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  • Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

    - by Felix
    I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

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  • 'click' observer in Prototype

    - by Tom
    I have a page which contains several divs (each with a unique ID and the same class, 'parent'). Underneath each "parent" div, is a div with class "child" and unique ID name -child. This DIV is upon page load empty. Whenever you click on a parent DIV, the following code is executed. $$('div.parent').each(function(s){ $(s).observe('click', function(event){ event.stop(); var filer = $(s).readAttribute('filer'); var currentElement = $(s).id; var childElement = currentElement + '-children'; new Ajax.Updater ({success: childElement}, root + '/filers/interfacechildren', { parameters: {parentId: currentElement, filer: filer} }); }); }); Of course, it's possible that a child node is again a parent ont its own. The response looks like this (Smarty with Zend Framework): {foreach from=$ifaces item=interface} <div id="{$interface->name}" filer="{$interface->system_id}" class="parent">{$interface->name}</div> <div id="{$interface->name}-children" class="child"></div> {/foreach} Whenever I click on a "parent" div that is loaded inside a child, nothing happens :( Any suggestions / fixes how to fix this?

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  • NETCF - Optimized Repaint (onPaint)

    - by Nullstr1ng
    Hi Guys, I want to ask for suggestions on how to optimize a repaint in Compact Framework? GetHashCode() didn't help because it always return a different hash code. Anyway, I have a program which you can drag and resize an object in run time. This object is a transparent object and it has a PNG image which also dynamically resize relative to object client size. Though I noticed, (e.g. I have 4 transparent object and I'm dragging or resizing one) all 4 of them triggers OnPaintBackground even if the 3 are not moving. Another one when am just tapping on the one object .. it sill triggers onPaintBacground(). Anyway, I don't have a problem when this events get triggered. What I like to do is optimization and that means I only have to repaint the object when it's necessary. Can you guys please give a suggestions? here's my pseudo C# code Bitmap _backBuff; onResize() { if(_backBuff != null) _backBuff.Dispose(); _backBuff = new Bitmap(ClientSize.Width, ClientSize.Height); Invalidate(); } onPaintBackground(e) /*have to use onPaintBackground because MSDN said it's faster*/ { using(Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(_backBuff)) { g.Clear(Color.Black); // draw background ....some interface calling here ....and paint the background // draw alpha PNG .. get hDc .. paint PNG .. release hDc } e.Graphics.DrawImage(_backBuff,0,0); } Thanks in advance.

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  • Yii: Multi-language website - best practices.

    - by michal
    Hi, I find Yii great framework, and the example website created with yiic shell is a good point to start... however it doesn't cover the topic of multi-language websites, unfortunately. The docs covers the topic of translating short messages, but not keeping the multi-lingual content ... I'm about to start working on a website which needs to be in at least two languages, and I'm wondering what is the best way to keep content for that ... The problem is that the content is mixed extensively with common elements (like embedded video files). I need to avoid duplicating those commons ... so far I used to have an array of arrays containing texts (usually no more than 1-2 short paragraphs), then the view file was just rendering the text from an array. Now I'd like to avoid keeping it in arrays (which requires some attention when putting double quotations " " and is inconvenient in general...). So, what is the best way to keep those short paragraphs? Should I keep them in DB like (id | msg_id | language | content ) and then select them by msg_id & language? That still requires me to create some msg_id's and embed them into view file ... Is there any recommended paradigm for which Yii has some solutions? Thanks, m.

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  • Zend_Translate scan translation files

    - by nute
    I've trying to use Zend_Translate from Zend Framework I am using "POEdit" to generate "gettext" translation files. My files are under /www/mysite.com/webapps/includes/locale (this path is in my include path). I have: pictures.en.mo pictures.en.po (I plan on having pictures.es.mo soon) It all works fine if I manually do addTranslation() for each file. However I want to use the automatic file scanning method. I tried both of those: <?php /*Localization*/ require_once 'Zend/Translate.php'; require_once 'Zend/Locale.php'; define('LOCALE','/www/mysite.com/webapps/includes/locale'); if(!empty($_GET['locale'])){ $locale = new Zend_Locale($_GET['locale']); } else{ $locale = new Zend_Locale(); } $translate = new Zend_Translate('gettext', LOCALE, null, array('scan' => Zend_Translate::LOCALE_FILENAME)); if ( $translate->isAvailable( $locale->getLanguage() ) ){ $translate->setLocale($locale); } else{ $translate->setLocale('en'); } And this: <?php /*Localization*/ require_once 'Zend/Translate.php'; require_once 'Zend/Locale.php'; define('LOCALE','/www/mysite.com/webapps/includes/locale'); if(!empty($_GET['locale'])){ $locale = new Zend_Locale($_GET['locale']); } else{ $locale = new Zend_Locale(); } $translate = new Zend_Translate('gettext', LOCALE); if ( $translate->isAvailable( $locale->getLanguage() ) ){ $translate->setLocale($locale); } else{ $translate->setLocale('en'); } In both cases, I get a Notice: No translation for the language 'en' available. in /www/mysite.com/webapps/includes/Zend/Translate/Adapter.php on line 411 It also worked if I tried to do directory scanning.

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  • spring 3 AOP anotated advises

    - by Art79
    Trying to figure out how to Proxy my beans with AOP advices in annotated way. I have a simple class @Service public class RestSampleDao { @MonitorTimer public Collection<User> getUsers(){ .... return users; } } i have created custom annotation for monitoring execution time @Target({ ElementType.METHOD, ElementType.TYPE }) @Retention(RetentionPolicy.RUNTIME) public @interface MonitorTimer { } and advise to do some fake monitoring public class MonitorTimerAdvice implements MethodInterceptor { public Object invoke(MethodInvocation invocation) throws Throwable{ try { long start = System.currentTimeMillis(); Object retVal = invocation.proceed(); long end = System.currentTimeMillis(); long differenceMs = end - start; System.out.println("\ncall took " + differenceMs + " ms "); return retVal; } catch(Throwable t){ System.out.println("\nerror occured"); throw t; } } } now i can use it if i manually proxy the instance of dao like this AnnotationMatchingPointcut pc = new AnnotationMatchingPointcut(null, MonitorTimer.class); Advisor advisor = new DefaultPointcutAdvisor(pc, new MonitorTimerAdvice()); ProxyFactory pf = new ProxyFactory(); pf.setTarget( sampleDao ); pf.addAdvisor(advisor); RestSampleDao proxy = (RestSampleDao) pf.getProxy(); mv.addObject( proxy.getUsers() ); but how do i set it up in Spring so that my custom annotated methods would get proxied by this interceptor automatically? i would like to inject proxied samepleDao instead of real one. Can that be done without xml configurations? i think should be possible to just annotate methods i want to intercept and spring DI would proxy what is necessary. or do i have to use aspectj for that? would prefere simplest solution :- ) thanks a lot for help!

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  • TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

    - by Felix
    I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

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  • Do I really need an ORM?

    - by alchemical
    We're about to begin development on a mid-size ASP.Net MVC 2 web site. For a typical page, we grab data and throw it up on the web page, i.e. there is not much pre-processing of the data before it is sent to the UI. We're now making the decision whether or not to use an ORM and if yes, which one. We had been looking at EF2 AKA EF4 (ASP.Net Entity Framework in VS 2010) as one possibility. However, I'm thinking a simple solution in this case may be just to use datatables. The reason being that we don't plan to move the data around or process it a lot once we fetch it, so I'm not sure there is that much value in having strongly-typed objects as DTOs. Also, this way we avoid mapping altogether, thereby I think simplifying the code and allowing for faster development. I should mention budget is an issue on this project, as well as speed of execution. We are striving for simplicity anywhere we can, both to keep the budget smaller, the schedule shorter, and performance fast. We haven't fully decided this yet, but are currently leaning towards no ORM. Will we be OK with the no ORM approach or is an ORM worth it?

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  • How do I eliminate Error 3002?

    - by Andrew
    Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

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  • Linq to Entities and POCO foreign key relations mapping (1 to 0..1) problem

    - by brainnovative
    For my ASP.NET MVC 2 application I use Entity Framework 1.0 as my data access layer (repository). But I decided I want to return POCO. For the first time I have encountered a problem when I wanted to get a list of Brands with their optional logos. Here's what I did: public IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> GetAll() { IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> brands = from b in EntitiesCtx.Brands.Include("Logo") select new Model.Products.Brand() { BrandId = b.BrandId, Name = b.Name, Description = b.Description, IsActive = b.IsActive, Logo = /*b.Logo != null ? */new Model.Cms.Image() { ImageId = b.Logo.ImageId, Alt = b.Logo.Alt, Url = b.Logo.Url }/* : null*/ }; return brands; } You can see in the comments what I would like to achieve. It worked fine whenever a Brand had a Logo otherwise it through an exception that you can assign null to the non-nullable type int (for Id). My workaround was to use nullable in the POCO class but that's not natural - then I have to check not only if Logo is null in my Service layer or Controllers and Views but mostly for Logo.ImageId.HasValue. It's not justified to have a non null Logo property if the id is null. Can anyone think of a better solution?

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  • Idiomatic default sort using WCF RIA, EF4, Silverlight?

    - by Duncan Bayne
    I've got two Silverlight 4.0 ComboBoxes; the second displays the children of the entity selected in the first: <ComboBox Name="cmbThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Things,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" SelectionChanged="CmbThingsSelectionChanged" /> <ComboBox Name="cmbChildThings" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedThing.ChildThings,Mode=TwoWay}" DisplayMemberPath="Name" /> The code behind the view provides a (simple, hacky) way to databind those ComboBoxes, by loading Entity Framework 4.0 entities through a WCF RIA service: public EntitySet<Thing> Things { get; private set; } public Thing SelectedThing { get; private set; } protected override void OnNavigatedTo(NavigationEventArgs e) { var context = new SortingDomainContext(); context.Load(context.GetThingsQuery()); context.Load(context.GetChildThingsQuery()); Things = context.Things; DataContext = this; } private void CmbThingsSelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { SelectedThing = (Thing) cmbThings.SelectedItem; if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged.Invoke(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("SelectedThing")); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; What I'd like to do is have both combo boxes sort their contents alphabetically, and I'd like to specify that behaviour in the XAML if at all possible. Could someone please tell me what is the idiomatic way of doing this with the SL4 / EF4 / WCF RIA technology stack?

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  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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  • How to set up Hierarchical Zend Rest Routes?

    - by Kenji Baheux
    With the Zend Framework, I am trying to build routes for a REST api on resources organized in the following pattern: http://example.org/users/ http://example.org/users/234 http://example.org/users/234/items http://example.org/users/234/items/34 How do I set up this with Zend_Rest_Route? Here is how I have setup the route for the users resource (users/:id) in my bootstrap.php file: $this->bootstrap('frontController'); $frontController = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $restRoute = new Zend_Rest_Route($frontController); $frontController->getRouter()->addRoute('default', $restRoute); [As far as I understand, this is a catch all route so users/324/items/34 would results in parameters set as id=324 and items=34 and everything would be mapped to the Users (front module) Model. From there I guess I could just test for the items parameter and retrieve the item #34 for user #324 on a get request.]<=== I just checked it and it doesn't seems to work like that: Acessing /users/234/items/43 and var_dump($this->_getAllParams()); in the get action of the rest controller results in the following output: array(4) { ["controller"]=> string(5) "users" ["action"]=> string(3) "get" [2]=> string(5) "items" ["module"]=> string(7) "default"] } Somehow both ids got lost... Anyone?

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  • EF4 Generate Database

    - by shaneseaton
    Hi, I am trying my hardest to find the simplest way to create a basic "model first" entity framework example. However I am struggling with the actually generation of the database, particularly the running of the SQL against the database. Tools Visual Studio 2010 SQL Server 2008 Express Process Create a new class project Add a new Server-Database item (mdf) named "Database1.mdf" to the project Add an empty ADO.net Entity Model Create a simple entity (Person: Id, Name) Generate the Script selecting the Database1 connection created for me by visual studio Right click the script editor and select the "Execute SQL..." option Log in to SQLEXPRESS This is where is falls over saying it cant find a database name "Database1". The "problem" is that the SQL server has not had Database1 attached to it. I am 100% positive that Visual Studio use to attach a database to SQLExpress when it created a new database (Step 2). This appears to not be the case any more (even the beta of VS2010 did it). Can someone confirm this? or tell me how to get this to happen? Is there a way that I can modify the TSQL script to use an un-attached database. ie a file. I know I can use SQL Management Studio or sqlcmd to attach the database, but I would ideally like to avoid the solutions as I would like to see the cleanest method of just using visual studio. Ideal Solutions (in order of most prefered) Get visual studio to attach the newly created database Modify the generated SQL to point to file Thanks in advance.

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  • Problems with zend-tool reporting that providers are not valid

    - by Mario
    I have recently setup XAMPP 1.7.3 and ZendFramework 1.10.4 on a new computer and many of the commands that I normally use now fail. Here are the steps I used to setup and test ZF. First I added the ZF library folder (C:\xampp\php\ZendFramework-1.10.4\library) to the include path in php.ini. Then I added the ZF bin folder (C:\xampp\php\ZendFramework-1.10.4\bin) to my Path system variable. To test that everything is configured correctly I ran the command "zf show version" from the command line. The result is "Zend Framework Version: 1.9.6". Immediately something appears to be wrong. The file that is downloaded is "ZendFramework-1.10.4.zip" and the reported version is 1.9.6. I have re-downloaded the latest version (1.10.4) and removed old copy. Still the incorrect version number problem persisted. Having done some research there is a bug in the ZF knowledgebase that version 1.10.3 reports a wrong version number. So that may explain the version number problem. Moving forward I tried to run some zf-tool commands and certain commands reports that the action or provider is not valid. Example: C:\xampp\htdocs>zf create project test Creating project at C:/xampp/htdocs/test C:\xampp\htdocs>cd test C:\xampp\htdocs\test>zf create controller Test Creating a controller at C:\xampp\htdocs\test/application/controllers/TestController.php ... Updating project profile 'C:\xampp\htdocs\test/.zfproject.xml' C:\xampp\htdocs\test>zf create action test Test Creating an action named test inside controller at C:\xampp\htdocs\test/application/controllers/TestController.php ... Updating project profile 'C:\xampp\htdocs\test/.zfproject.xml' C:\xampp\htdocs\test>zf enable layout An Error Has Occurred Action 'enable' is not a valid action. ... C:\xampp\htdocs\test>zf create form Test An Error Has Occurred Provider 'form' is not a valid provider. ... Can any one provide insight into these errors and how to correct them?

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  • MySQL Connector for .NET - Is it REALLY mature?

    - by effkay
    After spending a miserable month with MySQL/.NET/EntityFramework, my findings: Support for Entity Framework is VERY primitive, please use it for student-subjects type of database. Kindly do not consider it using for serious development as they ARE STILL unable to sort out VERY BASIC things like: it DOES NOT support unsigned stuff it DOES NOT support unsigned columns as FK; if you try, it gives you a beautiful exception; "The specified value is not an instance of a valid constant type\r\nParameter name: value" [http://bugs.mysql.com/bug.php?id=44801] blob cannot store more then few KB; cannot compare null object with a column with a LEGAL null value [http://bugs.mysql.com/bug.php?id=49936] they are unable to write VERY PRIMITIVE check to return date as null if value in column is 0000-00-00 00:00:00 if you use Visual Studio; sorry; mysql/sun guys hate Microsoft, they will NOT LET you import more then two or three tables (for Micky Mouse type of tables, they allow five; but thats it) - if you try, it will throw TIME OUT error on your face ... unless you are smart enough to change the connection time in connection string Anyone who would like to add in above list? WISH I would have seen a list like this before I selected MySQL :(

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  • How to Increase the time till a read timeout error occurs?

    - by Alex
    Hi all. I've written in PHP a script that takes a long time to execute [Image processing for thousands of pictures]. It's a meter of hours - maybe 5. After 15 minutes of processing, I get the error: ERROR The requested URL could not be retrieved The following error was encountered while trying to retrieve the URL: The URL which I clicked Read Timeout The system returned: [No Error] A Timeout occurred while waiting to read data from the network. The network or server may be down or congested. Please retry your request. Your cache administrator is webmaster. What I need is to enable that script to run for much longer. Now, here are all the technical info: I'm writing in PHP and using the Zend Framework. I'm using Firefox. The long script that is processed is done after clicking a link. Obviously, since the script is not over I see the web page on which the link was and the web browser writes "waiting for ...". After 15 minutes the error occurs. I tried to make changes to Firefox threw about:config but without any success. I don't know, but the changes might be needed somewhere else. So, any ideas? Thanks ahead.

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  • Simple Xml list parsing problem

    - by Hubidubi
    I have this xml: <root> <fruitlist> <apple>4</apple> <apple>5</apple> <orange>2</orange> <orange>6</orange> </fruitlist> </root> I'm writing a parser class, although I can't figure out how to deal with multiple node types. I can easily parse a list that contains only one node type (eg. just apples, not oranges) @ElementList(name = "fruitlist") private List<Apple> exercises; with more than one node type it also wants so parse non Apple nodes which doesn't work. I also tried to make another list for oranges, but it doen't work, I can't use fruitlist name more than once. @ElementList(name = "fruitlist", entry = "orange") private List<Orange> exercises; The ideal would be two seperate list for both node types. Hubi EDIT: After more searching & fiddling this question is a duplicate: Inheritance with Simple XML Framework

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  • ASP.Net MVC Object Reference in Edit View when using DropDownListFor()

    - by hermiod
    This question is related to another I ask recently, it can be found here for some background information. Here is the code in the Edit ActionResult: public virtual ActionResult Edit(int id) { ///Set data for DropDownLists. ViewData["MethodList"] = tr.ListMethods(); ViewData["GenderList"] = tr.ListGenders(); ViewData["FocusAreaList"] = tr.ListFocusAreas(); ViewData["SiteList"] = tr.ListSites(); ViewData["TypeList"] = tr.ListTalkbackTypes(); ViewData["CategoryList"] = tr.ListCategories(); return View(tr.GetTalkback(id)); } I add lists to the ViewData to use in the dropdownlists, these are all IEnumerable and are all returning values. GetTalkback() returns an Entity framework object of type Talkback which is generated from the Talkback table. The DropDownListFor code is: <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model=>model.method_id,new SelectList(ViewData["MethodList"] as IEnumerable<SelectListItem>,"Value","Text",Model.method_id)) %> The record I am viewing has values in all fields. When I click submit on the View, I get an Object reference not set to an instance of an object. error on the above line. There are a number of standard fields in the form prior to this, so the error is only occurring on dropdown lists, and it is occurring on all of them. Any ideas? This is my first foray in to MVC, C#, and Entity so I am completely lost!

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  • Best pattern for storing (product) attributes in SQL Server

    - by EdH
    We are starting a new project where we need to store product and many product attributes in a database. The technology stack is MS SQL 2008 and Entity Framework 4.0 / LINQ for data access. The products (and Products Table) are pretty straightforward (a SKU, manufacturer, price, etc..). However there are also many attributes to store with each product (think industrial widgets). These may range from color to certification(s) to pipe size. Every product may have different attributes, and some may have multiples of the same attribute (Ex: Certifications). The current proposal is that we will basically have a name/value pair table with a FK back to the product ID in each row. An example of the attributes Table may look like this: ProdID AttributeName AttributeValue 123 Color Blue 123 FittingSize 1.25 123 Certification AS1111 123 Certification EE2212 123 Certification FM.3 456 Pipe 11 678 Color Red 999 Certification AE1111 ... Note: Attribute name would likely come from a lookup table or enum. So the main question here is: Is this the best pattern for doing something like this? How will the performance be? Queries will be based on a JOIN of the product and attributes table, and generally need many WHEREs to filter on specific attributes - the most common search will be to find a product based on a set of known/desired attributes. If anyone has any suggestions or a better pattern for this type of data, please let me know. Thanks! -Ed

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  • Access custom error messages for InArray validator when using Zend_Form_Element_Select

    - by Ben Waine
    Hello, I'm using Zend Framework 1.62 (becuase we are deploying the finished product to a Red Hat instance, which doesn't have a hgih enough PHP version to support ZF1.62). When creating a Form using Zend Form, I add a select element, add some multi options. I use the Zend Form as an in-object validation layer, passing an objects values through it and using the isValid method to determine if all the values fall within normal parameters. Zend_Form_Element_Select works exactly as expected, showing invalid if any other value is input other than one of the multi select options I added. The problem comes when I want to display the form at some point, I cant edit the error message created by the pre registered 'InArray' validator added automatically by ZF. I know I can disable this behaviour, but it works great apart from the error messages. I've tryed the following: $this->getElement('country')->getValidator('InArray')->setMessage('The country is not in the approved lists of countries'); // Doesn't work at all. $this->getElement('country')->setErrorMessage('The country is not in the approved lists of countries'); // Causes a conflict elswhere in the application and doesnt allow granular control of error messages. Anyone have any ideas? Ben

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  • How to create an SaaS Application?

    - by Andrew
    I don't know how else to say it so I'm just going to explain my ideal scenario and hopefully you can explain to me how to implement it... I'm creating an application with the Zend Framework that will be hosted with DreamHost. The application will be hosted on its own domain (i.e. example-app.com). Basically, a user should be able to sign up, get their own domain sampleuser.example-app.com or example-app.com/sampleuser which points to, what looks like their own instance of the app, which is really a single instance serving up different content based on the url. Eventually, I want my users to be able to create their own domain (like foobar.com) that points to sampleuser.example-app.com, such that visitors to foobar.com don't notice that the site is really being served up from example-app.com. I don't know how to do most of that stuff. How does this process work? Do I need to do some funky stuff with Apache or can this be done with a third party host, like DreamHost? Update: Thanks for the advice! I've decided to bite the bullet and upgrade my hosting plan to utilize wildcard subdomains. It's cheaper than I was expecting! I also found out about domain reseller programs, like opensrs.com, that have their own API. I think using one of these APIs will be the solution to my domain registration issue.

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  • EntityFramework repository template- how to write GetByID lamba within a template class?

    - by FerretallicA
    I am trying to write a generic one-size-fits-most repository pattern template class for an Entity Framework-based project I'm currently working on. The (heavily simplified) interface is: internal interface IRepository<T> where T : class { T GetByID(int id); IEnumerable<T> GetAll(); IEnumerable<T> Query(Func<T, bool> filter); } GetByID is proving to be the killer. In the implementation: public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T>,IUnitOfWork<T> where T : class { // etc... public T GetByID(int id) { return this.ObjectSet.Single<T>(t=>t.ID == id); } t=t.ID == id is the particular bit I'm struggling with. Is it even possible to write lamba functions like that within template classes where no class-specific information is going to be available?

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  • Why is WMDC/ActiveSync so flaky?

    - by Ira Rainey
    I'm developing a Windows Mobile app using the .NET Compact Framework 3.5 and VS2008, and for debugging using the Device Emulator V3, on Win7, and seem to have constant problems with Windows Mobile Device Centre (6.1) connecting. Using the Emulator Manager (9.0.21022.8) I cradle the device using DMA in WMDC. The problem is it's so flaky at actually connecting that it's becoming a pain. I find that when I turn my computer on, before I can get it to connect I have to open up WMDC, disable Connect over DMA, close WMDC down, reopen it again, and then it might cradle. Often I have to do this twice before it will cradle. Once it's cradled it's generally fine, but nothing seems consistent in getting it to connect. Connecting with physical devices is often better, although not always. If I plug a PDA into a USB socket other than the one it was originally plugged into then it won't connect at all. Often the best/most reliable connection method seems to be over Bluetooth, but that's quite slow. Anybody got any tips or advice?

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  • EF 4.0 : Save Changes Retry Logic

    - by BGR
    Hi, I would like to implement an application wide retry system for all entity SaveChanges method calls. Technologies: Entity framework 4.0 .Net 4.0 namespace Sample.Data.Store.Entities { public partial class StoreDB { public override int SaveChanges(System.Data.Objects.SaveOptions options) { for (Int32 attempt = 1; ; ) { try { return base.SaveChanges(options); } catch (SqlException sqlException) { // Increment Trys attempt++; // Find Maximum Trys Int32 maxRetryCount = 5; // Throw Error if we have reach the maximum number of retries if (attempt == maxRetryCount) throw; // Determine if we should retry or abort. if (!RetryLitmus(sqlException)) throw; else Thread.Sleep(ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(attempt)); } } } static Int32 ConnectionRetryWaitSeconds(Int32 attempt) { Int32 connectionRetryWaitSeconds = 2000; // Backoff Throttling connectionRetryWaitSeconds = connectionRetryWaitSeconds * (Int32)Math.Pow(2, attempt); return (connectionRetryWaitSeconds); } /// <summary> /// Determine from the exception if the execution /// of the connection should Be attempted again /// </summary> /// <param name="exception">Generic Exception</param> /// <returns>True if a a retry is needed, false if not</returns> static Boolean RetryLitmus(SqlException sqlException) { switch (sqlException.Number) { // The service has encountered an error // processing your request. Please try again. // Error code %d. case 40197: // The service is currently busy. Retry // the request after 10 seconds. Code: %d. case 40501: //A transport-level error has occurred when // receiving results from the server. (provider: // TCP Provider, error: 0 - An established connection // was aborted by the software in your host machine.) case 10053: return (true); } return (false); } } } The problem: How can I run the StoreDB.SaveChanges to retry on a new DB context after an error occured? Something simular to Detach/Attach might come in handy. Thanks in advance! Bart

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