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  • Java DriverManager Always Assigns My Driver

    - by JGB146
    I am writing a driver to act as a wrapper around two separate MySQL connections (to distributed databases). Basically, the goal is to enable interaction with my driver for all applications instead of requiring the application to sort out which database holds the desired data. Most of the code for this is in place, but I'm having a problem in that when I attempt to create connections via the MySQL Driver, the DriverManager is returning an instance of my driver instead of the MySQL Driver. I'd appreciate any tips on what could be causing this and what could be done to fix it! Below is a few relevant snippets of code. I can provide more, but there's a lot, so I'd need to know what else you want to see. First, from MyDriver.java: public MyDriver() throws SQLException { DriverManager.registerDriver(this); } public Connection connect(String url, Properties info) throws SQLException { try { return new MyConnection(info); } catch (Exception e) { return null; } } public boolean acceptsURL(String url) throws SQLException { if (url.contains("jdbc:jgb://")) { return true; } return false; } It is my understanding that this acceptsURL function will dictate whether or not the DriverManager deems my driver a suitable fit for a given URL. Hence it should only be passing connections from my driver if the URL contains "jdbc:jgb://" right? Here's code from MyConnection.java: Connection c1 = null; Connection c2 = null; /** *Constructors */ public DDBSConnection (Properties info) throws SQLException, Exception { info.list(System.out); //included for testing Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver").newInstance(); String url1 = "jdbc:mysql://server1.com/jgb"; String url2 = "jdbc:mysql://server2.com/jgb"; this.c1 = DriverManager.getConnection( url1, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); this.c2 = DriverManager.getConnection( url2, info.getProperty("username"), info.getProperty("password")); } And this tells me two things. First, the info.list() call confirms that the correct user and password are being sent. Second, because we enter an infinite loop, we see that the DriverManager is providing new instances of my connection as matches for the mysql URLs instead of the desired mysql driver/connection. FWIW, I have separately tested implementations that go straight to the mysql driver using this exact syntax (al beit only one at a time), and was able to successfully interact with each database individually from a test application outside of my driver.

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  • Retain a list of objects and pass it to the create/edit view when validation fails in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by brainnovative
    I am binding a Foreign key property in my model. I am passing a list of possible values for that property in my model. The model looks something like this: public class UserModel { public bool Email { get; set; } public bool Name { get; set; } public RoleModel Role { get; set; } public IList<RoleModel> Roles { get; set; } } public class RoleModel { public string RoleName { get; set; } } This is what I have in the controller: public ActionResult Create() { IList<RoleModel> roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles()); UserModel model = new UserModel() { Roles = roles }; return View(model); } In the view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Role) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.Role, new SelectList(Model.Roles, "RoleName", "RoleName", Model.Role))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Role)%> </div> What do I need to do to get the list of roles back to my controller to pass it again to the view when validation fails. This is what I need: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(UserModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // insert logic here } //the validation fails so I pass the model again to the view for user to update data but model.Roles is null :( return View(model); } As written in the comments above I need to pass the model with the list of roles again to my view but model.Roles is null. Currently I ask the service again for the roles (model.Roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles());) but I don't want to add an extra overhead of getting the list from DB when I have already done that.. Anyone knows how to do it?

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  • Marshalling non-Blittable Structs from C# to C++

    - by Greggo
    I'm in the process of rewriting an overengineered and unmaintainable chunk of my company's library code that interfaces between C# and C++. I've started looking into P/Invoke, but it seems like there's not much in the way of accessible help. We're passing a struct that contains various parameters and settings down to unmanaged codes, so we're defining identical structs. We don't need to change any of those parameters on the C++ side, but we do need to access them after the P/Invoked function has returned. My questions are: What is the best way to pass strings? Some are short (device id's which can be set by us), and some are file paths (which may contain Asian characters) Should I pass an IntPtr to the C# struct or should I just let the Marshaller take care of it by putting the struct type in the function signature? Should I be worried about any non-pointer datatypes like bools or enums (in other, related structs)? We have the treat warnings as errors flag set in C++ so we can't use the Microsoft extension for enums to force a datatype. Is P/Invoke actually the way to go? There was some Microsoft documentation about Implicit P/Invoke that said it was more type-safe and performant. For reference, here is one of the pairs of structs I've written so far: C++ /** Struct used for marshalling Scan parameters from managed to unmanaged code. */ struct ScanParameters { LPSTR deviceID; LPSTR spdClock; LPSTR spdStartTrigger; double spinRpm; double startRadius; double endRadius; double trackSpacing; UINT64 numTracks; UINT32 nominalSampleCount; double gainLimit; double sampleRate; double scanHeight; LPWSTR qmoPath; //includes filename LPWSTR qzpPath; //includes filename }; C# /// <summary> /// Struct used for marshalling scan parameters between managed and unmanaged code. /// </summary> [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct ScanParameters { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string deviceID; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdClock; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string spdStartTrigger; public Double spinRpm; public Double startRadius; public Double endRadius; public Double trackSpacing; public UInt64 numTracks; public UInt32 nominalSampleCount; public Double gainLimit; public Double sampleRate; public Double scanHeight; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qmoPath; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPWStr)] public string qzpPath; }

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  • Android onActivityResult is always 0

    - by Dean
    This has been killing me for two days now. I have a main Activity A which calls a second Activity B. Activity B simply presents the user with a listview. When I press an item on the list view I want a couple of strings to be passed back to the main Activity A and Activiy B will finish. The problem is I always get a resultcode of 0 and the data bundle is null. I really don't understand why this is happening. Here is my code. Start Activity B for result; Test.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent i = new Intent(recipeActivity.this, BrowseLoadRecipes.class); startActivityForResult(i, RECIPE_CHOOSER); } }); This starts the second Activity fine. Activity B populates a listview and when I click an item I'm trying to send some data back to the calling Activity A. Any text at the moment, so I used the following in Activity B; lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> a, View v, int position, long id) { Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("TEXT", "Please work... pleeeeaasee"); Intent mIntent = new Intent(); mIntent.putExtras(bundle); setResult(RESULT_OK, mIntent); finish(); } }); In the calling activity I have the following listening for the return as follows; protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { switch(requestCode) { //TODO case RECIPE_CHOOSER: Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "In recipe return", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "resultCode is " + String.valueOf(resultCode), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bundle b = getIntent().getExtras(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Returned " + b.getString("TEXT"), Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } if (resultCode == RESULT_CANCELED) { } break; } } } I can see that the request code is correctly returned, but the resultcode is always a 0 and the data is always a null. I've ran through the debug and the setResult is doing its job and the bundle does indeed have the data I'm passing, but it's lost at some point along the way. Is there something in the manifest I'm missing or something. It's killed my progress on this project so far. Any help would truly be appreciated. Thanks, Dean

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  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

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  • template pass by const reference

    - by 7vies
    Hi, I've looked over a few similar questions, but I'm still confused. I'm trying to figure out how to explicitly (not by compiler optimization etc) and C++03-compatible avoid copying of an object when passing it to a template function. Here is my test code: #include <iostream> using namespace std; struct C { C() { cout << "C()" << endl; } C(const C&) { cout << "C(C)" << endl; } ~C() { cout << "~C()" << endl; } }; template<class T> void f(T) { cout << "f<T>" << endl; } template<> void f(C c) { cout << "f<C>" << endl; } // (1) template<> void f(const C& c) { cout << "f<C&>" << endl; } // (2) int main() { C c; f(c); return 0; } (1) accepts the object of type C, and makes a copy. Here is the output: C() C(C) f<C> ~C() ~C() So I've tried to specialize with a const C& parameter (2) to avoid this, but this simply doesn't work (apparently the reason is explained in this question). Well, I could "pass by pointer", but that's kind of ugly. So is there some trick that would allow to do that somehow nicely? EDIT: Oh, probably I wasn't clear. I already have a templated function template<class T> void f(T) {...} But now I want to specialize this function to accept a const& to another object: template<> void f(const SpecificObject&) {...} But it only gets called if I define it as template<> void f(SpecificObject) {...}

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  • Specializing a template on a lambda in C++0x

    - by Tony A.
    I've written a traits class that lets me extract information about the arguments and type of a function or function object in C++0x (tested with gcc 4.5.0). The general case handles function objects: template <typename F> struct function_traits { template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal { }; template <typename R, typename... A> struct _internal<R (F::*)(A...)> { // ... }; typedef typename _internal<decltype(&F::operator())>::<<nested types go here>>; }; Then I have a specialization for plain functions at global scope: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<R (*)(A...)> { // ... }; This works fine, I can pass a function into the template or a function object and it works properly: template <typename F> void foo(F f) { typename function_traits<F>::whatever ...; } int f(int x) { ... } foo(f); What if, instead of passing a function or function object into foo, I want to pass a lambda expression? foo([](int x) { ... }); The problem here is that neither specialization of function_traits<> applies. The C++0x draft says that the type of the expression is a "unique, unnamed, non-union class type". Demangling the result of calling typeid(...).name() on the expression gives me what appears to be gcc's internal naming convention for the lambda, main::{lambda(int)#1}, not something that syntactically represents a C++ typename. In short, is there anything I can put into the template here: template <typename R, typename... A> struct function_traits<????> { ... } that will allow this traits class to accept a lambda expression?

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  • SAX parser does not resolve filename

    - by phantom-99w
    Another day, another strange error with SAX, Java, and friends. I need to iterate over a list of File objects and pass them to a SAX parser. However, the parser fails because of an IOException. However, the various File object methods confirm that the file does indeed exist. The output which I get: 11:53:57.838 [MainThread] DEBUG DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\TestReactions.xml 11:53:57.841 [MainThread] ERROR DefaultReactionFinder - C:\project\trunk\application\config\reactions\null (The system cannot find the file specified) So the problem is obviously that null in the second line. I've tried nearly all variations of passing the file as a parameter to the parser, including as a String (both from getAbsolutePath() and entered by hand), as a URI and, even more weirdly, as a FileInputStream (for this I get the same error, except that the entire relative path gets reported as null, so C:\project\trunk\null). All that I can think of is that the SAXParserFactory is incorrectly configured. I have no idea what is wrong, though. Here is the code concerned: SAXParserFactory factory = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); factory.setValidating(true); try { parser = factory.newSAXParser(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error configuring an XML parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } catch (SAXException e) { throw new InstantiationException("Error creating a SAX parser. Given error message: \"" + e.getMessage() + "\"."); } ... for (File f : fileLister.getFileList()) { logger.debug(f.getAbsolutePath()); try { parser.parse(f, new ReactionHandler(input)); //FileInputStream fs = new FileInputStream(f); //parser.parse(fs, new ReactionHandler(input)); //fs.close(); } catch (IOException e) { logger.error(e.getMessage()); throw new ReactionNotFoundException("An error occurred processing file \"" + f + "\"."); } ... } I have made no special provisions to provide a custom SAX parser implementation: I use the system default. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • manipulate variable made up of html before adding it to the dom (new in jQuery 1.4???)

    - by pedalpete
    I thought I had seen this in the first announcement of jQuery 1.4, but can't seem to find anything now. I have a calendar table which is built dynamically from a json ajax response. The table is built in a variable called putHtml. Currently, once the table is added to the DOM, I run a showEvents function which takes each event and adds it to the appropriate cell in the table. Unfortunately, when I have 100 events, that means I am updating the DOM 100 seperate times. Which is getting rather slow. I use the showEvents function to add events dynamically, so it would be really nice if I could just use the same function, and specify to look in the DOM for the cell to add the event to, or look in the variable (assuming I've got it right, and you can actually do this with jQuery). The code I use currenlty is this jQuery('div#calendars').append('putHtml.join('')); for(var e in thisCal.events){ showEvent(thisCal.events[e]); } What I had attempted to do instead was for(var e in thisCal.events){ showEvent(thisCal.events[e],putHtml); } jQuery('div#calendars').append('putHtml.join('')); the showEvents function looks like this function showEvents(event){ var eventDate=event.date; var eventTime=event.time; var eventGroup=event.group; var eventName=event.name; var eventType=event.type; var whereEvent=jQuery('div.a'+eventDate, 'table.'+eventGroup); var putEvent='<div class="event" id="a+'eventDate+'_'+eventTime+'">'+eventName+'</div>' jQuery(whereEvent, 'div#calendar').append(putEvent); if(eventType2){ jQuery(whereEvent, 'div#listings').append(putEvent); } } when attempting to manipulate the variable putHtml before adding to the dom, I was passing putHtml into the showEvent function, so instead of '(whereEvent, 'div#calendar'), I had (whereEvent, putHtml), but that didn't work. of course, the other method to accomplish this would be that when I make each cell, I iterate over the events json, and apply the appropriate html to the cell at the time, but that means repetitively running over the entire json in order to get the event to put in the cell. Is there another/better way to do something like this?

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • How can i maintain last cookie value in flex with jsp?

    - by praveen
    Hi All, my login form in flex when I login I have created a cookie in jsp like this name setValueCookie.jsp <%@ page language="java" import="java.util.* , javax.net.*" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <% String username = request.getParameter("value"); System.out.println("Email got in cookieSet = " + username); if(username==null) username=""; Date now = new Date(); String timestamp = now.toString(); Cookie cookie = new Cookie("username",username); cookie.setMaxAge(365 * 24 * 60 * 60); response.addCookie(cookie); %> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>DashBoard-Cookie</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> now using Http service request parameter i am passing username 'Value' to this jsp. and i am reading cookie value from getValueCookie.jsp like this <% String cookieName = "username"; Cookie cookies [] = request.getCookies (); Cookie myCookie = null; String result; if (cookies != null) { for (int i = 0; i < cookies.length; i++) { if (cookies [i].getName().equals (cookieName)) { myCookie = cookies[i]; break; } } } %> <data> <status><%=myCookie.getValue().toString()%></status> </data> through the httpservice value i am getting but if i open a new window or any new tab cookie value is not getting how can i solve this? Thanks in advance.

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  • Ping remote server and wait to get data

    - by infinity
    Hi I'm building my first application for android and I've reached a point where I can't find a solution even have no idea what to search for in Google. So the problem: I am pinging a remote server with GET request through the application passing some parameters like file_id. Then the server gives back confirmation if the file exists or error otherwise, both in plain text. The error string is $$$ERROR$$$. Actually the confirmation is JSON string that holds the path to the file. If the file doesn't exists on the server it generated the error message and start downloading the file and processing it which normally takes 10-30 seconds. What would be the best way to check if the file is ready for download? I have DownloadFile class that extends AsyncTask but before I reach the point to download the file I need the URL which is dependant on the previous request which is in the main class in the UI thread. Here is some code: public class MainActivity extends Activity { private String getInfo() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpPost = new HttpGet(infoUrl); StringBuilder sb = null; String data; JSONObject jObject = null; try { HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(httpPost); // This might be equal "$$$ERROR$$$" if no file exists sb = inputStreamToString(response.getEntity().getContent()); } catch(ClientProtocolException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem ClientProtocolException: ", e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem IOException: ", e.toString()); } // Clean the data to be complaint JSON format data = sb.toString().replace("info = ", ""); try { jObject = new JSONObject(data); data = jObject.getString("h"); fileTitle = jObject.getString("title"); } catch (JSONException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } downloadUrl = String.format(downloadUrl, fileId, data); return downloadUrl; } } So my idea was to get the content and if equal to $$$ERROR$$$ go into loop until JSON data is passed but I guess there is better solution. Note: I don't have control over the server output so have to deal with what I have.

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  • C++: get const or non-const reference type from trait

    - by maciekp
    I am writing a functor F which takes function of type void (*func)(T) and func's argument arg. Then functor F calls func with arg. I would like F not to copy arg, just to pass it as reference. But then I cannot simply write "void F(void (*func)(T), T&)" because T could be a reference. So I am trying to write a trait, which allows to get proper reference type of T: T -> T& T& -> T& const T -> const T& const T& -> const T& I come up with something like this: template<typename T> struct type_op { typedef T& valid_ref_type; }; template<typename T> struct type_op<T&> { typedef typename type_op<T>::valid_ref_type valid_ref_type; }; template<typename T> struct type_op<const T> { typedef const T& valid_ref_type; }; template<typename T> struct type_op<const T&> { typedef const T& valid_ref_type; }; Which doesn't work for example for void a(int x) { std::cout << x << std::endl; } F(&a, 7); Giving error: invalid initialization of non-const reference of type ‘int&’ from a temporary of type ‘int’ in passing argument 2 of ‘void f(void (*)(T), typename type_op::valid_ref_type) [with T = int]’ How to get this trait to work?

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  • MooTools request fails

    - by acoder
    Hi everyone, I am trying to achieve this task using MooTools. Description: I have three buttons. Two buttons outside myDiv and one button inside myDiv. A click on any of these buttons initiates an AJAX request (passing button variable to "button.php") and updates myDiv content based on the response text. So, after update, myDiv shows Button3 link + a message showing which button has been clicked. The problem: Everything seems to work fine but after several clicks, it happens that myDiv shows loader.gif image and stops. After this, if I wait a few moments, the browser sometimes stops working (gets blocked). I noticed this problem with IE6. Does anyone know what does this problem mean and how it can be avoided? index.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="mootools/mootools-1.2.4-core-nc.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="mootools/mootools-1.2.4.4-more.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> window.addEvent('domready', function() { $("myPage").addEvent("click:relay(a)", function(e) { e.stop(); var myRequest = new Request({ method: 'post', url: 'button.php', data: { button : this.get('id'), test : 'test' }, onRequest: function() { $('myDiv').innerHTML = '<img src="images/loader.gif" />'; }, onComplete: function(response) { $('myDiv').innerHTML = response; } }); myRequest.send(); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="myPage"> <a href="#" id="button1">Button1</a> <a href="#" id="button2">Button2</a> <div id="myDiv"> <a href="#" id="button3">Button3</a> </div> </div> </body> </html> button.php <a href="#" id="button3"Button3</a> <br><br> <?php echo 'You clicked ['.$_REQUEST['button'].']'; ?>

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  • Problem with pointers and getstring function

    - by volting
    I am trying to write a function to get a string from the uart1. Its for an embedded system so I don't want to use malloc. The pointer that is passed to the getstring function seems to point to garbage after the gets_e_uart1() is called. I don't use pointers too often so I'm sure it is something really stupid and trivial that Im doing wrong. Regards, V int main() { char *ptr = 0; while(1) { gets_e_uart1(ptr, 100); puts_uart1(ptr); } return 0; }*end main*/ //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char buffer_[SIZE_]; stringPtr_ = buffer_; int start_ = 0, end_ = SIZE_ - 1; char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((buffer_[start_++] = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(buffer_[start_]);//echo it /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { start_ = 0; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { buffer_[0] = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { buffer_[start_++] = '\0'; } return errorflag; } Update: I decided to go with approach of passing a pointer an array to the function. This works nicely, thanks to everyone for the informative answers. Updated Code: //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //argument 1 should be a pointer to an array, //and the second argument should be the size of the array //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char *startPtr_ = stringPtr_; char *endPtr_ = startPtr_ + (SIZE_ - 1); char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((*stringPtr_ = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(*stringPtr_);//echo it stringPtr_++; /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; *stringPtr_ = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { *stringPtr_ = '\0'; } return errorflag; }

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  • Thread feeding other MultiThreading

    - by alaamh
    I see it's easy to open pipe between two process using fork, but how we can passing open pipe to threads. Assume we need to pass out of PROGRAM A to PROGRAM B "may by more than one thread", PROGRAM B send his output to PROGRAM C #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <pthread.h> struct targ_s { char* reader; }; void *thread1(void *arg) { struct targ_s *targ = (struct targ_s*) arg; int status, fd[2]; pid_t pid; pipe(fd); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) { int fd = fileno( targ->fd_reader ); dup2(STDIN_FILENO, fd); close(fd[0]); dup2(fd[1], STDOUT_FILENO); close(fd[1]); execvp ("PROGRAM B", NULL); exit(1); } else { close(fd[1]); dup2(fd[0], STDIN_FILENO); close(fd[0]); execl("PROGRAM C", NULL); wait(&status); return NULL; } } int main(void) { FILE *fpipe; char *command = "PROGRAM A"; char buffer[1024]; if (!(fpipe = (FILE*) popen(command, "r"))) { perror("Problems with pipe"); exit(1); } char* outfile = "out.dat"; FILE* f = fopen (outfile, "wb"); int fd = fileno( f ); struct targ_s targ; targ.fd_reader = outfile; pthread_t thid; if (pthread_create(&thid, NULL, thread1, &targ) != 0) { perror("pthread_create() error"); exit(1); } int len; while (read(fpipe, buffer, sizeof (buffer)) != 0) { len = strlen(buffer); write(fd, buffer, len); } pclose(fpipe); return (0); }

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  • Sending string to wcf service using jquery ajax. why can i only send strings of numbers?

    - by Robodude
    Hi Guys, For some reason, I'm only able to pass strings containing numbers to my web service when using jquery ajax. This hasn't been an issue so far because I was always just passing IDs to my wcf service. But I'm trying to do something more complex now but I can't figure it out. In my interface: [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json); My webservice: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(string json) { DataTableOutput x = new DataTableOutput(); x.iTotalDisplayRecords = 9; x.iTotalRecords = 50; x.sColumns = "1"; x.sEcho = "1"; x.aaData = null; return x; } Javascript/Jquery: var x = "1"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: "Services/Service1.svc/GetDataTableOutput", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: x, dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); The above code WORKS perfectly. But when I change x to "t" or even to "{'test':'test'}" I get a Error 400 Bad Request error in Firebug. Thanks, John EDIT: Making some progress! data: JSON.stringify("{'test':'test'}"), Sends the string to my function! EDIT2: var jsonAOData = JSON.stringify(aoData); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: "{'Input':" + jsonAOData + "}", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); EDIT3: I modified the code block I put in EDIT2 up above. Swapping the " and ' did the trick! $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: false, url: sSource, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", data: '{"Input":' + jsonAOData + '}', dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { }, error: function (XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { //alert(XMLHttpRequest.status); //alert(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); } }); However, I have a new problem: public DataTableOutput GetDataTableOutput(DataTableInputOverview Input) { The input here is completely null. The values I passed from jsonAOData didn't get assigned to the DataTableInputOverview Input variable. :(

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  • Is it any loose coupling mechanism in Objective-C + Cocoa like C# delegates or C++Qt signals+slots?

    - by Eye of Hell
    Hello. For a large programs, the standard way to chalenge a complexity is to divide a program code into small objects. Most of the actual programming languages offer this functionality via classes, so is Objective-C. But after source code is separated into small object, the second challenge is to somehow connect them with each over. Standard approaches, supported by most languages are compositon (one object is a member field of another), inheritance, templates (generics) and callbacks. More cryptic techniques include method-level delagates (C#) and signals+slots (C++Qt). I like the delegates / signals idea, since while connecting two objects i can connect individual methods with each over, without objects knowing anything of each over. For C#, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); object1.SomethingHappened += object2.HandleSomething; In this code, is object1 calls it's SomethingHappened delegate (like a normal method call) the HandleSomething method of object2 will be called. For C++Qt, it will look like this: var object1 = new CObject1(); var object2 = new CObject2(); connect( object1, SIGNAL(SomethingHappened()), object2, SLOT(HandleSomething()) ); The result will be exactly the same. This technique has some advantages and disadvantages, but generally i like it more than interfaces since if program code base grows i can change connections and add new ones without creating tons of interfaces. After examination of Objective-C i havn't found any way to use this technique i like :(. It seems that Objective-C supports message passing perfectly well, but it requres for object1 to have a pointer to object2 in order to pass it a message. If some object needs to be connected to lots of other objects, in Objective-C i will be forced to give him pointers to each of the objects it must be connected. So, the question :). Is it any approach in Objective-C programming that will closely resemble delegate / signal+slot types of connection, not a 'give first object an entire pointer to second object so it can pass a message to it'. Method-level connections are a bit more preferable to me than object-level connection ^_^.

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  • Use multiple inheritance to discriminate useage roles?

    - by Arne
    Hi fellows, it's my flight simulation application again. I am leaving the mere prototyping phase now and start fleshing out the software design now. At least I try.. Each of the aircraft in the simulation have got a flight plan associated to them, the exact nature of which is of no interest for this question. Sufficient to say that the operator way edit the flight plan while the simulation is running. The aircraft model most of the time only needs to read-acess the flight plan object which at first thought calls for simply passing a const reference. But ocassionally the aircraft will need to call AdvanceActiveWayPoint() to indicate a way point has been reached. This will affect the Iterator returned by function ActiveWayPoint(). This implies that the aircraft model indeed needs a non-const reference which in turn would also expose functions like AppendWayPoint() to the aircraft model. I would like to avoid this because I would like to enforce the useage rule described above at compile time. Note that class WayPointIter is equivalent to a STL const iterator, that is the way point can not be mutated by the iterator. class FlightPlan { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) WayPointIter First() const; WayPointIter Last() const; WayPointIter Active() const; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const; (...) }; My idea to overcome the issue is this: define an abstract interface class for each usage role and inherit FlightPlan from both. Each user then only gets passed a reference of the appropriate useage role. class IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint { public: WayPointIter Active() const =0; void AdvanceActiveWayPoint() const =0; }; class IFlightPlanEditable { public: void AppendWayPoint(const WayPointIter& at, WayPoint new_wp); void ReplaceWayPoint(const WayPointIter& ar, WayPoint new_wp); void RemoveWayPoint(WayPointIter at); (...) }; Thus the declaration of FlightPlan would only need to be changed to: class FlightPlan : public IFlightPlanActiveWayPoint, IFlightPlanEditable { (...) }; What do you think? Are there any cavecats I might be missing? Is this design clear or should I come up with somethink different for the sake of clarity? Alternatively I could also define a special ActiveWayPoint class which would contain the function AdvanceActiveWayPoint() but feel that this might be unnecessary. Thanks in advance!

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  • Defining a select list through controller and view model

    - by Ibrar Hussain
    I have a View Model that looks like this: public class SomeViewModel { public SomeViewModel(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> orderTemplatesListItems) { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesListItems; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> OrderTemplateListItems { get; set; } } I then have an Action in my Controller that does this: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var selectList = items.Select(i => new SelectListItem { Text = i.Name, Value = i.Id.ToString() }).ToList(); var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = selectList }; return View(viewModel); } Lastly my view: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") The code works fine and my select list populates wonderfully. Next thing I need to do is set the selected value that will come from a Session["orderTemplateId"] which is set when the user selects a particular option from the list. Now after looking online the fourth parameter should allow me to set a selected value, so if I do this: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text", 56), "Please select an order template") 56 is the Id of the item that I want selected, but to no avail. I then thought why not do it in the Controller? As a final attempt I tried building up my select list items in my Controller and then passing the items into the View: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var orderTemplatesList = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (var item in items) { if (Session["orderTemplateId"] != null) { if (item.Id.ToString() == Session["orderTemplateId"].ToString()) { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString(), Selected = true }); } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesList }; return View(viewModel); } Leaving my View like so: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") Nothing! Why isn't this working for me?

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Determining if Memory Pointer is Valid - C++

    - by Jim Fell
    It has been my observation that if free( ptr ) is called where ptr is not a valid pointer to system-allocated memory, an access violation occurs. Let's say that I call free like this: LPVOID ptr = (LPVOID)0x12345678; free( ptr ); This will most definitely cause an access violation. Is there a way to test that the memory location pointed to by ptr is valid system-allocated memory? It seems to me that the the memory management part of the Windows OS kernel must know what memory has been allocated and what memory remains for allocation. Otherwise, how could it know if enough memory remains to satisfy a given request? (rhetorical) That said, it seems reasonable to conclude that there must be a function (or set of functions) that would allow a user to determine if a pointer is valid system-allocated memory. Perhaps Microsoft has not made these functions public. If Microsoft has not provided such an API, I can only presume that it was for an intentional and specific reason. Would providing such a hook into the system prose a significant threat to system security? Situation Report Although knowing whether a memory pointer is valid could be useful in many scenarios, this is my particular situation: I am writing a driver for a new piece of hardware that is to replace an existing piece of hardware that connects to the PC via USB. My mandate is to write the new driver such that calls to the existing API for the current driver will continue to work in the PC applications in which it is used. Thus the only required changes to existing applications is to load the appropriate driver DLL(s) at startup. The problem here is that the existing driver uses a callback to send received serial messages to the application; a pointer to allocated memory containing the message is passed from the driver to the application via the callback. It is then the responsibility of the application to call another driver API to free the memory by passing back the same pointer from the application to the driver. In this scenario the second API has no way to determine if the application has actually passed back a pointer to valid memory.

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  • Keeping Velocity Constant and Player in Position - Sidescrolling

    - by user2904951
    I'm working on a Little Mobile Game with Cocos2D-X and Box2D. The Point where I got stuck is the movement of a box2d-body (the main actor) and the according Sprite. Now I want to : move this Body with a constant velocity along the x-axis, no matter if it's rolling (it's a circleshape) upwards or downwards keep the body nearly sticking to the ground on which it's rolling keep the Body and the according Sprite in the Center of the Screen. What I tried : in the update()- method I used body->SetLinearVelocity(b2Vec2(x,y)) to higher/lower values, if the Body was passing a constant value for his velocity I used to set very high y-Values in body->SetLinearVelocity(b2Vec2(x,y)) First tried to use CCFollow with my playerSprite, which was also Scrolling along the y-axis, as i only need to scroll along the x-axis, so I decided to move the whole layer which is containing the ambience (platforms etc.) to the left of my Screen and my Player Body & Player sprite to the right of the Screen, adjusting the speed values to Keep the Player in the Center of the Screen. Well... ...didn't work as i wanted it to, because each time i set the velocity manually (I also tried to use body->applyLinearImpulse(...) when the Body is moving upwards just as playing around with the value of velocityIterations in world->Step(...)) there's a small delay, which pushes the player Body more or less further of the Center of the Screen. ... didn't also work as I expected it to, because I needed to adjust the x-Values, when the Body was moving upwards to Keep it not getting slowed down, this made my Body even less sticky to the ground.... ... CCFollow did a good Job, except that I didn't want to scroll along the y-axis also and it Forces the overgiven sprite to start in the Center of the Screen. Moving the whole Layer even brought no good results, I have tried a Long time to adjust values of the movement Speed of the layer and the Body to Keep it negating each other, that the player stays nearly in the Center of the Screen.... So my question is : Does anyone of you have any Kind of new Approach for me to solve this cohesive bunch of Problems ? Cheers, Seb

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  • Preg_replace regex, newlines, connection resets

    - by bob_the_destroyer
    I have mixed html, custom code, and regular text I need to examine and change frequently on several, long wiki pages. I'm working with a proprietary wiki-like application and have no control over how the application functions or validates user input. The layout of pages that users add must follow a very specific standard layout and always include very specific text in only certain places - a standard which frequently changes. If users add pages that are so far out of the standard, they will be deleted. The fact that all this is obviously a complete waste of time when alternative platforms to do exactly what's needed here exist is already understood. I've built a PHP based API to automate this post-validation and frequent restandardization process for me. I've been able set up regex patterns to handle all this mixed text, and they all work fine for handling single lines. The problem I have is this: Poorly formed regex against long text with line breaks can lead to unexpected results, such as connection resets. I have no access to server-side logs to troubleshoot. How do I overcome this? This is just one example of what I currently have: {column} and {section} tags I'm searching for below can have any number of attributes, and wrap any text. {section} may or may not exist and may or may not be one or more lines under {column}, but it has to be wrapped inside {column}. {column} itself may or may not exist, and if it doesn't, I don't care. I want to grab the inner section contents and wrap it in an html div tag. I can't recall the exact pattern I'm using offhand at the moment, but it's close enough... $pattern = "/\{column:id=summary([|]?([a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[:][a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[ ]?))\}(.*)({section([|]([a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[:][a-zA-Z0-9-_ ]+[ ]?))\}(.*)\{section\}(.*))?{column\}/s"; $replacement = "{html}<div id='summary'$7</div{html}"; $text = preg_replace($pattern, $replacement, $subject); Handling the {column} and {section} attributes and passing only valid HTML parameters to the new html div or a subtext of it is itself a challenge, but my main focus above right now is getting that (.*) value within {section} above without causing a connection reset. Any pointers?

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