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  • Foreign key pointing to different tables

    - by Álvaro G. Vicario
    I'm implementing a table per subclass design I discussed in a previous question. It's a product database where products can have very different attributes depending on their type, but attributes are fixed for each type and types are not manageable at all. I have a master table that holds common attributes: product_type ============ product_type_id INT product_type_name VARCHAR E.g.: 1 'Magazine' 2 'Web site' product ======= product_id INT product_name VARCHAR product_type_id INT -> Foreign key to product_type.product_type_id valid_since DATETIME valid_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine' 1 '1998-12-01' NULL 2 'Bar Weekly Review' 1 '2005-01-01' NULL 3 'E-commerce App' 2 '2009-10-15' NULL 4 'CMS' 2 '2010-02-01' NULL ... and one subtable for each product type: item_magazine ============= item_magazine_id INT title VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id issue_number INT pages INT copies INT close_date DATETIME release_date DATETIME E.g. 1 'Foo Magazine Regular Issue' 1 89 52 150000 '2010-06-25' '2010-06-31' 2 'Foo Magazine Summer Special' 1 90 60 175000 '2010-07-25' '2010-07-31' 3 'Bar Weekly Review Regular Issue' 2 12 16 20000 '2010-06-01' '2010-06-02' item_web_site ============= item_web_site_id INT name VARCHAR product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id bandwidth INT hits INT date_from DATETIME date_to DATETIME E.g. 1 'The Carpet Store' 3 10 90000 '2010-06-01' NULL 2 'Penauts R Us' 3 20 180000 '2010-08-01' NULL 3 'Springfield Cattle Fair' 4 15 150000 '2010-05-01' '2010-10-31' Now I want to add some fees that relate to one specific item. Since there are very little subtypes, it's feasible to do this: fee === fee_id INT fee_description VARCHAR item_magazine_id INT -> Foreign key to item_magazine.item_magazine_id item_web_site_id INT -> Foreign key to item_web_site.item_web_site_id net_price DECIMAL E.g.: 1 'Front cover' 2 NULL 1999.99 2 'Half page' 2 NULL 500.00 3 'Square banner' NULL 3 790.50 4 'Animation' NULL 3 2000.00 I have tight foreign keys to handle cascaded editions and I presume I can add a constraint so only one of the IDs is NOT NULL. However, my intuition suggests that it would be cleaner to get rid of the item_WHATEVER_id columns and keep a separate table: fee_to_item =========== fee_id INT -> Foreign key to fee.fee_id product_id INT -> Foreign key to product.product_id item_id INT -> ??? But I can't figure out how to create foreign keys on item_id since the source table varies depending on product_id. Should I stick to my original idea?

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  • How can I send multiple types of objects across Protobuf?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm implementing a client-server application, and am looking into various ways to serialize and transmit data. I began working with Xml Serializers, which worked rather well, but generate data slowly, and make large objects, especially when they need to be sent over the net. So I started looking into Protobuf, and protobuf-net. My problem lies in the fact that protobuf doesn't sent type information with it. With Xml Serializers, I was able to build a wrapper which would send and receive any various (serializable) object over the same stream, since object serialized into Xml contain the type name of the object. ObjectSocket socket = new ObjectSocket(); socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(string)); // Tells the socket the types socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(int)); // of objects we will want socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(bool)); // to send and receive. socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Person)); // When it gets data, it looks for socket.AddTypeHandler(typeof(Address)); // these types in the Xml, then uses // the appropriate serializer. socket.Connect(_host, _port); socket.Send(new Person() { ... }); socket.Send(new Address() { ... }); ... Object o = socket.Read(); Type oType = o.GetType(); if (oType == typeof(Person)) HandlePerson(o as Person); else if (oType == typeof(Address)) HandleAddress(o as Address); ... I've considered a few solutions to this, including creating a master "state" type class, which is the only type of object sent over my socket. This moves away from the functionality I've worked out with Xml Serializers, though, so I'd like to avoid that direction. The second option would be to wrap protobuf objects in some type of wrapper, which defines the type of object. (This wrapper would also include information such as packet ID, and destination.) It seems silly to use protobuf-net to serialize an object, then stick that stream between Xml tags, but I've considered it. Is there an easy way to get this functionality out of protobuf or protobuf-net? I've come up with a third solution, and posted it below, but if you have a better one, please post it too!

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  • Algorithm to split an article without breaking the reading flow or HTML code

    - by Victor Stanciu
    Hello, I have a very large database of articles, of varying lengths. The articles have HTML elements in them. I have to insert some ads (simple <script> elements) in the body of each article when it is displayed (I know, I hate ads that interrupt my reading too). Now, the problem is that each ad must be inserted at about the same position in each article. The simplest solution is to simply split the article on a fixed number of characters (without breaking words), and insert the ad code. This, however, runs the risk of inserting the ad in the middle of a HTML tag. I could go the regex way, but I was thinking about the following solution, using JS: Establish a character count threshold. For example, "the add should be inserted at about 200 words" Set accepted deviations in each direction, say -20, +20 characters. Loop through each text node inside the article, and while doing so, keep count of the total number of characters so far Once the count exceeds the threshold, make the following decision: 4.1. If count exceeds the threshold by a value lower that the positive accepted deviation (for example, 17 characters), insert the ad code just after the current text node. 4.2. If the count is greater than the sum of the threshold and the deviation, roll back to the previous text node, and make the same decision, only this time use the previous count and check if it's lower than the difference between the threshold and the deviation, and if not, insert the ad between the current node and the previous one. 4.3. If the 4.1 and 4.2 fail (which means that the previous node reached a too low character count and the current node a too high one), insert the ad after whatever character count is needed inside the current element. I know it's convoluted, but it's the first thing out of my mind and it has the advantage that, by trying to insert the ad between text nodes, perhaps it will not break the flow of the article as bad as it would if I would just stick it in (like the final 4.3 case) Here is some pseudo-code I put together, I don't trust my english-explaining skills: threshold = 200 deviation = 20 current_count = 0 for each node in article_nodes { previous_count = current_count current_count = current_count + node.length if current_count < threshold { continue // next interation } if current_count > threshold + deviation { if previous_count < threshdold - deviation { // insert ad in current node } else { // insert ad between the current and previous nodes } } else { // insert ad after the current node } break; } Am I over-complicating stuff, or am I missing a simpler, more elegant solution?

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  • Do You Really Know Your Programming Languages?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I am often amazed at how little some of my colleagues know or care about their craft. Something that constantly frustrates me is that people don't want to learn any more than they need to about the programming languages they use every day. Many programmers seem content to learn some pidgin sub-dialect, and stick with that. If they see a keyword or construct that they aren't familiar with, they'll complain that the code is "tricky." What would you think of a civil engineer who shied away from calculus because it had "all those tricky math symbols?" I'm not suggesting that we all need to become "language lawyers." But if you make your living as a programmer, and claim to be a competent user of language X, then I think at a minimum you should know the following: Do you know the keywords of the language and what they do? What are the valid syntactic forms? How are memory, files, and other operating system resources managed? Where is the official language specification and library reference for the language? The last one is the one that really gets me. Many programmers seem to have no idea that there is a "specification" or "standard" for any particular language. I still talk to people who think that Microsoft invented C++, and that if a program doesn't compile under VC6, it's not a valid C++ program. Programmers these days have it easy when it comes to obtaining specs. Newer languages like C#, Java, Python, Ruby, etc. all have their documentation available for free from the vendors' web sites. Older languages and platforms often have standards controlled by standards bodies that demand payment for specs, but even that shouldn't be a deterrent: the C++ standard is available from ISO for $30 (and why am I the only person I know who has a copy?). Programming is hard enough even when you do know the language. If you don't, I don't see how you have a chance. What do the rest of you think? Am I right, or should we all be content with the typical level of programming language expertise? Update: Several great comments here. Thanks. A couple of people hit on something that I didn't think about: What really irks me is not the lack of knowledge, but the lack of curiosity and willingness to learn. It seems some people don't have any time to hone their craft, but they have plenty of time to write lots of bad code. And I don't expect people to be able to recite a list of keywords or EBNF expressions, but I do expect that when they see some code, they should have some inkling of what it does. Few people have complete knowledge of every dark corner of their language or platform, but everyone should at least know enough that when they see something unfamiliar, they will know how to get whatever additional information they need to understand it.

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  • SSL Authentication with Certificates: Should the Certificates have a hostname?

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    Summary JBoss allows clients and servers to authenticate using certificates and ssl. One thing that seems strange is that you are not required to give your hostname on the certificate. I think that this means if Server B is in your truststore, Sever B can pretend to be any server that they want. (And likewise: if Client B is in your truststore...) Am I missing something here? Authentication Steps (Summary of Wikipeida Page) Client Server ================================================================================================= 1) Client sends Client Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - list of cipher suites - compression methods 2) Sever Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - choosen cipher suite - choosen compression method 3) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None - 4) ServerHelloDone ENCRIPTION: None 5) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None 6) ClientKeyExchange Message ENCRIPTION: server's public key => only server can read => if sever can read this he must own the certificate - may contain a PreMasterSecerate, public key or nothing (depends on cipher) 7) CertificateVerify Message ENCRIPTION: clients private key - purpose is to prove to the server that client owns the cert 8) BOTH CLIENT AND SERVER: - use random numbers and PreMasterSecret to compute a common secerate 9) Finished message - contains a has and MAC over previous handshakes (to ensure that those unincripted messages did not get broken) 10) Finished message - samething Sever Knows The client has the public key for the sent certificate (step 7) The client's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the server's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Client Knows The server has the public key for the sent certificate (step 6 with step 8) The server's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the client's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Potential Problem Suppose the client's truststore has certs in it: Server A Server B (malicous) Server A has hostname www.A.com Server B has hostname www.B.com Suppose: The client tries to connect to Server A but Server B launches a man in the middle attack. Since server B: has a public key for the certificate that will be sent to the client has a "valid certificate" (a cert in the truststore) And since: certificates do not have a hostname feild in them It seems like Server B can pretend to be Server A easily. Is there something that I am missing?

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  • Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

    - by abszero
    I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • DB Design Pattern - Many to many classification / categorised tagging.

    - by Robin Day
    I have an existing database design that stores Job Vacancies. The "Vacancy" table has a number of fixed fields across all clients, such as "Title", "Description", "Salary range". There is an EAV design for "Custom" fields that the Clients can setup themselves, such as, "Manager Name", "Working Hours". The field names are stored in a "ClientText" table and the data stored in a "VacancyClientText" table with VacancyId, ClientTextId and Value. Lastly there is a many to many EAV design for custom tagging / categorising the vacancies with things such as Locations/Offices the vacancy is in, a list of skills required. This is stored as a "ClientCategory" table listing the types of tag, "Locations, Skills", a "ClientCategoryItem" table listing the valid values for each Category, e.g., "London,Paris,New York,Rome", "C#,VB,PHP,Python". Finally there is a "VacancyClientCategoryItem" table with VacancyId and ClientCategoryItemId for each of the selected items for the vacancy. There are no limits to the number of custom fields or custom categories that the client can add. I am now designing a new system that is very similar to the existing system, however, I have the ability to restrict the number of custom fields a Client can have and it's being built from scratch so I have no legacy issues to deal with. For the Custom Fields my solution is simple, I have 5 additional columns on the Vacancy Table called CustomField1-5. This removes one of the EAV designs. It is with the tagging / categorising design that I am struggling. If I limit a client to having 5 categories / types of tag. Should I create 5 tables listing the possible values "CustomCategoryItems1-5" and then an additional 5 many to many tables "VacancyCustomCategoryItem1-5" This would result in 10 tables performing the same storage as the three tables in the existing system. Also, should (heaven forbid) the requirements change in that I need 6 custom categories rather than 5 then this will result in a lot of code change. Therefore, can anyone suggest any DB Design Patterns that would be more suitable to storing such data. I'm happy to stick with the EAV approach, however, the existing system has come across all the usual performance issues and complex queries associated with such a design. Any advice / suggestions are much appreciated. The DBMS system used is SQL Server 2005, however, 2008 is an option if required for any particular pattern.

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  • Implementing Object Oriented: ansi-C approach

    - by No Money
    Hey there, I am an Intermediate programmer in Java and know some of the basics in C++. I recently started to scam over "C language" [please note that i emphasized on C language and want to stick with C as i found it to be a perfect tool, so no need for suggestions focusing on why should i move back to C++ or Java or any other crappy language (e.g: C#)]. Moving on, I code an Object Oriented approach in C but kindda scramble with the pointers part. Please understand that I am just a noob trying to extend my knowledge beyond what i learned in High School. Here is my code..... #include <stdio.h> typedef struct per{ int privateint; char *privateString; struct per (*New) (); void (*deleteperOBJ) (struct t_person *); void (*setperNumber) ((struct*) t_person,int); void (*setperString) ((struct*) t_person,char *); void (*dumpperState) ((struct*) t_person); }t_person; void setperNumber(t_person *const per,int num){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateint=num; } void setperString(t_person *const per,char *string){ if(per==NULL) return; per->privateString=string; } void dumpperState(t_person *const per){ if(per==NULL) return; printf("value of private int==%d\n", per->privateint); printf("value of private string==%s\n", per->privateString); } void deleteperOBJ(struct t_person *const per){ free((void*)t_person->per); t_person ->per = NULL; } main(){ t_person *const per = (struct*) malloc(sizeof(t_person)); per = t_person -> struct per -> New(); per -> setperNumber (t_person *per, 123); per -> setperString(t_person *per, "No money"); dumpperState(t_person *per); deleteperOBJ(t_person *per); } Just to warn you, this program has several errors and since I am a beginner I couldn't help except to post this thread as a question. I am looking forward for assistance. Thanks in advance.

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  • Jquery - Loading a page with .load and selector doesn't execute script?

    - by PirateKitten
    I'm trying to load one page into another using the .load() method. This loaded page contains a script that I want to execute when it has finished loading. I've put together a barebones example to demonstrate: Index.html: <html> <head> <title>Jquery Test</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="script/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { $('#contentHolder').load('content.html #toLoad', '', function() {}); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="nav"> <a href="content.html">Click me!</a> </div> <hr /> <div id="contentHolder"> Content loaded will go here </div> </body> </html> Content.html: <div id="toLoad"> This content is from content.html <div id="contentDiv"> This should fade away. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#contentDiv').fadeOut('slow', function() {} ); </script> </div> When the link is clicked, the content should load and the second paragraph should fade away. However it doesn't execute. If I stick a simple alert("") in the script of content.html it doesn't execute either. However, if I do away with the #toLoad selector in the .load() call, it works fine. I am not sure why this is, as the block is clearly in the scope of the #toLoad div. I don't want to avoid using the selector, as in reality the content.html will be a full HTML page, and I'll only want a select part out of it. Any ideas? If the script from content.html was in the .load() callback, it works fine, however I obviously don't want that logic contained within index.html. I could possibly have the callback use .getScript() to load "content.html.js" afterwards and have the logic in there, that seems to work? I'd prefer to keep the script in content.html, if possible, so that it executes fine when loaded normally too. In fact, I might do this anyway, but I would like to know why the above doesn't work.

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

    - by bradhe
    So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

    - by Larry Gritz
    What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

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  • mysql - combining columns and tables

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi, I'm not much of a SQL man so I'm seeking help for this one. I have a site where I have a database for all accounts and whatnot, and another for storing actions that the user has done on the site. Each user has their own table but I want to combine the data of each user group ( all users that are "linked together" ) and order that data in the time the actions took place. Heres what I have; <?php $query = "SELECT `TALKING_TO` FROM `nnn_instant_messaging` WHERE `AUTHOR` = '" . DISPLAY_NAME . "' AND `TALKING_TO` != ''"; $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { $table_str = ""; $select_ref_clause = "( "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "( "; while( $row = mysql_fetch_array( $query ) ) { $table_str .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . "`, "; $select_ref_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".TIME_STAMP`, "; } $table_str = $table_str . "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = substr($select_ref_clause, 0, -2) . ") AS `REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = substr($select_time_stamp_clause, 0, -2) . " ) AS `TIME_STAMP`"; }else{ $table_str = "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = "`REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "`TIME_STAMP`"; } $where_clause = $select_ref_clause . $select_time_stamp_clause; $query = "SELECT " . $where_clause . " FROM " . $table_str . " ORDER BY TIME_STAMP"; die($query); $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { }else{ ?> <p>Currently no actions have taken place in your network.</p> <?php } ?> The code above returns the sql statement: SELECT ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.REF`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.REF`) AS `REF`, ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.TIME_STAMP`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.TIME_STAMP` ) AS `TIME_STAMP` FROM `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson`, `actvbiz_networks`.`act_web_designs` ORDER BY TIME_STAMP I really am learning on my feet with SQL. Its not the PHP I have a problem with ( I can quite happly code away with PHP ) I'ts just help with the SQL statement. Any help much appreciated, REgards, Phil

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  • CodeIgniter Form Validaton + JS. Form re-population.

    - by solefald
    Hello. I have a from with a checkbox, and depending on the checkbox state 2 different divs are shown. var alias = document.getElementById('alias'); var list = document.getElementById('list'); if(document.getElementById('isList').checked) { alias.style.display = 'none'; list.style.display = 'table-row'; } else { alias.style.display = 'table-row'; list.style.display = 'none'; } Here is the HTML/PHP (relevant) part: <tr id="alias" style="display:table-row;"> <td>' . form_label('Destination:', 'destination') . '</td> <td>' . form_textarea('destination') . '</td> </tr> <tr id="list" style="display:none;"> <td>' . form_label('File Path:', 'list_path') . '</td> <td>' . form_input('list_path') . '</td> </tr> alias div is shown by default on page load, list shown then i click on isList checkbox, and alias is shown again when i click on the checkbox again. This part works great and pretty straight froward. Now, I add CodeIgniter Form Validation plugin, set appropriate rules and set-up validation plugin to re-populate the form with. Without checkbox enabled everything works great. On errors form is re-populated. However, when form is submitted with checkbox enabled, I have an issue. CI's Form Validation plugin re-populates the form, and re-enables the checkbox, but the list div that is supposed to be shown when checkbox enabled is not there, and instead the alias div is shown. Is there any way around this issue? Can i have the list div shown on list validation error? Also, i would like to avoid using JavaScript form validation, and stick with my good old PHP. Thank you in advance. -i

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  • NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

    - by Brent Traut
    I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • Regular expression from font to span (size and colour) and back (VB.NET)

    - by chapmanio
    Hi, I am looking for a regular expression that can convert my font tags (only with size and colour attributes) into span tags with the relevant inline css. This will be done in VB.NET if that helps at all. I also need a regular expression to go the other way as well. To elaborate below is an example of the conversion I am looking for: <font size="10">some text</font> To then become: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> So converting the tag and putting a "px" at the end of whatever the font size is (I don't need to change/convert the font size, just stick px at the end). The regular expression needs to cope with a font tag that only has a size attribute, only a color attribute, or both: <font size="10">some text</font> <font color="#000000">some text</font> <font size="10" color="#000000">some text</font> <font color="#000000" size="10">some text</font> I also need another regular expression to do the opposite conversion. So for example: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> Will become: <font size="10">some text</font> As before converting the tag but this time removing the "px", I don't need to worry about changing the font size. Again this will also need to cope with the size styling, font styling, and a combination of both: <span style="font-size:10px;">some text</span> <span style="color:#000000;">some text</span> <span style="font-size:10px; color:#000000;">some text</span> <span style="color:#000000; font-size:10px;">some text</span> I apprecitate this is a lot to ask, I am hopeless with regular expressions and need to find a way of making these conversions in my code. Thanks so much to anyone that can/is willing to help me!

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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  • How do I add "Press any key to boot from usb" when installing Windows from a flash drive? (Grub4dos question / how to remove a bootloader)

    - by Vincent
    Hi there! I've been struggling with this problem for a while now and finially decided to ask for help. Let me first explain what the main purpose of the app is: to provide the a very easy to use way of backing up files, after which I format the drive and start Windows 7 setup. I do this by booting WinPE, which runs a script to detect Windows installations and then opens a file browser. After the file browser is closed, the script continues and formats the drive that contains the Windows installation, and starts an unattended Windows 7 install. Now here is the problem: When you start Windows setup or WinPE from a dvd, you get a nice option to "Press any key to boot from DVD". This is to prevent the computer from booting the DVD when the first phase of the installation is complete and the computer reboots. However, when booting from a flash drive, Windows does not provide this option: it simply boots the flash drive every reboot. To replicate the "press any key" function, I installed Grub4Dos, which works great. It provides a small menu, the first standard item being "Continue installation", the second being "start installation". After quite a lot of tweaking, I got everything working: Start installation starts WinPE, which in turn starts the Windows installation. At first reboot, the Grub4Dos menu comes up, counts 5 seconds and boots the second stage of the installation. Here, I am greeted with the error: "Windows setup could not configure windows to run on this computer's hardware." When I boot into WinPE the normal way (put the bootmgr on the stick root) and change my bios to boot from the primary hdd after first reboot, I don't get this error. I've been looking around, and the only thing I could find was that the BIOS automatically names the boot device hd0, and that Windows can only be run / installed to hd 0. I'm not sure if this is the problem. I read about remapping to solve this problem, but to do that you have to know the phisical location of the hard drive and partition, like hd(0,1). I want this flash drive to work on any PC, regardless of where the OS is installed, so that's not really a possibility. A possible fix I thought of is removing the bootloader from the flash drive when I'm in WinPE. That way, when the pc reboots the BIOS will not see the flash drive as a boot drive and instead boot the primary hdd. I have yet to find a way to do this. Thank you for reading my question, and if you have any suggestion, please do.

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  • Tokenizing a string with variable whitespace

    - by Ron Holcomb
    I've read through a few threads detailing how to tokenize strings, but I'm apparently too thick to adapt their suggestions and solutions into my program. What I'm attempting to do is tokenize each line from a large (5k+) line file into two strings. Here's a sample of the lines: 0 -0.11639404 9.0702948e-05 0.00012207031 0.0001814059 0.051849365 0.00027210884 0.062103271 0.00036281179 0.034423828 0.00045351474 0.035125732 The difference I'm finding between my lines and the other sample input from other threads is that I have a variable amount of whitespace between the parts that I want to tokenize. Anyways, here's my attempt at tokenizing: #include <iostream> #include <iomanip> #include <fstream> #include <string> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { ifstream input; ofstream output; string temp2; string temp3; input.open(argv[1]); output.open(argv[2]); if (input.is_open()) { while (!input.eof()) { getline(input, temp2, ' '); while (!isspace(temp2[0])) getline(input, temp2, ' '); getline (input, temp3, '\n'); } input.close(); cout << temp2 << endl; cout << temp3 << endl; return 0; } I've clipped it some, since the troublesome bits are here. The issue that I'm having is that temp2 never seems to catch a value. Ideally, it should get populated with the first column of numbers, but it doesn't. Instead, it is blank, and temp3 is populated with the entire line. Unfortunately, in my course we haven't learned about vectors, so I'm not quite sure how to implement them in the other solutions for this I've seen, and I'd like to not just copy-paste code for assignments to get things work without actually understanding it. So, what's the extremely obvious/already been answered/simple solution I'm missing? I'd like to stick to standard libraries that g++ uses if at all possible.

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  • Newbie jQuery question: Need slideshow to rotate automatically, not just when clicking navigation.

    - by Justin
    Hi everyone, This is my first post, so please forgive me if this question has been asked a million times. I'm a self professed jQuery hack and I need a little guidance on taking this script I found and adapting it to my needs. Anyway, what I'm making is an image slide show with navigation. The script I found does this, but does not automatically cycle through the images. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2 and would rather stick with that than using the newer library. I would also prefer to edit what is already here rather than start from scratch. Anywho, here's the html: <div id="myslide"> <div class="cover"> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/current_Denver-skyline.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/pepsi_center-IS42RF-0D111C.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/columbine-2689820469_D1104.jpg" /> </div> <div class="mystuff"> <img alt="&nbsp;" src="http://www.mfhc.com/wp/wp-content/uploads/2010/05/ist2_10460354-RedRocks.jpg" /> </div> </div> <!-- end of div cover --> </div> <!-- end of div myslide --> And here's the jQuery: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> $(document).ready(function (){ $('#button a').click(function(){ var integer = $(this).attr('rel'); $('#myslide .cover').css({left:-820*(parseInt(integer)-1)}).hide().fadeIn(); /*----- Width of div #mystuff (here 820) ------ */ $('#button a').each(function(){ $(this).removeClass('active'); if($(this).hasClass('button'+integer)){ $(this).addClass('active')} }); }); }); </script> Here's where I got the script: http://www.webdeveloperjuice.com/2010/04/07/create-lightweight-jquery-fade-manual-slideshow/ Again, if this question is too basic for this site please let me know and possibly provide a reference link or two. Thanks a ton!

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  • Jquery: Incrimentation for each set of elements in more than 1 div

    - by Jack
    I'm making a Jquery slideshow. It lists thumbnails, that when clicked on, reveal the large image as an overlay. To match up the thumbs with the large images I'm adding attributes to each thumbnail and large image. The attributes contain a number which matches each thumb to its corresponding large image. It works when one slideshow is present on a page. But I want it to work if more than one slideshow is present. Here's the code for adding attributes to thumbs and large images: thumbNo = 0; largeNo = 0; $(this + '.slideshow_content .thumbs img').each(function() { thumbNo++; $(this).attr('thumbimage', thumbNo); $(this).attr("title", "Enter image gallery"); }); $(this + '.slideshow_content .image_container .holder img').each(function() { largeNo++; $(this).addClass('largeImage' + largeNo); }); This works. To make the incrementation work when there are two slideshows on a page, I thought I could stick this code in an each function... $('.slideshow').each(function() { thumbNo = 0; largeNo = 0; $(this + '.slideshow_content .thumbs img').each(function() { thumbNo++; $(this).attr('thumbimage', thumbNo); $(this).attr("title", "Enter image gallery"); }); $(this + '.slideshow_content .image_container .holder img').each(function() { largeNo++; $(this).addClass('largeImage' + largeNo); }); }); The problem with this is that the incrimenting operator does not reset for the second slideshow div (.slideshow), so I end up with thumbs in the first .slideshow div being numbered 1,2,3 etc.. and thumbs in the second .slideshow div being numbered 4,5,6 etc. How do I make the numbers in the second .slideshow div reset and start from 1 again? This is really hard to explain concisely. I hope someone gets the gist.

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  • Why is .NET Post different from CURL? broken?

    - by ironnailpiercethesky
    I dont understand this. I ran this code below and the result json string was the link is expired (meaning invalid). However the curl code does the exact same thing and works. I either get the expected string with the url or it says i need to wait (for a few seconds to 1 minute). Why? whats the difference between the two? It looks very F%^&*ed up that it is behaving differently (its been causing me HOURS of problems). NOTE: the only cookie required by the site is SID (tested). It holds your session id. The first post activates it and the 2nd command checks the status with the returning json string. Feel free to set the CookieContainer to only use SID if you like. WARNING: you may want to change SID to a different value so other people arent activating it. Your may want to run the 2nd url to ensure the session id is not used and says expired/invalid before you start. additional note: with curl or in your browser if you do the POST command you can stick the sid in .NET cookie container and the 2nd command will work. But doing the first command (the POST data) will not work. This post function i have used for many other sites that require post and so far it has worked. Obviously checking the Method is a big deal and i see it is indeed POST when doing the first command. static void Main(string[] args) { var cookie = new CookieContainer(); PostData("http://uploading.com/files/get/37e36ed8/", "action=second_page&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8", cookie); Thread.Sleep(4000); var res = PostData("http://uploading.com/files/get/?JsHttpRequest=12719362769080-xml&action=get_link&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8&pass=undefined", null/*this makes it GET*/, cookie); Console.WriteLine(res); /* curl -b "SID=37468830" -A "DUMMY_User_Aggent" -d "action=second_page&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8" "http://uploading.com/files/get/37e36ed8/" curl -b "SID=37468830" -A "DUMMY_User_Aggent" "http://uploading.com/files/get/?JsHttpRequest=12719362769080-xml&action=get_link&file_id=9134949&code=37e36ed8&pass=undefined" */ }

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