, 2, 1, 0, 2 ] would represent the board X|O|X -+-+- |X|O -+-+- X| |O For that situation, your code should output 1 to indicate player 1 has won. If no-one has won you can output 0 or false. My own (Ruby) solution will be up soon. Edit: Sorry, forgot to mark it as community wiki. You can assume the input is well formed and does not have to be error checked. Update: Please post your solution in the form of a function. Most people have done this already, but some haven't, which isn't entirely fair. The board is supplied to your function as the parameter. The result should be returned by the function. The function can have a name of your choosing.

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  • Mutability design patterns in Objective C and C++

    - by Mac
    Having recently done some development for iPhone, I've come to notice an interesting design pattern used a lot in the iPhone SDK, regarding object mutability. It seems the typical approach there is to define an immutable class NSFoo, and then derive from it a mutable descendant NSMutableFoo. Generally, the NSFoo class defines data members, getters and read-only operations, and the derived NSMutableFoo adds on setters and mutating operations. Being more familiar with C++, I couldn't help but notice that this seems to be a complete opposite to what I'd do when writing the same code in C++. While you certainly could take that approach, it seems to me that a more concise approach is to create a single Foo class, mark getters and read-only operations as const functions, and also implement the mutable operations and setters in the same class. You would then end up with a mutable class, but the types Foo const*, Foo const& etc all are effectively the immutable equivalent. I guess my question is, does my take on the situation make sense? I understand why Objective-C does things differently, but are there any advantages to the two-class approach in C++ that I've missed? Or am I missing the point entirely? Not an overly serious question - more for my own curiosity than anything else.

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  • How to load local images in webview in Iphone sdk?

    - by monish
    Hi guys, Here I am getting a problem when I am loading local Image in the webview using html code my image was not diplaying in my webview here is my code for Loading the local image in webview: htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"<table width=85% cellpadding=3 cellspacing=0 border=0> "]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"<tr>"]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"<td >"]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"<div align='Right'><a href='/reviews/"]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"'>"]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"<img src ='reviews1.jpg' BORDER=0 HEIGHT=148 WIDTH=110/>"]; htmlString = [htmlString stringByAppendingString:@"</a>"]; - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView*)webView2 shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest*)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { //CAPTURE USER LINK-CLICK. if (navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked) { NSURL *aURL = [request URL]; NSString* aurlString = [aURL absoluteString]; if ( [aurlString rangeOfString:@"/reviews/"].location != NSNotFound) { [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = YES; ReviewWebViewController* viewController = [[ReviewWebViewController alloc] init]; viewController.loadUrl=[techProducts techProductReviewUrl]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:viewController animated:YES]; [UIApplication sharedApplication].networkActivityIndicatorVisible = NO; [viewController release]; return NO; } } } Here no image was displaying only ?mark is displaying . guys pls help me to get out of dis prb. Thank you, Monish.

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  • How do I make a jQuery POST function open the new page?

    - by ciclistadan
    I know that a submit button in HTML can submit a form which opens the target page, but how do I cause a jQuery ajax call POST information to a new page and display the new page. I am submitting information that is gathered by clicking elements (which toggle a new class) and then all items with this new class are added to an array and POSTed to a new page. I can get it to POST the data but it seems to be working functioning in an ajax non-refreshing manner, not submitting the page and redirecting to the new page. how might I go about doing this? here's the script section: //onload function $(function() { //toggles items to mark them for purchase //add event handler for selecting items $(".line").click(function() { //get the lines item number var item = $(this).toggleClass("select").attr("name"); }); $('#process').click(function() { var items = []; //place selected numbers in a string $('.line.select').each(function(index){ items.push($(this).attr('name')); }); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'additem.php', data: 'items='+items, success: function(){ $('#menu').hide(function(){ $('#success').fadeIn(); }); } }); }); return false; }); any pointers would be great!! thanks

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  • Nested multithread operations tracing

    - by Sinix
    I've a code alike void ExecuteTraced(Action a, string message) { TraceOpStart(message); a(); TraceOpEnd(message); } The callback (a) could call ExecuteTraced again, and, in some cases, asynchronously (via ThreadPool, BeginInvoke, PLINQ etc, so I've no ability to explicitly mark operation scope). I want to trace all operation nested (even if they perform asynchronously). So, I need the ability to get last traced operation inside logical call context (there may be a lot of concurrent threads, so it's impossible to use lastTraced static field). There're CallContext.LogicalGetData and CallContext.LogicalSetData, but unfortunately, LogicalCallContext propagates changes back to the parent context as EndInvoke() called. Even worse, this may occure at any moment if EndInvoke() was called async. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/883486/endinvoke-changes-current-callcontext-why Also, there is Trace.CorrelationManager, but it based on CallContext and have all the same troubles. There's a workaround: use the CallContext.HostContext property which does not propagates back as async operation ended. Also, it does'nt clone, so the value should be immutable - not a problem. Though, it's used by HttpContext and so, workaround is not usable in Asp.Net apps. The only way I see is to wrap HostContext (if not mine) or entire LogicalCallContext into dynamic and dispatch all calls beside last traced operation. Help, please!

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  • Trying to build a Drupal-like CMS in ASP.NET MVC - Newbie Questions

    - by user252160
    I am new to ASP.NET MVC, and the ASP.NET technology in general, so, please, excuse the stupidity of my questions. I have a lot of experience with php development and CMS customization (Drupal and Wordpress mainly), and I wanted to know whether some techniques could be applied in asp.net mvc. I want to know what exactly could be modified without recompiling an already built application Can I edit the views without recompiling the app. Can I create custom themes ? Can I add plugins compiled as dlls and use them at runtime. Can I "mark" the assembly in such a way that the web application will check on the next request and will reference it, without me manually adding it to the project and recompiling. I've heard that this is possible. I will make sure to add more when something comes up. The reason I am asking is because I'd like to try and develop a Drupal-like CMS (custom types, views, etc) in asp.net mvc. The dynamism of php will be quite a challenge to replicate in a compiled technology, yet I am ready to try.

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  • Com server build using Python on 64-bit Windows 7 machine

    - by Vijayendra Bapte
    Original post is here: http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/2010-December/011011.html I am using: OS: 64 bit Windows 7 Professional Python: python-2.7.1.amd64 Python win32 extensions: pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 Py2exe: py2exe-0.6.9.win64-py2.7.amd64 I am trying to build icon overlay for Windows. It has worked fine on 32 bit Windows but not working on 64 bit Windows 7. Here are the Python modules I have created for testing: test_icon_overlay.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0002.obj ) com server created in Python for icon overlay which adds check mark overlay icon(C:\icons\test.ico) on "C:\icons" folder setup_VI.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0003.obj ) setup file which creates test_icon_overlay.dll for distribution. icons.zip: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0001.zip ) for testing you should extract icons.zip inside C:\ Icon overlay appears on C:\icons folder when I execute python test_icon_overlay.py on Windows command prompt and restarts explorer.exe. But its not working with the dll file created using setup_VI.py I have created dll file using python setup_VI.py py2exe and then tried to register it using regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll. Registration fails with windows error message Error 0x80040201 while registering shell extension. Then I turned on logger in Python27/Lib/site-packages/py2exe/boot_com_servers.py and here is the traceback which I am getting in comerror.txt on regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll PATH is ['C:\\root\\avalon\\module\\sync\\python\\src\\dist\\library.zip'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "boot_com_servers.py", line 37, in <module> pywintypes.error: (126, 'GetModuleFileName', 'The specified module could not be found.') Traceback (most recent call last): File "<string>", line 1, in <module> NameError: name 'DllRegisterServer' is not defined Looks like there might be a problem with win32api.GetModuleFileName(sys.frozendllhandle) or with the dll build on 64-bit Windows 7. Also, I saw that installation of pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 on 64-bit Windows 7 finish with the error message: Snapshot close failed in file object destructor: sys.excepthook is missing lost sys.stderr Is there anything which I am doing wrong? Any help on this is highly appreciated.

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  • Parsing some particular statements with antlr3 in C target

    - by JCD
    Hello all! I have some questions about antlr3 with tree grammar in C target. I have almost done my interpretor (functions, variables, boolean and math expressions ok) and i have kept the most difficult statements for the end (like if, switch, etc.) 1) I would like interpreting a simple loop statement: repeat: ^(REPEAT DIGIT stmt); I've seen many examples but nothing about the tree walker (only a topic here with the macros MARK() / REWIND(m) + @init / @after but not working (i've antlr errors: "unexpected node at offset 0")). How can i interpret this statement in C? 2) Same question with a simple if statement: if: ^(IF condition stmt elseifstmt* elsestmt?); The problem is to skip the statement if the condition is false and test the other elseif/else statements. 3) I have some statements which can stop the script (like "break" or "exit"). How can i interrupt the tree walker and skip the following tokens? 4) When a lexer or parser error is detected, antlr returns an error. But i would like to make my homemade error messages. How can i have the line number where parser crashed? Ask me if you want more details. Thanks you very much (and i apologize for my poor english)

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  • Map enum in JPA with fixed values ?

    - by Kartoch
    I'm looking for the different ways to map an enum using JPA. I especially want to set the integer value of each enum entry and to save only the integer value. @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORITY_") public class Authority implements Serializable { public enum Right { READ(100), WRITE(200), EDITOR (300); private int value; Right(int value) { this.value = value; } public int getValue() { return value; } }; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "AUTHORITY_ID") private Long id; // the enum to map : private Right right; } A simple solution is to use the Enumerated annotation with EnumType.ORDINAL: @Column(name = "RIGHT") @Enumerated(EnumType.ORDINAL) private Right right; But in this case JPA maps the enum index (0,1,2) and not the value I want (100,200,300). Th two solutions I found do not seem simple... First Solution A solution, proposed here, uses @PrePersist and @PostLoad to convert the enum to an other field and mark the enum field as transient: @Basic private int intValueForAnEnum; @PrePersist void populateDBFields() { intValueForAnEnum = right.getValue(); } @PostLoad void populateTransientFields() { right = Right.valueOf(intValueForAnEnum); } Second Solution The second solution proposed here proposed a generic conversion object, but still seems heavy and hibernate-oriented (@Type doesn't seem to exist in JEE): @Type( type = "org.appfuse.tutorial.commons.hibernate.GenericEnumUserType", parameters = { @Parameter( name = "enumClass", value = "Authority$Right"), @Parameter( name = "identifierMethod", value = "toInt"), @Parameter( name = "valueOfMethod", value = "fromInt") } ) Is there any other solutions ? I've several ideas in mind but I don't know if they exist in JPA: use the setter and getter methods of right member of Authority Class when loading and saving the Authority object an equivalent idea would be to tell JPA what are the methods of Right enum to convert enum to int and int to enum Because I'm using Spring, is there any way to tell JPA to use a specific converter (RightEditor) ?

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  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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