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  • When should EntityManagerFactory instance be created/opened ?

    - by masato-san
    Ok, I read bunch of articles/examples how to write Entity Manager Factory in singleton. One of them easiest for me to understand a bit: http://javanotepad.blogspot.com/2007/05/jpa-entitymanagerfactory-in-web.html I learned that EntityManagerFactory (EMF) should only be created once preferably in application scope. And also make sure to close the EMF once it's used (?) So I wrote EMF helper class for business methods to use: public class EmProvider { private static final String DB_PU = "KogaAlphaPU"; public static final boolean DEBUG = true; private static final EmProvider singleton = new EmProvider(); private EntityManagerFactory emf; private EmProvider() {} public static EmProvider getInstance() { return singleton; } public EntityManagerFactory getEntityManagerFactory() { if(emf == null) { emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory(DB_PU); } if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("factory created on: " + new Date()); } return emf; } public void closeEmf() { if(emf.isOpen() || emf != null) { emf.close(); } emf = null; if(DEBUG) { System.out.println("EMF closed at: " + new Date()); } } }//end class And my method using EmProvider: public String foo() { EntityManager em = null; List<Object[]> out = null; try { em = EmProvider.getInstance().getEntityManagerFactory().createEntityManager(); Query query = em.createNativeQuery(JPQL_JOIN); //just some random query out = query.getResultList(); } catch(Exception e) { //handle error.... } finally { if(em != null) { em.close(); //make sure to close EntityManager } } I made sure to close EntityManager (em) within method level as suggested. But when should EntityManagerFactory be closed then? And why EMF has to be singleton so bad??? I read about concurrency issues but as I am not experienced multi-thread-grammer, I can't really be clear on this idea.

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  • Using awk to return only certain chunks of data

    - by Koriar
    I'm not 100% certain how to phrase my question simply, so I apologize if this has been answered somewhere and I was just unable to find it. What I have are debug logs with authentication packets in them along with a bunch of other output. I need to search through about 2 million lines of logs to find every packet that contains a certain mac address. The packets look something like this (slightly censored): -----------------[ header ]----------------- Event: Authd-Response (1900) Sequence: -54 Timestamp: 1969-12-31 19:30:00 (0) ---------------[ attributes ]--------------- Auth-Result = Auth-Accept Service-Profile-SID = 53 Service-Profile-SID = 49 RADIUS-Access-Accept-Attr/WiMAX-Capability = 0x(numbers) Session-Timeout = 3600 Service-Profile-SID = 4 Service-Profile-SID = 29 Chargeable-User-Identity = "(Numbers)" User-Password = "(the MAC address I'm looking for)" -------------------------------------------- However there are about 10 different possible types with different possible lengths. They all start with the header line and end with the all-dashes line. I've had success using awk to get the code blocks themselves using this: awk '/-----------------\[ header \]-----------------/,/--------------------------------------------/' filename.txt But I was hoping to be able to use it to return only the packets which contain the MAC address that I need. I've been trying to figure this out for a few days now and I'm pretty stuck. I could try and write a bash script, but I could swear that I've used awk to do something like this before...

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  • Is this 2D array initialization a bad idea?

    - by Brendan Long
    I have something I need a 2D array for, but for better cache performance, I'd rather have it actually be a normal array. Here's the idea I had but I don't know if it's a terrible idea: const int XWIDTH = 10, YWIDTH = 10; int main(){ int * tempInts = new int[XWIDTH * YWIDTH]; int ** ints = new int*[XWIDTH]; for(int i=0; i<XWIDTH; i++){ ints[i] = &tempInts[i*YWIDTH]; } // do things with ints delete[] ints[0]; delete[] ints; return 0; } So the idea is that instead of newing a bunch of arrays (and having them placed in different places in memory), I just point to an array I made all at once. The reason for the delete[] (int*) ints; is because I'm actually doing this in a class and it would save [trivial amounts of] memory to not save the original pointer. Just wondering if there's any reasons this is a horrible idea. Or if there's an easier/better way. The goal is to be able to access the array as ints[x][y] rather than ints[x*YWIDTH+y].

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  • MVC2 Json request not actually hitting the controller

    - by SlackerCoder
    I have a JSON request, but it seems that it is not hitting the controller. Here's the jQuery code: $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").change(function() { globalLogSelection = $("#ddlAdminLogsSelectLog").val(); alert(globalLogSelection); $.getJSON("/Administrative/AdminLogsChangeLogSelection", { NewSelection: globalLogSelection }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { globalCurrentPage = 1; } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do Something } }); }); The alert is there to show me if it actually fired the change event, which it does. Heres the method in the controller: public ActionResult AdminLogsChangeLogSelection(String NewSelection) { String sMessage = String.Empty; StringBuilder sbDataReturn = new StringBuilder(); try { if (NewSelection.Equals("Application Log")) { int i = 0; } else if (NewSelection.Equals("Email Log")) { int l = 0; } } catch (Exception e) { //Do Something sMessage = "Error"; } return Json(new { Message = sMessage, DataReturn = sbDataReturn.ToString() }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } I have a bunch of Json requests in my application, and it seems to only happen in this area. This is a separate area (I have 6 "areas" in the app, 5 of which work fine with JSON requests). This controller is named "AdministrativeController", if that matters. Does anything jump out anyone as being incorrect or why the request would not pass to the server side?

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  • DataReader is not returning results from a MySQL Stored Proc

    - by Glenn Slaven
    I have a stored proc in MySQL (5.5) that I'm calling from a C# application (using MySQL.Data v6.4.4.0). I have a bunch of other procs that work fine, but this is not returning any results, the data reader says the result set is empty. The proc does a couple of inserts & an update inside a transaction then selects 2 local variables to return. The inserts & update are happening, but the select is not returning. When I run the proc manually it works, gives a single row with the two fields, but the data reader is empty. This is the proc: CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `File_UpdateFile`(IN siteId INT, IN fileId INT, IN description VARCHAR(100), IN folderId INT, IN fileSize INT, IN filePath VARCHAR(100), IN userId INT) BEGIN START TRANSACTION; SELECT MAX(v.versionNumber) + 1 INTO @versionNumber FROM `file_version` v JOIN `file` f ON (v.fileId = f.fileId) WHERE v.fileId = fileId AND f.siteId = siteId; INSERT INTO `file_version` (fileId, versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, uploadedOn, uploadedBy, fileVersionState) VALUES (fileId, @versionNumber, description, fileSize, filePath, NOW(), userId, 0); INSERT INTO filehistory (fileId, `action`, userId, createdOn) VALUES (fileId, 'UPDATE', userId, NOW()); UPDATE `file` f SET f.checkedOutBy = NULL WHERE f.fileId = fileId; COMMIT; SELECT fileId, @versionNumber `versionNumber`; END$$ I'm calling the proc using Dapper, but I've debugged into the SqlMapper class and I can see that the reader is not returning anything.

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  • MVC Html.ActionLink with post funtionality?

    - by Levitikon
    I'm checking to see if anyone has written an MVC extension for Html.ActionLink that you can pass in Post parameters like such: <% Html.ActionLink("Click me", "Index", "Home", new { MyRouteValue = "123" }, null, new { postParam1 = "a", postParam2 = "b" }); %> That would render the link like normal but having an onClick event that submits an also rendered form with an Action url for the Action, Controller, and Route Values with additional hidden inputs from the Post Parameters like such: <a href="#" onClick="$('#theform').submit(); return false;">Click me</a> <form id="theform" action="/Home/Index/123" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="postParam1" value="a"> <input type="hidden" name="postParam2" value="b"> </form> I'm looking to redirect users to various pages with potentially a lot of data. Not only from page to page, but from email to page also. This would be highly reusable and I think would clean up a lot of code, and would save a bunch of time writing this if its already floating around out there. I hate recreating the wheel when I don't have to. Thanks!

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  • iBatis not populating object when there are no rows found.

    - by Omnipresent
    I am running a stored procedure that returns 2 cursors and none of them have any data. I have the following mapping xml: <resultMap id="resultMap1" class="HashMap"> <result property="firstName" columnIndex="2"/> </resultMap> <resultMap id="resultMap2" class="com.somePackage.MyBean"> <result property="unitStreetName" column="street_name"/> </resultMap> <parameterMap id="parmmap" class="map"> <parameter property="id" jdbcType="String" javaType="java.lang.String" mode="IN"/> <parameter property="Result0" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap1"/> <parameter property="Result1" jdbcType="ORACLECURSOR" javaType="java.sql.ResultSet" mode="OUT" resultMap="resultMap2"/> </parameterMap> <procedure id="proc" parameterMap="parmmap"> { call my_sp (?,?,?) } </procedure> First result set is being put in a HashMap...second resultSet is being put in a MyBean class. code in my DAO follows: HashMap map = new HashMap() map.put("id", "1234"); getSqlMapClientTemplate().queryForList("mymap.proc", map); HashMap result1 = (HashMap)((List)parmMap.get("Result0")).get(0); MyBean myObject = (MyBean)((List)parmMap.get("Result1")).get(0);//code fails here in the last line above..my code fails. It fails because second cursor has no rows and thats why nothing is put into the list. However, first cursor returns nothing as well but since results are being put into a HashMap the list for first cursor atleast has HashMap object inside it.. Why this difference? is there a way to make iBatis put an object of MyBean inside the list even if there are no rows returned? Or should I be handling this in my DAO...I want to avoid handling it in the DAO because I have whole bunch of DAO's like these.

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  • Iterative printing over two data types in Python

    - by old Ixfoxleigh
    I often browse freely-available art on the web. Actually, I can't think of a better use for the internet than to turn it into a gigantic art gallery. When I encounter a set of pieces I quite like, I download them all to my hard drive. wget makes that easy, especially in combination with Python's print function, and I use this all the time to make a list of URLs that I then wget. Say I need to download a list of jpegs that run from art0 to art100 in the directory 'art,' I just tell python for i in range(0,101): print "http://somegallery/somedirectory/art", i So, this is probably a fairly simple operation in Python, and after a find-and-replace to remove whitespace, it's just a matter of using wget -i, but in days before I knew any Python I'd slavishly right-click and save. Now I've got a bunch of files from Fredericks & Freiser gallery in New York that all go a(1-14), b(1-14), c(1-14), etc., up to the letter g. I could do that in 7 goes, and it would take me less time than it took to write this SO question. That said, I want to deepen my knowledge of Python. So, given the letters a-g, how do I print a mapping of each letter to the integers 1-14?

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  • What's the best way to "shuffle" a table of database records?

    - by Darth
    Say that I have a table with a bunch of records, which I want to randomly present to users. I also want users to be able to paginate back and forth, so I have to perserve some sort of order, at least for a while. The application is basically only AJAX and it uses cache for already visited pages, so even if I always served random results, when the user tries to go back, he will get the previous page, because it will load from the local cache. The problem is, that if I return only random results, there might be some duplicates. Each page contains 6 results, so to prevent this, I'd have to do something like WHERE id NOT IN (1,2,3,4 ...) where I'd put all the previously loaded IDs. Huge downside of that solution is that it won't be possible to cache anything on the server side, as every user will request different data. Alternate solution might be to create another column for ordering the records, and shuffle it every insert time unit here. The problem here is, I'd need to set random number out of a sequence to every record in the table, which would take as many queries as there are records. I'm using Rails and MySQL if that's of any relevance.

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  • I need to recover an instance of an activity

    - by Bilthon
    Well.. the title is pretty descriptive, I have a bunch of tab activities (which I implemented myself, didn't want to use the tabviews with activities inside them), so It's basically 5 activities calling each other every time the user clicks on the tabs displayed as a row of LinearLayouts at the bottom of the screen. The thing is that the way I do it now, everytime the user jumps from one activity to another, a new activity is created and launched. Of course, I can see I'm wasting resources this way. So what I would like to do is to create every activity only once; and then if the user wants to go back to the previous (or any one that was already created and is probably paused) just check on some kind of list or array to see if the activity can be recovered and only in the case it can't; to lauch a new one. My question is, how can I check this? should I save the intents? and how to recover the activities afterwards? I'm kind of new with java. Greetings Nelson R. Perez

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  • Facebook - generating fb tag in Jquery - not working

    - by Gublooo
    Hey guys Kind of stuck here - I have this functionality on my site where I display 10 user comments along with their photo and when a user clicks on "More" - using Jquery more results are fetched from DB and the results are displayed via string generated in the Jquery method. This is a shortened version of my Jquery function $(".more_swipes").live('click',function() { var profile_id = 'profile-user_id; ?'; $.getJSON("/profile/more-swipes", { user_id: profile_id},function(swipes) { $.each(swipes, function(i,data){ newcomment="<div"; newcomment +="<fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/"; newcomment +="Name="+data.user_name+"-Comment="+data.comment; $("#moreswipes").append(newcomment); }); }); return false; }); Here as you can see I'm using the tag <fb:profile-pic uid='"+data.fb_userid+"' linked='false'/ Now when more results get displayed, the profile pic of the user is not getting displayed - when I look at the source code - this is how the fb tag looks when its generated thru Jquery <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" Whereas the FB tags not generated thru the Jquery code look like <fb:profile-pic uid="222222" linked="false" height="50" width="50" class="FB_profile_pic <fb_profile_pic_rendered FB_ElementReady" style="width:px;height:50px" <img src="http://profile.atk......2025.jpg" alt="User Name" title="User Name" style="width:px;height:50px" class="FB_profile_pic"/ </fb:profile-pic So when I add it as a String in JQuery function - facebook is not identifying it and executing it Any idea how to fix this Thanks a bunch

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  • Handle BACK key event in child view

    - by Mick Byrne
    In my app, users can tap on image thumbnails to see a full size version. When the thumbnail is tapped a bunch of new views are created in code (i.e. no XML), appended at the end of the view hierarchy and some scaling and rotating transitions happen, then the full size, high res version of the image is displayed. Tapping on the full size image reverses the transitions and removes the new views from the view hierarchy. I want users to also be able to press the BACK key to reverse the image transitions. However, I can't seem to catch the KeyEvent. This is what I'm trying at the moment: // Set a click listener on the image to reverse everything frameView.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View arg0) { zoomOut(); // This works fine } }); // Set the focus onto the frame and then set a key listener to catch the back buttons frameView.setFocusable(true); frameView.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); frameView.requestFocus(); frameView.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { // The code never even gets here !!! if(keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK && event.getRepeatCount() == 0) { zoomOut(); return true; } return false; } });

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  • create a class attribute without going through __setattr__

    - by eric.frederich
    Hello, What I have below is a class I made to easily store a bunch of data as attributes. They wind up getting stored in a dictionary. I override __getattr__ and __setattr__ to store and retrieve the values back in different types of units. When I started overriding __setattr__ I was having trouble creating that initial dicionary in the 2nd line of __init__ like so... super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) My question... Is there an easier way to create a class level attribute with going through __setattr__? Also, should I be concerned about keeping a separate dictionary or should I just store everything in self.__dict__? #!/usr/bin/env python from unitconverter import convert import re special_attribute_re = re.compile(r'(.+)__(.+)') class MyDataFile(object): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(MyDataFile, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) super(MyDataFile, self).__setattr__('_data', {}) # # For attribute type access # def __setattr__(self, name, value): self._data[name] = value def __getattr__(self, name): if name in self._data: return self._data[name] match = special_attribute_re.match(name) if match: varname, units = match.groups() if varname in self._data: return self.getvaras(varname, units) raise AttributeError # # other methods # def getvaras(self, name, units): from_val, from_units = self._data[name] if from_units == units: return from_val return convert(from_val, from_units, units), units def __str__(self): return str(self._data) d = MyDataFile() print d # set like a dictionary or an attribute d.XYZ = 12.34, 'in' d.ABC = 76.54, 'ft' # get it back like a dictionary or an attribute print d.XYZ print d.ABC # get conversions using getvaras or using a specially formed attribute print d.getvaras('ABC', 'cm') print d.XYZ__mm

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  • Custom UITableViewCell from xib isn't displaying properly

    - by Kenny Wyland
    I've created custom UITableCells a bunch of times and I've never run into this problem, so I'm hoping you can help me find the thing I've missed or messed up. When I run my app, the cells in my table view appear to be standard cells with Default style. I have SettingsTableCell which is a subclass of UITableViewCell. I have a SettingsTableCell.xib which contains a UITableViewCell and inside that are a couple labels and a textfield. I've set the class type in the xib to be SettingsTableCell and the File's Owner of the xib to my table controller. My SettingsTableController has an IBOutlet property named tableCell. My cellForRowAtIndexPath contains the following code to load my table view xib and assign it to my table controller's tableCell property: static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"CellSettings"; SettingsTableCell *cell = (SettingsTableCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"SettingsTableCell" owner:self options:nil]; cell = self.tableCell; self.tableCell = nil; NSLog(@"cell=%@", cell); } This is what my xib set up looks like in IB: When I run my app, the table displays as if all of the cells are standard Default style cells though: The seriously weird part is though... if I tap on the area of the cell where the textfield SHOULD be, the keyboard does come up! The textfield isn't visible, there's no cursor or anything like that... but it does respond. The visible UILabel is obviously not the UILabel from my xib though because the label in my xib is right justified and the one showing in the app is left justified. I'm incredibly confused about how this is happening. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

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  • submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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  • Approaches for animating a C# property over time?

    - by Mario Fritsch
    I'm currently trying to animate a bunch of public properties on certain objects. Usually they are of type float or vectors of floats (the type is known at compile-time). I want to be able to: assign a static value to them (MyObject.Duration = 10f;) or assign a random value to them by specifying a minimum and maximum value and optionally also a weight (MyObject.Duration = new RandomFloat(5f, 20f, 2f);) or "bind" this property to the property of another object (think of a child object binding some of its properties to its parent object, like its color or size or sth.) or assign sort of a keyframe animation to them, specifying a variable number of keyframes with timecode and the property's value at that specific point in time as well as information about how to interpolate between these frames The keyframes should be able to accept random values for each frame, both for the time and the property's value. What would be a practical approach for this kind of system? Currently I'm thinking about polymorphism: implement a base class or interface with a public Value-property and/or GetValue(float time)-method and then creating different sub classes like StaticValue, RandomValue, BindingValue and AnimatedValue implementing this base class or interface. Doesn't seem very elegant, though, and the initialization of even simple objects becomes a bit tedious. Another idea would be to implement these properties just as regular floats or vectors and create special "Modifier"-types binding to these properties. To retrieve the "real" value of the property, I'd first call any Modifier bound to the property, which would in turn update the actual object's property for me to retrieve later on. That would most likely mean using reflection at some point, which could be quite bad for performance as I'll probably have thousands of properties to update dozens of times per second. Any suggestions on this? Being a novice I'm (hopefully) missing some far more elegant and/or practical solution than I'm already playing around with :( Edit: Probably should have mentioned this earlier, but WPF isn't an option - it's not available on all targetted platforms, so I can't rely on it. I'm aware of its powerful databinding and animation capabilities, but I need to roll my own (or find some other lightweight alternative meeting my needs).

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  • Advice on Linq to SQL mapping object design

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    I hope the title and following text are clear, I'm not very familiar with the correct terms so please correct me if I get anything wrong. I'm using Linq ORM for the first time and am wondering how to address the following. Say I have two DB tables: User ---- Id Name Phone ----- Id UserId Model The Linq code generator produces a bunch of entity classes. I then write my own classes and interfaces which wrap these Linq classes: class DatabaseUser : IUser { public DatabaseUser(User user) { _user = user; } public Guid Id { get { return _user.Id; } } ... etc } so far so good. Now it's easy enough to find a users phones from Phones.Where(p => p.User = user) but surely comsumers of the API shouldn't need to be writing their own Linq queries to get at data, so I should wrap this query in a function or property somewhere. So the question is, in this example, would you add a Phones property to IUser or not? In other words, should my interface specifically be modelling my database objects (in which case Phones doesn't belong in IUser), or are they actually simply providing a set of functions and properties which are conceptually associated with a User (in which case it does)? There seems drawbacks to both views, but I'm wondering if there is a standard approach to the problem. Or just any general words of wisdom you could share. My first thought was to use extension methods but in fact that doesn't work in this case.

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  • asmx web service returning xml instead of json in .net 4.0

    - by Baldy
    i have just upgraded a test copy of my site to asp.net 4.0 and have noticed a strange issue that only arises when i upload the site to my server. the site has an asmx web service that returns json, yet when i run the site on my server it returns xml. it as been working fine in asp.net 3.5 for over a year. the webMethod is decorated with the correct attributes... [WebMethod][ScriptMethod(ResponseFormat = ResponseFormat.Json)] public List<LocationRecentChange> RecentChanges() and on my local machine it returns json. yet on the server (Windows 2008 64bit) it returns xml. you can inspect the response on the test site here... my test site using firebug console you will see a 200 OK response and a bunch of XML, and on my local machine the data returned is the JSON i expect. Here is the javascript that calls the service.. function loadRecentData() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "service/spots.asmx/RecentChanges", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: loadRecentUpdates, failure: function(msg) { //alert(msg); } }); } Any suggestions welcome, this has got me stumped!

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  • In Emacs, how can I use imenu more sensibly with C#?

    - by Cheeso
    I've used emacs for a long time, but I haven't been keeping up with a bunch of features. One of these is speedbar, which I just briefly investigated now. Another is imenu. Both of these were mentioned in in-emacs-how-can-i-jump-between-functions-in-the-current-file? Using imenu, I can jump to particular methods in the module I'm working in. But there is a parse hierarchy that I have to negotiate before I get the option to choose (with autocomplete) the method name. It goes like this. I type M-x imenu and then I get to choose Using or Types. The Using choice allows me to jump to any of the using statements at the top level of the C# file (something like imports statements in a Java module, for those of you who don't know C#). Not super helpful. I choose Types. Then I have to choose a namespace and a class, even though there is just one of each in the source module. At that point I can choose between variables, types, and methods. If I choose methods I finally get the list of methods to choose from. The hierarchy I traverse looks like this; Using Types Namespace Class Types Variables Methods method names Only after I get to the 5th level do I get to select the thing I really want to jump to: a particular method. Imenu seems intelligent about the source module, but kind of hard to use. Am I doing it wrong?

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  • MySQL - What is wrong with this query or my database? Terrible performance.

    - by Moss
    SELECT * from `employees` a LEFT JOIN (SELECT phone1 p1, count(*) c, FROM `employees` GROUP BY phone1) b ON a.phone1 = b.p1; I'm not sure if it is this query in particular that has the problem. I have been getting terrible performance in general with this database. The table in question has 120,000 rows. I have tried this particular query remotely and locally with the MyISAM and InnoDB engines, with different types of joins, and with and without an index on phone1. I can get this to complete in about 4 minutes on a 10,000 row table successfully but performance drops exponentially with larger tables. Remotely it will lose connection to the server and locally it brings my system to its knees and seems to go on forever. This query is only a smaller step I was trying to do when a larger query couldn't complete. Maybe I should explain the whole scenario. I have one big flat ugly table that lists a bunch of people and their contact info and the info of the companies they work for. I'm trying to normalize the database and intelligently determine which phone numbers apply to individual people and which apply to an office location. My reasoning is that if a phone number occurs multiple times and the number of occurrence equals the number of times that the street address it is attached to occurs then it must be an office number. So the first step is to count each phone number grouping by phone number. Normally if you just use COUNT()...GROUP BY it will only list the first record it finds in that group so I figured I have to join the full table to the count table where the phone number matches. This does work but as I said I can't successfully complete it on any table much larger than 10,000 rows. This seems pathetic and this doesn't seem like a crazy query to do. Is there a better way to achieve what I want or do I have to break my large table into 12 pieces or is there something wrong with the table or db?

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  • CustomButton Field not aligning in the center

    - by rupesh
    Hi all I have created a custom button and i am placing the bunch of Custombuttons in a verticalfieldManager , I have aligned the verticalField Manager in the center. when i am creating a default buttonField then verticalfield Manager is able to align the buttonfield in the center. but when i am assigning custombuttonfield in the verticalField Manager it's not aligning in the center. here is my custombuttoncode enter code herepublic CustomButtonField(String label,long style) { super(style); this.label = label; onPicture = Bitmap.getBitmapResource(onPicturePath); font = getFont(); this.setPadding(5,5, 5, 5); } public String getLabel() { return label; } public int getPreferredHeight() { return onPicture.getHeight(); } public int getPreferredWidth() { return onPicture.getWidth(); } protected void layout(int width , int height) { setExtent(Math.min(width, Display.getWidth()), Math.min(height,getPreferredHeight())); } protected void paint(Graphics graphics) { int texty =(getHeight()-getFont().getHeight())/2; if (isFocus()) { graphics.setColor(Color.BLACK); graphics.drawBitmap(0, 0, getWidth(), getHeight(),onPicture , 0, 0); graphics.setColor(Color.WHITE); graphics.setFont(font); graphics.drawText(label,0,texty,DrawStyle.ELLIPSIS,getWidth()); } else { graphics.drawBitmap(0, 0, getWidth(), getHeight(),onPicture , 0, 0); graphics.setColor(Color.WHITE); graphics.setFont(font); graphics.drawText(label,0,texty,DrawStyle.ELLIPSIS,getWidth()); } } public boolean isFocusable() { return true; } protected void onFocus(int direction) { super.onFocus(direction); invalidate(); } protected void onUnfocus() { super.onUnfocus(); invalidate(); } protected boolean navigationClick(int status, int time) { fieldChangeNotify(0); return true; } protected boolean keyChar(char character, int status, int time) { if (character == Keypad.KEY_ENTER) { fieldChangeNotify(0); return true; } return super.keyChar(character, status, time); } }

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  • Need a refresher course on property access...

    - by Code Sherpa
    Hi. I need help with accessing class properties within a given class. For example, take the below class: public partial class Account { private Profile _profile; private Email _email; private HostInfo _hostInfo; public Profile Profile { get { return _profile; } set { _profile = value; } } public Email Email { get { return _email; } set { _email = value; } } public HostInfo HostInfo { get { return _hostInfo; } set { _hostInfo = value; } } In the class "Account" exists a bunch of class properties such as Email or Profile. Now, when I want to access those properties at run-time, I do something like this (for Email): _accountRepository = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IAccountRepository>(); string username = Cryptography.Decrypt(_webContext.UserNameToVerify, "verify"); Account account = _accountRepository.GetAccountByUserName(username); if(account != null) { account.Email.IsConfirmed = true; But, I get "Object reference not set..." for account.Email... Why is that? How do I access Account such that account.Email, account.Profile, and so on returns the correct data for a given AccountId or UserName. Here is a method that returns Account: public Account GetAccountByUserName(string userName) { Account account = null; using (MyDataContext dc = _conn.GetContext()) { try { account = (from a in dc.Accounts where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); } catch { //oops } } return account; } The above works but when I try: account = (from a in dc.Accounts join em in dc.Emails on a.AccountId equals em.AccountId join p in dc.Profiles on em.AccountId equals p.AccountId where a.UserName == userName select a).FirstOrDefault(); I am still getting object reference exceptions for my Email and Profile properties. Is this simply a SQL problem or is there something else I need to be doing to be able to fully access all the properties within my Account class? Thanks!

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  • How can I control UISlider Value Changed-events frequncy?

    - by Albert
    I'm writing an iPhone app that is using two uisliders to control values that are sent using coreBluetooth. If I move the sliders quickly one value freezes at the receiver, presumably because the Value Changed events trigger so often that the write-commands stack up and eventually get thrown away. How can I make sure the events don't trigger too often? Edit: Here is a clarification of the problem; the bluetooth connection sends commands every 105ms. If the user generates a bunch of events during that time they seem to que up. I would like to throw away any values generated between the connection events and just send one every 105ms. This is basically what I'm doing right now: -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } What I'm asking is how to implement something like -(IBAction) sliderChanged:(UISlider *)sender{ static int8_t value = 0; if (105msHasPassed) { int8_t new_value = (int8_t)sender.value; if ( new_value > value + threshold || new_value < value - threshold ) { value = new_value; [btDevice writeValue:value]; } } }

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  • Mocking non-virtual methods in C++ without editing production code?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, I am a fairly new software developer currently working adding unit tests to an existing C++ project that started years ago. Due to a non-technical reason, I'm not allowed to modify any existing code. The base class of all my modules has a bunch of methods for Setting/Getting data and communicating with other modules. Since I just want to unit testing each individual module, I want to be able to use canned values for all my inter-module communication methods. I.e. for a method Ping() which checks if another module is active, I want to have it return true or false based on what kind of test I'm doing. I've been looking into Google Test and Google Mock, and it does support mocking non-virtual methods. However the approach described (http://code.google.com/p/googlemock/wiki/CookBook#Mocking_Nonvirtual_Methods) requires me to "templatize" the original methods to take in either real or mock objects. I can't go and templatize my methods in the base class due to the requirement mentioned earlier, so I need some other way of mocking these virtual methods Basically, the methods I want to mock are in some base class, the modules I want to unit test and create mocks of are derived classes of that base class. There are intermediate modules in between my base Module class and the modules that I want to test. I would appreciate any advise! Thanks, JW EDIT: A more concrete examples My base class is lets say rootModule, the module I want to test is leafModule. There is an intermediate module which inherits from rootModule, leafModule inherits from this intermediate module. In my leafModule, I want to test the doStuff() method, which calls the non virtual GetStatus(moduleName) defined in the rootModule class. I need to somehow make GetStatus() to return a chosen canned value. Mocking is new to me, so is using mock objects even the right approach?

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