Search Results

Search found 14745 results on 590 pages for 'setting'.

Page 147/590 | < Previous Page | 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154  | Next Page >

  • Using Pastebin API in Node.js

    - by wiill
    I've been trying to post a paste to Pastebin in Node.js, but it appears that I'm doing it wrong. I'm getting a Bad API request, invalid api_option, however I'm clearly setting the api_option to paste like the documentation asks for. var http = require('http'); var qs = require('qs'); var query = qs.stringify({ api_option: 'paste', api_dev_key: 'xxxxxxxxxxxx', api_paste_code: 'Awesome paste content', api_paste_name: 'Awesome paste name', api_paste_private: 1, api_paste_expire_date: '1D' }); var req = http.request({ host: 'pastebin.com', port: 80, path: '/api/api_post.php', method: 'POST', headers: { 'Content-Type': 'multipart/form-data', 'Content-Length': query.length } }, function(res) { var data = ''; res.on('data', function(chunk) { data += chunk; }); res.on('end', function() { console.log(data); }); }); req.write(query); req.end(); console.log(query) confirms that the string is well encoded and that api_option is there and set to paste. Now, I've been searching forever on possible causes. I also tried setting the encoding on the write req.write(query, 'utf8') because the Pastebin API mentions that the POST must be UTF-8 encoded. I rewrote the thing over and over and re-consulted the Node HTTP documentation many times. I'm pretty sure I completely missed something here, because I don't see how this could fail. Does anyone have an idea of what I have done wrong?

    Read the article

  • How does PATH environment affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

    - by Runner
    #include <gtk/gtk.h> int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { GtkWidget *window; gtk_init (&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new (GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_widget_show (window); gtk_main (); return 0; } I tried putting various versions of MSVCR80.dll under the same directory as the generated executable(via cmake),but none matched. Is there a general solution for this kinda problem? UPDATE Some answers recommend install the VS redist,but I'm not sure whether or not it will affect my installed Visual Studio 9, can someone confirm? Manifest file of the executable <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v3"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="asInvoker" uiAccess="false"></requestedExecutionLevel> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type="win32" name="Microsoft.VC90.DebugCRT" version="9.0.21022.8" processorArchitecture="x86" publicKeyToken="1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b"></assemblyIdentity> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> It seems the manifest file says it should use the MSVCR90, why it always reporting missing MSVCR80.dll? FOUND After spending several hours on it,finally I found it's caused by this setting in PATH: D:\MATLAB\R2007b\bin\win32 After removing it all works fine.But why can that setting affect my running executable from using msvcr90 to msvcr80 ???

    Read the article

  • nginx multiple domain virtual host configuration

    - by Poe
    I'm setting up nginx with multiple domain or wildcard support for convenience sake, rather than setting up 50+ different sites-available/* files. Hopefully this is enough to show you what I'm trying to do. Some are static sites, some are dynamic with usually wordpress installed. If an index.php exists, everything works as expected. If a file is requested that does not exist (missing.html), a 500 error is given due to the rewrite. The logged error is: *112 rewrite or internal redirection cycle while processing "/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/index.php/missing.html" The basic nginx configuration I'm currently using is: ` listen 80 default; server _; ... location / { root /var/www/$host; if (-f $request_filename) { expires max; break; } # problem, what if index.php does not exist? if (!-e $request_filename) { rewrite ^/(.*)$ /index.php/$1 last; } } ... ` If an index.php does not exist, and the file also does not exist, I would like it to error 404. Currently, nginx does not support multiple condition if's or nested if so I need a workaround.

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net forms authentication - multiple providers

    - by Chris Klepeis
    I have an ASP.Net 4.0 application, and within it is a folder called "Forum", setup as a sub application in IIS 7. This forum package implements a custom provider for .net membership. The forum is running in .net 3.5. I'd like to setup the main site so that when users login, it logs them into both my site and the forum site. Both the main site and the forum have separate .Net membership tables. How can I specify which provider to use with formsauthentication? right now I have FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(...); this, however, just uses my default provider and does nothing with the provider for the forum I tried setting the forum app and my web app to have the same cookie name, as well as setting the machinekey on each: <machineKey validationKey="AutoGenerate" validation="SHA1" /> no dice. I googled and didnt really come up with any example of how to use multiple providers like I want to. I updated my web.config to have both provideers but this is useless if I cannot specify in my code which one to use.

    Read the article

  • Inconsistent table width when hideing/showing a set of columns

    - by Salman A. Kagzi
    I have got a an HTML table of around 40+ columns. To make this table fit in the screen and have the data in a re presentable format we have section in this table. i.e. there are some column that are always visible and the remainder a made visible when s specific radio button (describing a section) is selected. Each radio button is associated to different number of columns. We show/hide a column by setting/removing "display:none" style in all the cell under that column. This all works Just fine. Now the real problem is with the width of the columns in this table. I cant use fixed with with pixel settings. I have tried using the percentage setting by giving 50% to the always visible part and rest 50% is divided between the column in a section. But I am unable to get a fixed behavior i.e. the size of the table columns across IE & FF. Some columns are just right while some are really huge. How can I get the table to give consistent column width across browsers?

    Read the article

  • charsets in MySQL replication

    - by niklassaers
    Hi guys, What can I do to ensure that replication will use latin1 instead of utf-8? I'm migrating between an MySQL 5.1.22 server (master) on a Linux system and a MySQL 5.1.42 server (slave) on a FreeBSD system. My replication works well, but when non-ascii characters are in my varchars, they turn "weird". The Linux/MySQL-5.1.22 shows the following character set variables: character_set_client=latin1 character_set_connection=latin1 character_set_database=latin1 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=latin1 character_set_server=latin1 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=latin1_swedish_ci collation_database=latin1_swedish_ci collation_server=latin1_swedish_ci While the FreeBSD shows character_set_client=utf8 character_set_connection=utf8 character_set_database=utf8 character_set_filesystem=binary character_set_results=utf8 character_set_server=utf8 character_set_system=utf8 character_sets_dir=/usr/local/share/mysql/charsets/ collation_connection=utf8_general_ci collation_database=utf8_general_ci collation_server=utf8_general_ci Setting any of these variables from the MySQL CLI has no effect, and setting them in my.cnf or at the command line makes the server not start. Of course, both servers have the tables in question created the same way, in this case with DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1. Let me give you an example: CREATE TABLE `test` ( `test` varchar(5) DEFAULT NULL ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 When I on the master do, in a Latin1 terminal, "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')", this becomes on the slave, when I select it from a Latin1 based terminal +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ On a UTF-8 based terminal on the replication slave, test contains: +--------+ | test | +--------+ | æøå | +--------+ So my conclusion is that it is converted to utf8, even though the table definition is latin1. Is this a correct conclusion? Of course, on the master, in a latin1 terminal, it still says: +------+ | test | +------+ | æøå | +------+ Since both system character sets are utf-8, if I set both terminals to utf-8 and do again "INSERT INTO test VALUES ('æøå')" on the master with a utf-8 terminal, on the slave with utf-8 I get: +------------+ | test | +------------+ | æøà | +------------+ If my conclusion is correct, all my replicated data is converted to utf8 (if it is utf8, it is treated as latin1 and converted to utf8), while all the old data in the table is, as the CREATE TABLE suggests, latin1. I'd love to convert it all to utf-8 if it weren't for the fact that legacy applications rely on it being latin1, so I need to keep it in latin1 while they still exist. What can I do to ensure that the replication reads latin1, treats it as latin1 and writes it on the slave as latin1? Cheers Nik

    Read the article

  • How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

    - by adamjford
    In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

    Read the article

  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

    Read the article

  • A C# Refactoring Question...

    - by james lewis
    I came accross the following code today and I didn't like it. It's fairly obvious what it's doing but I'll add a little explanation here anyway: Basically it reads all the settings for an app from the DB and the iterates through all of them looking for the DB Version and the APP Version then sets some variables to the values in the DB (to be used later). I looked at it and thought it was a bit ugly - I don't like switch statements and I hate things that carry on iterating through a list once they're finished. So I decided to refactor it. My question to all of you is how would you refactor it? Or do you think it even needs refactoring at all? Here's the code: using (var sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(Lfepa.Itrs.Framework.Configuration.ConnectionString)) { sqlConnection.Open(); var dataTable = new DataTable("Settings"); var selectCommand = new SqlCommand(Lfepa.Itrs.Data.Database.Commands.dbo.SettingsSelAll, sqlConnection); var reader = selectCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader[SettingKeyColumnName].ToString().ToUpper()) { case DatabaseVersionKey: DatabaseVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; case ApplicationVersionKey: ApplicationVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; default: break; } } if (DatabaseVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Database Version Setting from the database."); if (ApplicationVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Application Version Setting from the database."); }

    Read the article

  • Matlab set defaultTextInterpreter to LaTeX

    - by Maurits
    I am running Matlab R2010A on OS X 10.7.5 I have a simple matlab plot and would like to use LaTeX commands in the axis and legend. However setting: set(0, 'defaultTextInterpreter', 'latex'); Has zero effect, and results in a TeX warning that my tex commands can not be parsed. If I open plot tools of this plot, the default interpreter is set to 'TeX'. Manually setting this to 'LaTeX' obviously fixes this, but I can't do this for hundreds of plots. Now, if I retrieve the default interpreter via the Matlab prompt, i.e get(0,'DefaultTextInterpreter') It says 'LaTeX', but again, when I look in the properties of the figure via the plot tools menu, the interpreter remains set to 'TeX'. Complete plotting code: figure f = 'somefile.eps' set(0, 'defaultTextInterpreter', 'latex'); ms = 8; fontSize = 18; loglog(p_m_sip, p_fa_sip, 'ko-.', 'LineWidth', 2, 'MarkerSize', ms); hold on; xlabel('$P_{fa}$', 'fontsize', fontSize); ylabel('$P_{m}$', 'fontsize', fontSize); legend('$\textbf{K}_{zz}$', 'Location', 'Best'); set(gca, 'XMinorTick', 'on', 'YMinorTick', 'on', 'YGrid', 'on', 'XGrid', 'on'); print('-depsc2', f);

    Read the article

  • Errors with redefinitions after upgrade to XCode 3.2.3

    - by CA Bearsfan
    I recently upgraded to Snow Leopard and Xcode 3.2.5 so I could test on my iPod Touch and iPhone and ran into some problems with the project I was working on. First it couldn't find a Base SDK, then my old frameworks weren't hooking up correctly. Finally after setting the Project Format to Xcode 3.1 compatible (3.2 also worked) and the Base SDK for all configurations to iOS 4.2, then setting my iOS deployment target to iOS 3.0 I was able to get the system to find a Base SDK and attempt a build. That's when the frameworks didn't want to cooperate. 4/6 I'm using displayed in red, so I re routed the path to the iPhone simulator 4.2 platform which worked perfectly. I was able to build my project, no errors or warnings and my app worked fine. I went to work last night thinking I had fixed the problem. This morning I fired up the laptop and went to build my code base and now have 1142 errors all of which have to do with code I haven't written deemed as being redefined. Suggestions? The following is just a small sample of the error list (obviously don't need to see all 1142) //Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Headers/NSZone.h:48: error: redefinition of 'NSMakeCollectable' /Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Headers/NSObject.h:65: error: duplicate interface declaration for class 'NSObject' /Frameworks/Foundation.framework/Headers/NSObject.h:67: error: redefinition of 'struct NSObject'

    Read the article

  • UITableView superClass for delegate?

    - by fuzzygoat
    A quick question, I am setting a delegate for UITableView and I have a question regarding setting the delegate and dataSource properties. I have noticed that the properties for delegate and dataSource are not available, I was thinking that adopting the protocols would make them available. But I am now thinking that I maybe have the superclass for my delegate class wrong. Currently I have: -(void)viewDidLoad { TestDelegate *tempDelegate = [[TestDelegate alloc] init]; [self setMyDelegate:tempDelegate]; // setDelegate // setDataSource [tempDelegate release]; [super viewDidLoad]; } My interface for TestDelegate looks like: @interface TestDelegate : NSObject <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listData; int myCounter; } Can I ask if the above should be: @interface TestDelegate : UITableView <UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { NSArray *listData; int myCounter; } gary EDIT: I think it might be right as NSObject, I have a viewtableView in IB, thats what I will need to connect my delegate class to. I added to tableView in IB so maybe I just need to make it available in Xcode.

    Read the article

  • Rails and SWFUpload: Sporadic Failure on Upload and Response Issue

    - by Gimli
    I've got SWFUpload version 2.5 beta 3 attached to my Rails 2.3.2 application and it works great 75% of the time. The other 25%, I get types of failure. The first failure is a failure to upload. The activity starts, but never actually sends the file to the servers. In my JS, when setting breakpoints, it stops between setting the post params and starting the upload (last two lines below): var params = { "authenticity_token": authToken, "photo[name]": $("#photo_name").val(), "photo[description]": $("#photo_description").val(), "photo[post_id]": $("#post_id").val() }; params[keyName] = key; swfu.setPostParams(params); swfu.startUpload(); It just occurred to me that the file might not being queued, but I've got a handler attached to show the file name in a text box and that works consistently. The second issue is this: Sometimes the response string is truncated. I'm rendering a partial in Rails without a layout to show the uploaded file data in my layout. Most of the time this partial comes through fine, but sometimes it comes through as only the first line, or only parts of the first several lines. The variables seem to be coming through into the view just fine. Any ideas? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

    Read the article

  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • php Warning: strtotime() Error

    - by Kavithanbabu
    I have changed my joomla and wordpress files from old server to new server. In the front end and admin side its working without any errors. But in the Database (phpmyadmin) Section it shows some warning messages like this.. Warning: strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/db_info.inc.php on line 88 Warning: strftime() [function.strftime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/common.lib.php on line 1483 Can you please suggest, how to hide these warning messages?? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Where to prompt for required file location at start of Win Forms application

    - by Murph
    I have an application that uses a file to store its data. I store the location of the file in the app settings so have two tests at startup: Do I have a setting for the file and Does the file (if I have a setting) exist If I fail either test I want to prompt the user for the file location - the mechanics of the are not the problem, I can read and write the app settings, fire off dialogs and otherwise request the data. If the user refuses to choose a file (or at least a file location) I want to exit the app. My problem is where to do this i.e. at what point in the flow of code. In an ideal world you start the app, show a splash screen, load the main form and run from there... I'm looking for a general pattern that allows me to slot the test for parameters into the right place so that I can prompt the user for whatever (and allowing that I have to worry about the fact that my splash screen is currently topmost for my app). I appreciate that this is a bit vague so will update this with code as we go along.

    Read the article

  • How to set margin for inner controls of WrapPanel

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi Guys! I'm new in WPF and have a question. Here is an example that I'm using: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication2.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <StackPanel> <WrapPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <Button Content="test1" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test2" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test3" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test4" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> <Button Content="test5" Margin="10,0" Padding="10,10" /> </WrapPanel> </StackPanel> As you can see, my wrap panel has several buttons. Each button has the same margin and padding. The question is, is there a way of setting margin and padding for wrap panel, so each element inside the wrap panel may use it values? This make the code shorter and let me specify Margin and Padding only one time instead of setting it for each control in the panel. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • `DesignMode` in subcontrols is not set correctly?

    - by affan
    I have a compound control contains nested controls. The problem i am facing is that control read properties from a global setting class which is static and intern read from setting file. To stop individual control from accessing configuration in design mode i added check in each control. If(!DesignMode){ ... //Initialize properties e.g. prop = AppConfig.GetProperty("prop1"); } The problem is that individual control work fine when open in VS. But when i open top control containing nested control i get error by VS designer. The error is that in a nested control DesignMode=false for some reason. I also created a test app and created a simple control within another control to test if there is a problem with VS but it seem to work correctly for any depth of controls. I dont even know how to debug this. For now i comment out the property initializing code and build it and then open designer and there uncomment it and build it again to run it. Did anyone came across this problem or is there any way to fix it.

    Read the article

  • PayPal sandbox anomalies

    - by Christian
    When testing some donations on my local machine, I set various key=value pairs to do various things (return to specific thank you page, get POST data from PayPal and not GET data and others) I also built my code around the response from the PayPal sandbox. BUT, when my code goes to the production server and we switch on live payments and test with real accounts and money, a few strange things happen; We get a GET response from PayPal - the URL is filled with crap. We get no transaction details. This is the biggie, no name, no txn_id, no dates, nothing. We get a handful of keys etc, its not totally empty and the payment has gone through, but nowhere near the verbosity of the sandbox. Curious about why this might be? It doesn't really make sense to have a sandbox (or dev environment) that is substantially different from the production environment. Or, am I missing something? EDIT: Still no response to my question in the PayPal Developer Forums. I don't even get a donation amount back from PayPal. Is this a setting maybe? EDIT #2: Two of you have suggested to check PDT and Auto-Return. The data analytics guy for the project only 2 hrs ago suggested the same. I have asked the client to confirm this. I can't see a setting for it in the Sandbox so can assume that it is enabled by default?

    Read the article

  • Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

    - by pmlevere
    I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

    Read the article

  • How do I nicely manage many localhost web site URIs with IIS7

    - by Simeon
    I'm having trouble setting up a clean development environment with all the web sites I'm working on. I'm working on up to 40 different web sites, and at least 5 of them simultaneously. I need them all to be in a site root, for URL management to work with all CMSes. My first attempt was to use increasing port numbers for them, beginning with localhost:1000 and working upwards. Unfortunately, it took a great deal of looking up which port belonged to which web site, and it was very irritating. My second try was mapping the irritating ports to real words using the hosts file. So I ended up with localhost.tele2, localhost.ikea, localhost.volvo etc. Unfortunately, this takes a long time to set up (cleaning and adding to the hosts file, setting web site with highest port number in IIS etc.) and regularly I have to flush the DNS cache in order to get some sites working that I've added/removed from the hosts file. So how do I organize a lot of web sites in IIS7 nicely? Perhaps I've missed a very clever method that you're using.

    Read the article

  • Variable not implementing correctly from if statement

    - by swiftsly
    I have an if statement that is supposed to set the variable $pc162v to a link specified in the MySQL table if content exists in the $vid column of the row. The problem is, the PHP is detecting that there's a link in the MySQL, but isn't setting the $pc162v variable correctly. Here's the variable declarations: $pc162v = ""; $vid162 = '<embed width="420" height="236" src="'.$pc162v.'" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed>'; Here's the section of the if statement: if (empty($row[7])) { $vid162 = ''; } else { $pc162v = $row[7]; } In my web browsers, the part of the code where the variable $vid162 is used, shows up as the following: <embed width="420" height="236" src="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> I have also tried setting $vid162 to: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed> and that just makes the code in my web browser: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> Hope someone has a solution! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to set a EditText in a certain column of a TableLayout?

    - by Nick
    I have a TableLayout on one Android Activity UI. It has two columns. Now I need to add a new row, and put an EditText box in second column of that new row. And also, I want that EditText full fill the whole cell. I have some code like this: TableRow tr = new TableRow(context); EditText et = new EditText(context); et.SetMaxLines(4); etText.setLayoutParams(new TableRow.LayoutParams(1)); //set it to the second coloumn tr.addView(et); tl.addView(tr); //tl is the tableLayout It puts the EditText in the second column fine, but the EditText is too small. I tried to use etText.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); but that seems to disabled the TableRow.LayoutParams setting. I guess each control can only have one LayoutParamas setting. So, how to make the EditText as a 4 lines text editor and also make sure it is in the second column of that row? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • ojspc always returns 0 on errors

    - by Matt McCormick
    In my Ant build.xml file, I am trying to compile JSPs using ojspc. The files are being compiled, however, the build process is still running to completion when the JSP compilation has errors. This is part of my build.xml: <java fork="true" jar="${env.ORACLE_HOME}\j2ee\home\ojspc.jar" resultproperty="result"> <jvmarg value="-Djava.compiler=NONE"/> <arg value="-extend"/> <arg value="com.orionserver.http.OrionHttpJspPage"/> <arg value="-batchMask"/> <arg value="*.jsp"/> <arg value="${target-directory}/build/target/ear/${module-dir-name}-jsp.war"/> </java> <echo level="info">Result Property: ${result}</echo> I have tried setting the property failonerror="true" but that does not change anything. I receive the following output: [java] Detected archive, now processing contents of ../build/target/ear/web-module-jsp.war... [java] Setting up temp area... [java] Expanding archive in temp area... [java] C:\DOCUME~1\MMCCOR~1\LOCALS~1\Temp\tmp12940\_web_2d_inf\_jsp\_password.java:60: cannot resolve symbol [java] symbol : variable reqvst [java] location: class _web_2d_inf._jsp._password [java] out.print(reqvst.getAttribute("test")); [java] ^ [java] 1 error [java] Creating D:\eclipse-workspace\jdw\build\..\build\target\ear\web-module-jsp.war ... [java] Removing temp area... [echo] Result Property: 0 ...(more commands) BUILD SUCCESSFUL In the password.jsp file, I intentionally introduced an error to test. How can I get the build to fail on an error? At the Ant Java page, I am confused by: By default the return code of a is ignored. Alternatively, you can set resultproperty to the name of a property and have it assigned to the result code (barring immutability, of course). When you set failonerror="true", the only possible value for resultproperty is 0. Any non-zero response is treated as an error and would mean the build exits.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154  | Next Page >