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Unable to parse variable length string separated by delimiter

- by Technext

Hi, I have a problem with parsing a string, which consists only of directory path. For ex. My input string is Abc\Program Files\sample\ My output should be Abc//Program Files//sample The script should work for input path of any length i.e., it can contain any no. of subdirectories. (For ex., abc\temp\sample\folder\joe) I have looked for help in many links but to no avail. Looks like FOR command extracts only one whole line or a string (when we use ‘token’ keyword in FOR syntax) but my problem is that I am not aware of the input path length and hence, the no. of tokens. My idea was to use \ as a delimiter and then extract each word before and after it (), and put the words to an output file along with // till we reach the end of the string. I tried implementing the following but it did not work: @echo off FOR /F "delims=\" %%x in (orig.txt) do ( IF NOT %%x == "" echo.%%x//output.txt ) The file orig.txt contains only one line i.e, Abc\Program Files\sample\ The output that I get contains only: Abc// The above output contains blank spaces as well after ‘Abc//’ My desired output should be: Abc//program Files//sample// Can anyone please help me with this? Regards, Technext

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Help regarding multi-threading in MFC,please help me firends!

- by kiddo

Hello all,in my application there is a small part of function,in which it will read files to get some information,the number of filecount would be utleast 50,So I thought of implementing threading.Say if the user is giving 50 files,I wanted to separate it as 5 *10, 5 thread should be created,so that each thread can handle 10 files which can speed up the process.And also from the below code you can see that some variables are common.I read some articles about threading and I am aware that only one thread should access a variable/contorl at a me(CCriticalStiuation can be used for that).For me as a beginner,I am finding hard to imlplement what I have learned about threading.Somebody please give me some idea with code shown below..thanks in advance file read function:// void CMyClass::GetWorkFilesInfo(CStringArray& dataFilesArray,CString* dataFilesB, int* check,DWORD noOfFiles,LPWSTR path) { CString cFilePath; int cIndex =0; int exceptionInd = 0; wchar_t** filesForWork = new wchar_t*[noOfFiles]; int tempCheck; int localIndex =0; for(int index = 0;index < noOfFiles; index++) { tempCheck = *(check + index); if(tempCheck == NOCHECKBOX) { *(filesForWork+cIndex) = new TCHAR[MAX_PATH]; wcscpy(*(filesForWork+cIndex),*(dataFilesB +index)); cIndex++; } else//CHECKED or UNCHECKED { dataFilesArray.Add(*(dataFilesB+index)); *(check + localIndex) = *(check + index); localIndex++; } } WorkFiles(&cFilePath,dataFilesArray,filesForWork, path, cIndex); dataFilesArray.Add(cFilePath); *(check + localIndex) = CHECKED; }

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Child selector problem in IE7, IE8

- by Raj

Hi, I have a CSS style using child selectors in an HTML page as follows: <html> <head> <title>MSO Bug</title> <style type="text/css" media="screen,print"> ol{list-style-type:decimal;} ol > ol {list-style-type:lower-alpha;} ol > ol >ol {list-style-type:lower-roman;} </style> </head> <body> <div> <ol> <li><div>level1</div></li> <ol> <li><div>level2</div></li> <ol> <li><div>level3</div></li> </ol> </ol> </ol> </div> </body> </html> In Firefox, the CSS works properly - the first list level starts with '1', the second with 'a', and the third with 'i' as expected. But this doesn't work in IE7/8! (I'm aware of descendent selectors - for some reason I can't use that here)

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Mercurial repository narrow clone?

- by Berry Langerak

Hi. I'm currently in the process of moving from Subversion to Mercurial, and I have to say I don't regret that decision. However, when trying to convert my project, I ran into a problem of Mercurial, which I can't seem to get fixed. I have two distinct projects: one is a framework, and the other is an application that relies on that framework. Here's what the repositories look like: The Framework repository: docs/ deploy/ lib/ tests/ The Application repository: application/ config/ lib/ tests/ www/ What I'd like is for the application's lib directory to contain a copy of the frameworks' lib/ directory. I used to do this using svn:externals. Now, I am aware that Mercurial supports the concept of subrepositories, but that doesn't seem like the "correct" solution, as it doesn't actually pull in the lib/ directory like I wanted, as you'll still have to pull and push changes manually. That, plus once you clone the framework repository, you'll get all of it, not just the lib/ directory. I only need the lib/ directory, not the tests, or the docs. Now, I thought up two different solutions to this problem, but I wonder which is the best. The first solution would be to clone the framework in a different directory altogether and create symlink in the application's lib/ directory which points to the framework's lib/ directory. Putting the symlink in .hgignore should make sure all is well, I think? That means that you could edit the frameworks code, and commit that, and you could edit the application's code and commit that, too. The other option is to have multiple repositories. The framework gets pulled as a whole, which means you'll get the docs/, deploy/, test/ etc. directories, which are not needed for usage of the framework. I thought maybe creating a repository purely for the library might be a solution, although I sincerely doubt it, as the Unit Tests are very dependant upon the library itself. Does anyone know a decent solution for this problem?

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Display web page from another site in asp page.

- by Daniel

hi all, Our customer has a requirement to extend the functionality of their existing large government project. It is an ASP.NET 3.5 (recently upgraded from 2.0) project. The existing solution is quite a behemoth that is almost unmaintainable so they have decided that they want to provide the new functionality by hosting it on another website that is shown within the existing website. As to how this is best to be done I'm not quite sure right now and if there is any security issues preventing it or that need to be considered. Essentially the user would log on to the existing web site as normal and when cliicking on a certain link the page would load as normal with some kind of frame or control that has within it the contents of the page from the other site. IE. They do not want to simply redirect to the other site they want to show it embedded within the current one such that the existing menus etc are still available. I believe if information needed to be passed to the embedded page it would be done using query strings as I'm not sure if there is even another way to accomplish this. Can anyone give me some pointers on where to start at looking to implement this or any potential pitfalls I should be aware of. Thanks

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Is it possible to anti alias using Copy swap effect?

- by Nor

I'm developing an application in VB.Net using Managed DirectX that runs in windowed mode and renders onto a picture box that is smaller than the form. Whenever I resize the form, the back buffer is streched to fit the picture box. This is not what I would like. The backbuffer size is the same as screen size, however, I only want to render a part of the back buffer, whose size is controlled by the size of the picture box into which I'm rendering. Resetting the device with new presentation parameters is something I would like to avoid. I'm aware that I can use an overload of Device.Present if I set the swap effect to copy, but this doesn't allow me to use Multi Sample Anti Alias (which requires the Discard swap effect). It seems to me that the overload Device.Present is not usable with any other swap effect than copy, and throws an exception. An other alternative I considered is the PresentFlags.DeviceClip, however it seems that it works only for Windows XP. I'm using Windows 7 and it doesn't seem to be doing anything. So, is it even possible that I use anti-aliasing in this situation?

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Django + GAE (Google App Engine) : most convenient path for a beginner?

- by mac

Some background info first: Goal: a medium-level complexity web app that I will need to maintain and possibly extend for a few years. Experience: good knowledge of python, some experience of MVC frameworks (in PHP). Desiderata: using django and google app engine. I read extensively about the compatibility issues between GAE and Django, and I am aware of the GAE patch, the norel project, and other similar pieces of code. I have also understood that the SDK provides some of the features of django "out of the box". Yet, given that I have no previous experience with neither Django nor GAE, I am unable to evaluate to which extent using a patched version of Django will strip away important features, or how far the framework provided in the SDK is compatible with Django. So I am rather confused on what would be the best way to proceed in my situation: Should I simply use a patched version of Django as the differences with the original Django are so minor that I would hardly notice them? Should I write my app completely in "regular django" and try to port it to GAE only afterwards, when I will have got a grasp on Django internals and philosophy? Should I write my app using the framework provided with the SDK and port it to django only afterwards? Should I... ? Thank you in advance for your time and advice.

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In Python, how to make data members visible to subclasses if not known when initializing an object ?

- by LB

The title is a bit long, but it should be pretty straightforward for someone well-aware of python. I'm a python newbie. So, maybe i'm doing things in the wrong way. Suppose I have a class TreeNode class TreeNode(Node): def __init__(self, name, id): Node.__init__(self, name, id) self.children = [] and a subclass with a weight: class WeightedNode(TreeNode): def __init__(self,name, id): TreeNode.__init__(self, name, id) self.weight = 0 So far, i think I'm ok. Now, I want to add an object variable called father in TreeNode so that WeightedNode has also this member. The problem is that I don't know when initializing the object who is going to be the father. I set the father afterwards with this method in TreeNode : def set_father(self, father_node): self.father = father_node The problem is then when i'm trying to access self.father in Weighted: print 'Name %s Father %s '%(self.name, self.father.name) I obtain: AttributeError: WeightedNode instance has no attribute 'father' I thought that I could make father visible by doing something in TreeNode.__init__ but i wasn't able to find what. How can i do that ? Thanks.

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Does ReleaseStringUTF do more than free memory?

- by Bayou Bob

Consider the following C code segments. Segment 1: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; retString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); return retString; } void useSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jobject jobj, char *mName) { jclass cl = (*env)->GetObjectClass(env, jobj); jmethodId mId = (*env)->GetMethodID(env, cl, mName, "()Ljava/lang/String;"); jstring jstr = (*env)->CallObjectMethod(env, obj, id, NULL); char * myString = getSomeString(env, jstr); /* ... use myString without modifing it */ free(myString); } Because myString is freed in useSomeString, I do not think I am creating a memory leak; however, I am not sure. The JNI spec specifically requires the use of ReleaseStringUTFChars. Since I am getting a C style 'char *' pointer from GetStringUTFChars, I believe the memory reference exists on the C stack and not in the JAVA heap so it is not in danger of being Garbage Collected; however, I am not sure. I know that changing getSomeString as follows would be safer (and probably preferable). Segment 2: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; char * intermedString; intermedString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); retString = strdup(intermedString); (*env)->ReleaseStringUTFChars(env, jstr, intermedString); return retString; } Because of our 'process' I need to build an argument on why getSomeString in Segment 2 is preferable to Segment 1. Is anyone aware of any documentation or references which detail the behavior of GetStringUTFChars and ReleaseStringUTFChars in relation to where memory is allocated or what (if any) additional bookkeeping is done (i.e. local Reference Pointer to the Java Heap being created, etc). What are the specific consequences of ignoring that bookkeeping. Thanks in advance.

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What is the most obfuscated and clever code you've seen? [closed]

- by ThibThib

I am aware about the The International Obfuscated C Code Contest, but I am looking for obfuscated AND clever codes (specially short ones) Here is two examples (the first one is a classical one, I think) #define _ F-->00 || F-OO--; long F=00,OO=00; main(){F_OO();printf("%1.3f\n", 4.*-F/OO/OO);}F_OO() { _-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_-_-_-_-_-_ _-_-_-_ } and #include <unistd.h> float o=0.075,h=1.5,T,r,O,l,I;int _,L=80,s=3200;main(){for(;s%L|| (h-=o,T= -2),s;4 -(r=O*O)<(l=I*I)|++ _==L&&write(1,(--s%L?_<L?--_ %6:6:7)+"World! \n",1)&&(O=I=l=_=r=0,T+=o /2))O=I*2*O+h,I=l+T-r;} I let you compile and run them so as to understand what they are producing. Of course, I am not looking for only obfuscated code, because I guess that every code could be transformed in a way that it is not readable at all I am more looking for small codes that you can eventually understand, with some clever tricks. I will show them to my students as example of clever things that they should not do (it's always better to show clever examples rather than stupid ones...) Thanks

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Invoking jQuery function without an element

- by Sandman

So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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How can i test my TSQL syntax?

- by acidzombie24

Quick question: How do i get some kind of database to use to test my sql syntax and create basic data. I have Sqlite Code which i'll soon put on a server. I have sql server 2008 installed with visual studio 2010. I tried connecting to the database and had no luck. I also tried using a .mdf file instead thinking its a file and i wont have connectivity issues. Wrong, i still couldnt connect and i used this site to help me (i'm aware its 2005) In that case i used var conn = new SqlConnection(@"Server=.\SQLExpress;AttachDbFilename=C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf;Database=dbo;Trusted_Connection=Yes;"); exception Unable to open the physical file "C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf". Operating system error 5: "5(Access is denied.)". Cannot attach the file 'C:\dev\src\test\SQL_DB_VS_Test\test.mdf' as database 'dbo'. with trusted = no i get Login failed for user ''. (What user am i suppose to set...). I created the .mdf with visual studio somehow.

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Can't authenticate mobile client with node.js (using passport.js)

- by Pazinio

I'm trying to build some CRUD application with node.js as a back-end API (express) and web-app (backbone) and mobile client (native android) as front-ends.(I'm node.js beginner) My server solution is based on the following great tutorial 'easy-node-authentication'. In my android app I have managed to get the user Google-Token after I completed the authentication step with Google Plus SDK.(mobile to google-plus directly request). I'm trying to understand and find right and elegant way to re-use a given google-token and authenticate again my android user through Google-Plus account to ensure the mobile client holds real token, then add a new entry (id, token, email, name) to my users table DB within my node back-end. The question is: what should be my next step in case I want to keep my back-end without changes? should I send a GET request with the token as a cookie to /auth/google? maybe to /auth/google/callback? another URL? Does this make sense at all? Please note: I'm aware to the fact the mentioned above 'easy-node-auth' solution is based on sessions and cookies. having said that, i'm still trying to understand if there is a convenient way to integrate both (android and node) as it works good for my web-app and node. Thanks in advance.

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Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

- by DZittersteyn

I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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MySQL connection attempt works fine in 5.2.9 but not in 5.3.0 - Help?

- by Rich

Hi, I'm having trouble making a secondary MySQL connection (to a separate, external DB) in my code. It works fine in PHP 5.2.9 but fails to connect in PHP 5.3.0. I'm aware of (at least some) of the changes needed to make successful MySQL connections in the newer version of PHP, and have succeeded before, so I'm not sure why it isn't working this time. I already have a db connection open to a local database. This function below is then used to make an additional connection to a separate, remote directory. The included config file simply contains the external database details (host, user, pass and name). I have checked and it is being included correctly. function connectDP() { global $dpConnection; include("secondary_db_config.php); $dpConnection = mysql_connect($dp_dbHost, $dp_dbUser, $dp_dbPass, true) or DIE("ERROR: Unable to connect to Deployment Platform"); mysql_select_db($dp_dbName, $dpConnection) or DIE("ERROR 006: Unable to select Deployment Platform Database"); } I then attempt to make this new connection simply by calling this function externally: connectDP(); But when loading the page (in 5.3.0), I get the message: ERROR: Unable to connect to Deployment Platform I'm using the optional new_link flag boolean as the fourth argument in the mysql_connect() function and it's still not working. I've been wracking my brain this morning trying to figure out why this connection doesn't work (while I've done something very similar elsewhere to a separate second database that does work). Any help would be appreciated. Thanks! Rich

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Getting information from servlet created html

- by user541597

I have a servlet that creates an html text box and then redirects to another servlet on submit. How can I access the value of the html text box from the new servlet? I am able to access servlet variables from the new servlet but I am not aware of how to access the value of the html generated code. thanks, Here is the servlet that gets the text input public class ServletB extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("<center><h1>Your preffered method of payment is "+value+"</h1><br />"); out.println("Please Enter Card Number<input type =\"text\" name = \"number\"/><form action=\"http://codd.cs.gsu.edu:9999/cpereyra183/servlet/ServletC\"><input type =\"submit\" value=\"Continue\" /><input type=\"button\" value=\"Cancel\" /></center>"); } }} This is the servlet the first servlet redirects to all I do is try to do is output the text input public class ServletC extends HttpServlet { public void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws IOException, ServletException { response.setContentType("text/html"); String value = System.getProperty("card"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println(request.getParameter("number")); } }

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Is it okay to rely on javascript for menu layout?

- by Ryan

I have a website template where I do not know the number of menu items or the size of the menu items that will be required. The js below works exactly the way I want it to, however this is the most js I've every written. Are there any disadvantages or potential problems with this method that I'm not aware of because I'm a js beginner? I'm currently manually setting the padding for each site. Thank you! var width_of_text = 0; var number_of_li = 0; // measure the width of each <li> and add it to the total with, increment li counter $('li').each(function() { width_of_text += $(this).width(); number_of_li++; }); // calculate the space between <li>'s so the space is equal var padding = Math.floor((900 - width_of_text)/(number_of_li - 1)); // add the padding the all but the first <li> $('li').each(function(index) { if (index !== 0) { $(this).css("padding-left", padding); } });

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"pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

- by dan

So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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do functions in sql server have different permissions rules?

- by jcollum

Here's the situation. I'm writing an automated test that walks the list of dependencies for a proc and determines if an acct has rights for all of the dependent objects. My code looks like this: exec sp_depends 'the_proc_name' -- run this query on the results of sp_depends: select case when exists ( select * from sys.database_permissions dp where grantee_principal_id=USER_ID('TheAccount') and major_id=object_id('dbo.theDependentObject') and minor_id=0 and state_desc = 'GRANT') then 'true' else 'false' end; It all seems to be working fine, but there's a hiccup when it encounters a function. I have one case where TheAccount doesn't have rights to a function (the query above returns false). However the proc that calls the function in question runs fine when running under TheAccount. So there's either something wrong with my test code or functions have special permission behavior in SQL-Server that I'm not aware of. Should I change the code to only search for 'DENY' instead of 'GRANT'? Do functions that are called in procs inherit the permissions of the calling proc except when the execute rights are explicitly denied? Does my code suck?

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Coding style in .NET: whether to refactor into new method or not?

- by Dione

Hi As you aware, in .NET code-behind style, we already use a lot of function to accommodate those _Click function, _SelectedIndexChanged function etc etc. In our team there are some developer that make a function in the middle of .NET function, for example: public void Button_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { some logic here.. some logic there.. DoSomething(); DoSomethingThere(); another logic here.. DoOtherSomething(); } private void DoSomething() { } private void DoSomethingThere() { } private void DoOtherSomething() { } public void DropDown_SelectedIndexChanged() { } public void OtherButton_Click() { } and the function listed above is only used once in that function and not used anywhere else in the page, or called from other part of the solution. They said it make the code more tidier by grouping them and extract them into additional sub-function. I can understand if the sub-function is use over and over again in the code, but if it is only use once, then I think it is not really a good idea to extract them into sub-function, as the code getting bigger and bigger, when you look into the page and trying to understand the logic or to debug by skimming through line by line, it will make you confused by jumping from main function to the sub-function then to main function and to sub-function again. I know this kind of grouping by method is better when you writing old ASP or Cold fusion style, but I am not sure if this kind of style is better for .NET or not. Question is: which is better when you developing .NET, is grouping similar logic into a sub-method better (although they only use once), or just put them together inside main function and add //explanation here on the start of the logic is better? Hope my question is clear enough. Thanks.

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OcaIDE doesn't see JoCaml tools

- by Surikator

I'm having a problem while using OcaIDE in ocamlbuild mode. I'm trying to compile my own JoCaml sources. According to the JoCaml manual (bottom of page), to use ocamlbuild with JoCaml, I just need to add the -use-jocaml argument to ocamlbuild. Indeed, if I go to the root of my project and write ocamlbuild -use-jocaml foo.native it generates my executable just fine. However, in OcaIDE I get /bin/sh: jocamldep: command not found In OcaIDE, the -use-jocaml flag is passed in the "Other Flags" box (in Project Properties). And that certainly is working, as the complaint is precisely that it doesn't find jocaml stuff. The puzzling thing is that jocaml is installed and can be accessed from any random terminal window. For example, running jocamldep -modules foo.ml > foo.ml.depends on my project does generate the desired dependency file. So, it would seem I would have to configure OcaIDE and tell it where JoCaml executables are or something. This is done for OCaml, for example. But there is no place to do that for JoCaml. And it's really strange that, if jocamldep/jocamlc/etc are all accessible from anywhere, OcaIDE wouldn't be able to pick them. Any ideas? (I am aware I can do an ocamlbuild plugin and pass the flag in a "myocamlbuild.ml" file. I'll probably use that a latter stage after I get familiar with ocamlbuild plugins. But here the question is about OcaIDE. EDIT: Actually, ocamlbuild plugins don't seem to be a solution as, although there is an option -use-jocaml in ocamlbuild to enforce jocaml use (and it works fine), the plugin system doesn't support it, i.e. jocaml is not in the list of options.)

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Any workarounds for non-static member array initialization?

- by TomiJ

In C++, it's not possible to initialize array members in the initialization list, thus member objects should have default constructors and they should be properly initialized in the constructor. Is there any (reasonable) workaround for this apart from not using arrays? [Anything that can be initialized using only the initialization list is in our application far preferable to using the constructor, as that data can be allocated and initialized by the compiler and linker, and every CPU clock cycle counts, even before main. However, it is not always possible to have a default constructor for every class, and besides, reinitializing the data again in the constructor rather defeats the purpose anyway.] E.g. I'd like to have something like this (but this one doesn't work): class OtherClass { private: int data; public: OtherClass(int i) : data(i) {}; // No default constructor! }; class Foo { private: OtherClass inst[3]; // Array size fixed and known ahead of time. public: Foo(...) : inst[0](0), inst[1](1), inst[2](2) {}; }; The only workaround I'm aware of is the non-array one: class Foo { private: OtherClass inst0; OtherClass inst1; OtherClass inst2; OtherClass *inst[3]; public: Foo(...) : inst0(0), inst1(1), inst2(2) { inst[0]=&inst0; inst[1]=&inst1; inst[2]=&inst2; }; }; Edit: It should be stressed that OtherClass has no default constructor, and that it is very desirable to have the linker be able to allocate any memory needed (one or more static instances of Foo will be created), using the heap is essentially verboten. I've updated the examples above to highlight the first point.

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SYN receives RST,ACK very frequently

- by user1289508

Hi Socket Programming experts, I am writing a proxy server on Linux for SQL Database server running on Windows. The proxy is coded using bsd sockets and in C, and it is working just fine. When I use a database client (written in JAVA, and running on a Linux box) to fire queries (with a concurrency of 100 or more) directly to the Database server, not experiencing connection resets. But through my proxy I am experiencing many connection resets. Digging deeper I came to know that connection from 'DB client' to 'Proxy' always succeeds but when the 'Proxy' tries to connect to the DB server the connection fails, due to the SYN packet getting RST,ACK. That was to give some background. The question is : Why does sometimes SYN receives RST,ACK? 'DB client(linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ---- Works fine 'DB client(linux) to 'Proxy(Linux)' to 'Server(windows)' ----- problematic I am aware that this can happen in "connection refused" case but this definitely is not that one. SYN flooding might be another scenario, but that does not explain fine behavior while firing to Server directly. I am suspecting some socket option setting may be required, that the client does before connecting and my proxy does not. Please put some light on this. Any help (links or pointers) is most appreciated. Additional info: Wrote a C client that does concurrent connections, which takes concurrency as an argument. Here are my observations: - At 5000 concurrency and above, some connects failed with 'connection refused'. - Below 2000, it works fine. But the actual problem is observed even at a concurrency of 100 or more. Note: The problem is time dependent sometimes it never comes at all and sometimes it is very frequent and DB client (directly to server) works fine at all times .

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WINDOWS: Your computer hangs. You can windows + R (run dialog) but performance is so halted taskMGR

- by John Sullivan

The question is, what process are available to try to recover from total system instability before pulling the plug when we can do nothing but programs or batches in the path from the run dialog (windows + r key), and performance is so dead that taskMGR / procEXP / other programs with visual guis are not usable? I am not a windows expert, but ideally someone out there has written a program that does more or less stuff like this: Immediately set (or perhaps I can set from the run prompt) its priority to extremely high, evaluate performance bottlenecks. E.g. is CPU 100%? If so identify offending program(s) or problems. Attempt / log fixes, then provide crude feedback asking the user if his performance has stabilized enough to abort, wait a few seconds, if no feedback continue, etc. etc. Eventually try to do any "system cleanup" if the program decides it cannot recover and perhaps finally provide a series of beeps to the user, or what have you, to say "OK, I give up, time to pull the plug". Ideally create a log, when able. These kinds of horrible hangs are a situation where surely trying something, anything, is better than nothing -- as long as that something is intelligent -- when the alternative is ripping out the power coord. Again, I am not a windows expert, so perhaps there is a much more elegant "hands on" approach I am not aware of.

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How bad is it to embed JavaScript into the body of HTML?

- by Andrew

A team that I am working on has gotten into the habit of using <script> tags in random places in the body of our HTML pages. For example: <html> <head></head> <body> <div id="some-div"> <script type="text/javascript">//some javascipt here</script> </div> </body> </html> I had not seen this before. It seems to work in the few browsers that I've tested. But as far as I know, it's not valid to put script tags in places like this. Am I wrong? How bad is it that we are putting script tags within div tags like this? Are there any browser compatibility issues I should be aware of?

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