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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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  • How to create a separate thread to do some operation periodically and update UI in WPF?I'm stack

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! I'm trying to do a periodic separated thread operation let's say check for internet connection or check for user's info via web service and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement that.So i created an inner class for the window i need to update.That inner class does what is meant for but the problem is that i don't know how to access parent's(window class) members form the child(inner class). for example public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public string doMyOperation() { //code here return result; } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //Now here i could be able to call a label of name lblNotif //lblNotif.Content = result; } } } Well the whole idea works but i'm stacked at here i need to access a controls of Window2 Since i'm stacked i tried Spring.Net way of implementing Quartz hoping that i could use MethodInvokingJobDetailFactoryObject and rather have the Operation done on Window2 itself.But for some reason i'm having an exception Cannot resolve type [System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows];, could not load type from string value System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows and the wiring is done so <object name="UpdateLabelJob" type="System.Windows.Window2,System.Windows"/> What i'm i doing wrong here?Is that a way round? thanks for reading and for helping out

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  • c# How to find if two objects are equal

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

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  • UpdateModelFromDatabaseException when trying to add a table to Entity Framework model

    - by Agent_9191
    I'm running into a weird issue with Entity Framework in .NET 3.5 SP1 within Visual Studio 2008. I created a database with a few tables in SQL Server and then created the associated .edmx Entity Framework model and had no issues. I then created a new table in the database that has a foreign key to an existing table and needed to be added to the .edmx. So I opened the .edmx in Visual Studio and in the models right-clicked and chose "Update Model From Database...". I saw the new table in the "add" tab, so I checked it and clicked finish. However I get an error message with the following text: --------------------------- Microsoft Visual Studio --------------------------- An exception of type 'Microsoft.Data.Entity.Design.Model.Commands.UpdateModelFromDatabaseException' occurred while attempting to update from the database. The exception message is: 'Cannot update from the database. Cannot resolve the Name Target for ScalarProperty 'ID <==> CustomerID'.'. --------------------------- OK --------------------------- For reference, here's the tables seem to be the most pertinent to the error. CustomerPreferences already exists in the .edmx. Diets is the table that was added afterwards and trying to add to the .edmx. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[CustomerPreferences]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Diets]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [CustomerID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Description] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] FOREIGN KEY([CustomerID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[CustomerPreferences] ([ID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] GO This seems like a fairly common use case, so I'm not sure where I'm going wrong.

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  • Sanitize input before executing at server in php

    - by Interfaith
    I want to let user input two variable, Name and Password in a form. I want to disable any XSS or script insert in the input values. I have the following code in the form method: <form name="form1" method="post" action="checkpw.php"> Your Name: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="name" onBlur="capitalize(this);" maxlength=12 type="text" /></td></tr> </table> Password: <table> <tr><td><input class="text" name="passwd" maxlength=8 type="password" /></td></tr> <tr><td align="center"><br/> <input class="text" type="submit" name="submitbt" value="Login" /> </td></tr> </table> and the following checkpw.php: <?php // Clean up the input values $post = filter_input_array(INPUT_POST, array( 'name' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, 'pw' => FILTER_SANITIZE_STRING, )); if (is_null($post) || in_array(null, $post)) { header("location:login.php"); return; // missing fields (or failed filter) } // pw is the password sent from the form $pw=$_POST['passwd']; $name=$_POST['name']; if($pw == 'testpass'){ header("location:index.php"); } else { header("location:wrong.php"); } ?> Is this a secure way to ensure the form is sent to the server and executed ONLY after the input values have been sanitized? Also, the $name value i want to pass it to index.php file. I insert a code in the index.php as follow: <?php echo $name ?> But it's empty. Any idea how to resolve it?

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  • Access is denied. Javascript error on request to secured page

    - by ihorko
    On SomePage.aspx page by javascript (XMLHttpRequest) I call SecuredPage.aspx used next code: var httpRequest = GetXmlHttp(); var url = "https://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx"; var params = "param1=" + document.getElementById('param1').value + "&param2=" + document.getElementById('param2').value; httpRequest.open("POST", url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { //Call a function when the state changes. if (httpRequest.readyState == 4 && httpRequest.status == 200) { alert(httpRequest.responseText); } } httpRequest.send(params); // HERE ACCESS IS DENIED //--------------------------------------------- function GetXmlHttp() { var xmlhttp = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) // code for IE { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } } return xmlhttp; } It throws Access is denied error. if send to http (http://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx), it works fine. How is it possible to resolve that problem. Thanks!

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  • Typedef equivalence in function arguments

    - by Warren Seine
    Hi guys, The question is kind of hard to ask without an example so here it is: #include <vector> struct O { }; struct C { template <typename T> void function1(void (C::*callback)(const O*)); template <typename T> void function2(void (C::*callback)(const typename T::value_type)); void print(const O*); }; int main() { C c; c.function1< std::vector<O*> >(&C::print); // Success. c.function2< std::vector<O*> >(&C::print); // Fail. } The error that I am given is: error: no matching function for call to ‘C::function2(void (C::*)(const O*))’. Basically, the only difference between calls is that in function2, I'm more generic since I use the typedef std::vector<O*>::value_type which should resolve to O*, hence similar to function1. I'm using G++ 4.2.1 (I know it's old), but Comeau confirms I'm wrong. Why does the compilation fail?

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  • firefox does not load large size images

    - by Pradeep
    I am stuck with a kind of bug in FF, wherein it’s unable to load images of big size (I have 8 MB size of image) from the server. The loading of image is all fine on IE. I am still looking out for ways to get rid of this problem. I changed server(IIS) settings to allow bigger file sizes. Also, I used “load” event on image using JQuery and tried all sort of options listed here http://api.jquery.com/load-event/, but nothing worked so far. If anyone of you has come across any such similar problem, and a way to resolve it, it would be nice to hear from you Please note: high resolution images are part of the requirement. Code : <style> img { background-color: #FFFFFF; background-image: url(http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/loader.gif); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position: center center; } </style> <script src="../plugin/jquery-ui-1.8.7.custom/js/jquery-1.4.4.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function($){ ///var _url = "http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"; // set up the node / element _im =$("#main"); //_im.bind("load",function(){ $(this).fadeIn(); }); // set the src attribute now, after insertion to the DOM //_im.attr('src',_url); $("#main").one("load",function(){ alert('loaded'); }) .each(function(){ if(this.complete){ $(this).trigger("load"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="target"><img id='main' src="http://eremurus.hyd:8080/QMS/plugin/imagepanner/floorPlan.jpg"> </img></div> </body> </html>

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  • Image is not displaying in email template on 2nd time forward

    - by Don
    Good day Friends, I've a mass mailing program with simple mail templates (HTML and few Images). I've a problem with image display. My clients are not getting images in the mail. Sometimes they get a mail with all the images, But if they forward the same email to someone else, they can’t get the images in forwarded mail. I really don’t know what’s happening with the approach., most of the cases the 2nd time forwarded mail is not showing the images properly. For example, consider I send a mail to client A, Here, Client A will get a mail with Images. Further, If Client A forward the same message to Person B then Person B is not getting Images in the Forwarded email. I’m using the following Approach to Embed an image in the mail template: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(" <some html content> <img src=\"cid:main.png\" alt=\"\" border=\"0\" usemap=\"#Map\"> </html content ends here>"); Attachment imgMain = new Attachment(Server.MapPath("main.png")); imgMain.ContentId = "main.png"; MailMessageObject.Attachments.Add(imgMain); Instead of attachment, I tried bypassing the Image path from server directly. Something like as follows: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(" <some html content> <img src=\"www.mydomain.com/images/main.png\" alt=\"\" border=\"0\" usemap=\"#Map\"> </html content ends here>"); But, result is same, Please help to resolve this problem

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  • Operator+ for a subtype of a template class.

    - by baol
    I have a template class that defines a subtype. I'm trying to define the binary operator+ as a template function, but the compiler cannot resolve the template version of the operator+. #include <iostream> template<typename other_type> struct c { c(other_type v) : cs(v) {} struct subtype { subtype(other_type v) : val(v) {} other_type val; } cs; }; template<typename other_type> typename c<other_type>::subtype operator+(const typename c<other_type>::subtype& left, const typename c<other_type>::subtype& right) { return typename c<other_type>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } // This one works // c<int>::subtype operator+(const c<int>::subtype& left, // const c<int>::subtype& right) // { return c<int>::subtype(left.val + right.val); } int main() { c<int> c1 = 1; c<int> c2 = 2; c<int>::subtype cs3 = c1.cs + c2.cs; std::cerr << cs3.val << std::endl; } I think the reason is because the compiler (g++4.3) cannot guess the template type so it's searching for operator+<int> instead of operator+. What's the reason for that? What elegant solution can you suggest?

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  • Problem with LINQ to XML and Namespaces

    - by abtcabe
    I am having problems with working with a third party XML string that contains a Namespace with LINQ to XML. In the below code everything works find. I am able to select the xElement (xEl1) and update its value. 'Example Without Namespace Dim XmlWithOutNs = _ <?xml version="1.0"?> <RATABASECALC> <RATEREQUEST> <ANCHOR> <DATABASENAME>DatabaseName</DATABASENAME> <DATABASEPW>DatabasePw</DATABASEPW> </ANCHOR> </RATEREQUEST> </RATABASECALC> Dim xEl1 = XmlWithOutNs...<DATABASEPW>.FirstOrDefault If xEl1 IsNot Nothing Then xEl1.Value = "test" End If However, in the below code the xElement (xEl2) returns Nothing. The only difference is the Namespace (xmlns="http://www.cgi.com/Ratabase) 'Example With Namespace Dim XmlWithNs = _ <?xml version="1.0"?> <RATABASECALC xmlns="http://www.cgi.com/Ratabase"> <RATEREQUEST> <ANCHOR> <DATABASENAME>DatabaseName</DATABASENAME> <DATABASEPW>DatabasePw</DATABASEPW> </ANCHOR> </RATEREQUEST> </RATABASECALC> Dim xEl2 = XmlWithNs...<DATABASEPW>.FirstOrDefault If xEl2 IsNot Nothing Then xEl2.Value = "test" End If So my questions are: 1. Why is this happening? 2. How do I resolve this issue?

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  • Git Svn dcommit error - restart the commit

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    Last week, I made a number of changes to my local branch before leaving town for the weekend. This morning I wanted to dcommit all of those changes to the company's Svn repository, but I get a merge conflict in one file: Merge conflict during commit: Your file or directory 'build.properties.sample' is probably out-of-date: The version resource does not correspond to the resource within the transaction. Either the requested version resource is out of date (needs to be updated), or the requested version resource is newer than the transaction root (restart the commit). I'm not sure exactly why I'm getting this, but before attempting to dcommit, I did a git svn rebase. That "overwrote" my commits. To recover from that, I did a git reset --hard HEAD@{1}. Now my working copy seems to be where I expect it to be, but I have no idea how to get past the merge conflict; there's not actually any conflict to resolve that I can find. Any thoughts would be appreciated. EDIT: Just wanted to specify that I am working locally. I have a local branch for the trunk that references svn/trunk (the remote branch). All of my work was done on the local trunk: $ git branch maint-1.0.x master * trunk $ git branch -r svn/maintenance/my-project-1.0.0 svn/trunk Similarly, git log currently shows 10 commits on my local trunk since the last commit with a Svn ID. Hopefully that answers a few questions. Thanks again.

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  • Validation for textfield is not working

    - by MaheshBabu
    Hi folks, I am using 4 Textfields in my application. I need to validate those textfields like,These 4 textfields Allow only o,1,....9 and . For that i use the code like this. - (BOOL)textField:(UITextField *)textField shouldChangeCharactersInRange:(NSRange)range replacementString:(NSString *)string { static NSCharacterSet *charSet = nil; if(!charSet) { charSet = [[[NSCharacterSet characterSetWithCharactersInString:@"0123456789."] invertedSet] retain]; } NSRange location = [string rangeOfCharacterFromSet:charSet]; return (location.location == NSNotFound); And first textfield allows digits 10,second third and fourth textfields allows less than 100. For that my code is if (textField.tag == 1) { NSString *newString = [textField.text stringByReplacingCharactersInRange:range withString:string]; double homevaluedouble = [newString doubleValue]; return !(homevaluedouble > 10000000000); } if (textField.tag == 2) { NSString *newString = [textField.text stringByReplacingCharactersInRange:range withString:string]; double validate = [newString doubleValue]; return !(validate > 100); } if (textField.tag == 3) { NSString *newString = [textField.text stringByReplacingCharactersInRange:range withString:string]; double validate = [newString doubleValue]; return !(validate > 100); } I write this code in - (BOOL)textField:(UITextField *)textField shouldChangeCharactersInRange:(NSRange)range replacementString:(NSString *)string { But textfields allows 0,1,..9 and . but digit limit is not working, if i remove 0,1,...9 then limit to textfield working. i am getting confuse with it. can any one pls help me,How can i resolve it. Thank u in advance.

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  • Issue changing innodb_log_file_size

    - by savageguy
    I haven't done much tweaking in the past so this might be relatively easy however I am running into issues. This is what I do: Stop MySQL Edit my.cnf (changing innodb_log_file_size) Remove ib_logfile0/1 Start MySQL Starts fine however all InnoDB tables have the .frm file is invalid error, the status shows InnoDB engine is disabled so I obviously go back, remove the change and everything works again. I was able to change every other variable I've tried but I can't seem to find out why InnoDB fails to start even after removing the log files. Am I missing something? Thanks. Edit: Pasting of the log below - looks like it still seems to find the log file even though they are not there? Shutdown: 090813 10:00:14 InnoDB: Starting shutdown... 090813 10:00:17 InnoDB: Shutdown completed; log sequence number 0 739268981 090813 10:00:17 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Shutdown complete Startup after making the changes: InnoDB: Error: log file ./ib_logfile0 is of different size 0 5242880 bytes InnoDB: than specified in the .cnf file 0 268435456 bytes! 090813 11:00:18 [Warning] 'user' entry '[email protected]' ignored in --skip-name-resolve mode. 090813 11:00:18 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: ready for connections. Version: '5.0.81-community-log' socket: '/var/lib/mysql/mysql.sock' port: 3306 MySQL Community Edition (GPL) 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' 090813 11:00:19 [ERROR] /usr/sbin/mysqld: Incorrect information in file: './XXXX/User.frm' Its just a spam of the same error until I correct it When it did start after it recreated the log files so it must be looking in the same spot I am.

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  • How to detect that cookies are disabled in browser with AngularJS

    - by user2943082
    I use an AngularJS in my current project and try to implement feature which detects does cookies are disable in browser. I have tried to use an AngularJS module "ngCookies" for resolve this issue. The main idea of this feature is to try to create some cookie, then check does this cookie was created and show message if it wasn't. But it didn't worked. Controller: someProject.controller('CookieCtrl', ['$scope', '$cookieStore', function($scope, $cookieStore) { $scope.areCookiesEnabled = false; $cookieStore.put("TestCookie", "TestCookieText"); $scope.cookieValue = $cookieStore.get("TestCookie"); if ($scope.someValue) { $cookieStore.remove("TestCookie"); $scope.areCookiesEnabled = true; } }]); View: <div class="main" data-ng-controller="CookieCtrl"> <div class="warning_message" data-ng-show="!areCookiesEnabled"> <span data-ng-bind="areCookiesEnabled"></span> </div> </div> Can anybody tell me where is my mistake?

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • Event Dispatching, void pointer and alternatives

    - by PeeS
    i have my event dispatching / handling functionality working fine, but there is one issue that i need to resolve. Long story short, here are the details. // The event structure struct tEventMessage { // Type of the event int Type; // (void*) Allows those to be casted into per-Type objects void *pArgument1; void *pArgument2; }; I am sending events from different modules in my engine by using the above structure, which requires a pointer to an argument. All messages are queued, and then dispatched on the next ::Tick(). It works fine, untill i try to send something that doesn't exist in next ::Tick, for example: When a mouse click is being handled, it calculates the click coordinates in world space. This is being sent with a pointer to a vector representing that position, but after my program quits that method, this pointer gets invalid obviously, cause local CVector3 is destructed: CVector2 vScreenSpacePosition = vAt; CVector3 v3DPositionA = CVector3(0,0,0); CVector3 v3DPositionB = CVector3(0,0,0); // Screen space to World space calculation for depth zNear v3DPositionA = CMath::UnProject(vScreenSpacePosition, m_vScreenSize, m_Level.GetCurrentCamera()->getViewMatrix(), m_Level.GetCurrentCamera()->getProjectionMatrix(), -1.0 ); // Screen space to World space calculation for depth zFar v3DPositionB = CMath::UnProject(vScreenSpacePosition, m_vScreenSize, m_Level.GetCurrentCamera()->getViewMatrix(), m_Level.GetCurrentCamera()->getProjectionMatrix(), 1.0); // Send zFar position and ScreenSpace position to the handlers // Obviously both vectors won't be valid after this method quits.. CEventDispatcher::Get()->SendEvent(CIEventHandler::EVENT_SYSTEM_FINGER_DOWN, static_cast<void*>(&v3DPositionB), static_cast<void*>(&vScreenSpacePosition)); What i want to ask is, if there is any chance i could make my tEventMessage more 'template', so i can handle sending objects like in the above situation + use what is already implemented? Can't figure it out at the moment.. What else can be done here to allow me to pass some locally available data ? Please can somebody shed a bit of light on this please?

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  • Why it's can be compiled in GNU/C++, can't compiled in VC++2010 RTM?

    - by volnet
    #include #include #include #include "copy_of_auto_ptr.h" #ifdef _MSC_VER #pragma message("#include ") #include // http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Diagnostic-Pragmas.html#Diagnostic-Pragmas #endif /* case 1-4 is the requirement of the auto_ptr. which form http://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/images/020163371X/autoptrupdate/auto_ptr_update.html */ /* case 1. (1) Direct-initialization, same type, e.g. */ std::auto_ptr source_int() { // return std::auto_ptr(new int(3)); std::auto_ptr tmp(new int(3)); return tmp; } /* case 2. (2) Copy-initialization, same type, e.g. */ void sink_int(std::auto_ptr p) { std::cout source_derived() { // return std::auto_ptr(new Derived()); std::auto_ptr tmp(new Derived()); return tmp; } /* case 4. (4) Copy-initialization, base-from-derived, e.g. */ void sink_base( std::auto_ptr p) { p-go(); } int main(void) { /* // auto_ptr */ // case 1. // auto_ptr std::auto_ptr p_int(source_int()); std::cout p_derived(source_derived()); p_derived-go(); // case 4. // auto_ptr sink_base(source_derived()); return 0; } In Eclipse(GNU C++.exe -v gcc version 3.4.5 (mingw-vista special r3)) it's two compile error: Description Resource Path Location Type initializing argument 1 of void sink_base(std::auto_ptr<Base>)' from result ofstd::auto_ptr<_Tp::operator std::auto_ptr<_Tp1() [with _Tp1 = Base, _Tp = Derived]' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem Description Resource Path Location Type no matching function for call to `std::auto_ptr::auto_ptr(std::auto_ptr)' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem But it's right in VS2010 RTM. Questions: Which compiler stand for the ISO C++ standard? The content of case 4 is the problem "auto_ptr & auto_ptr_ref want to resolve?"

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  • Error with threads during automatic testing on TeamCity 5

    - by yeyeyerman
    Hello, I'm having some problems executing the tests of the application I'm developing. All the tests execute normally with ReSharper and in NCover. However, the execution of one of these tests in TeamCity is generating an error. This test initializes two objects, the object under test and a simulator of a real object. Both objects will communicate throug a serial link in a representation of the real scenario. ObjectSimulator r_simulator = new ObjectSimulator(...); ObjectDriver r_driver = new ObjectDriver(...); Assert.IsTrue(r_driver.Connect() == ErrorCode.Success); The simulator just do the following in the constructor public class ObjectSimulator { ... public ObjectSimulator() { // serial port configuration m_port = new SerialPort(); m_port.DataReceived += DataReceivedEvent; } ... } The main object has two threads. The main thread of the application and a timer to refresh a watchdog timer in the real object. public ErrorCode Connect() { ... StartSynchroTimer(); Thread.Sleep(4); // to check if the timer is working properly ... } The problem is comming from the Thread.Sleep() call, as when I remove it everything works. It seems like the ObjectSimulator also sleeps and doesn't receive the DataReceived event. How can I resolve this issue?

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  • Remoting connection over TCP

    - by Voyager Systems
    I've got a remoting server and client built. The server is set up as such: BinaryServerFormatterSinkProvider serverProv = new BinaryServerFormatterSinkProvider(); serverProv.TypeFilterLevel = TypeFilterLevel.Full; BinaryClientFormatterSinkProvider clientProv = new BinaryClientFormatterSinkProvider(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = port; TcpChannel channel = new TcpChannel( props, clientProv, serverProv ); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel( channel, false ); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownServiceType( typeof( Controller ), "Controller", WellKnownObjectMode.Singleton ); The client is set up as such: ChannelServices.RegisterChannel( new TcpChannel( 0 ), false ); m_Controller = (Controller)RemotingServices.Connect( typeof( Controller ), "tcp://" + ip + ":2594/Controller" ); When I try to connect to the server from the same computer with the IP specified as 'localhost,' it connects fine. However, when I try to connect from a remote computer, not on the LAN, given the server's IP address, I receive the following exception on the client after a long wait: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time How can I resolve this? I'm sure it's a configuration problem because the ports are forwarded properly on the server and there is no firewall active. Thanks

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  • php session_start() error

    - by tooepic
    Hi, i've used a sample found on online and applied it to my code: <?php session_start(); if (isset($_REQUEST["email"])) { $_SESSION["name"] = true; $host = $_SERVER["HTTP_HOST"]; $path = dirname($_SERVER["PHP_SELF"]); $sid = session_name() . "=" . session_id(); header("Location: index.php?$sid"); exit; } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> ... ... and rest of the html code When I open this page, I got an error: Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cookie - headers already sent by (output started at /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php:1) in /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php on line 2 Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php:1) in /data/server/user/directory/sub-directory/login.php on line 2 I looked around to resolve this issue and saw few posts about this in this site also, but I just can't get a good grip on this...can't find the answer. Please help. Thanks.

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  • How do I obtain selected rows in a DataGridView from different pages

    - by cmrhema
    Hi, I have a windows forms DataGridView, where I have data and a checkbox for each row. I will select check box for a particular row and all the selected rows will be populated in another page. if (grdEmp.Rows.Count > 0) { var selectedEmpIDs= from DataGridViewRow coll in grdEmp.Rows where Convert.ToBoolean(coll.Cells["Select"].Value) == true select coll; if (selectedEmpIDs.Count() > 0) { foreach (DataGridViewRow row in selectedEmpIDs) { selectedEmp+= row.Cells["EmpId"].Value + ","; } } } This works good only for one page. When I navigate to another page, and click the selected rows, the previous one goes off. How do I resolve it. Thanks cmrhema Note :Sorry for the confusion, When I meant it works good for a page, I meant paging. I think I need to add more inputs, There are 10 pages in the gridview. I select the first record from each page of the gridview, one after another by clicking next page( Page next button). But only the record that was selected the last is getting displayed and others and ignored off. What could be the prblm

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  • Installing Image_Graph and using with BASE

    - by PPowerHouseK
    Hello all, I have Windows 7 with the latest XAMPP installation. I configured BASE to work, for the most part. My problem is that in BASE, when I click on the graph alerts button, I get this error: Error loading the Graphing library: Check your Pear::Image_Graph installation! * Image_Graph can be found here:at http://pear.veggerby.dk/. Without this library no graphing operations can be performed. * Make sure PEAR libraries can be found by php at all: pear config-show | grep "PEAR directory" PEAR directory php_dir /usr/share/pear This path must be part of the include path of php (cf. /etc/php.ini): php -i | grep "include_path" include_path => .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php => .:/usr/share/pear:/usr/share/php</code> I think it may have to do with the include path of the php.ini so here is what it currently says: ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; Paths and Directories ; ;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;;; ; UNIX: "/path1:/path2" ;include_path = ".:/php/includes" ; ; Windows: "\path1;\path2" ;include_path = ".;c:\php\includes" ; ; PHP's default setting for include_path is ".;/path/to/php/pear" ; http://php.net/include-path include_path = ".;C:\xampp\php\PEAR" I am really at a loss as to how to resolve this. I searched for a while for some documentation but most referred to installing on ubuntu. I don't know any pear or php, so if you know how to fix this please explain thoroughly. I am willing to supply as much information as needed.

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  • Sample twitter App

    - by Jack
    I am now running my code on a web hosting service http://xtreemhost.com/ <?php function updateTwitter($status) { $username = 'xxxxxx'; $password = 'xxxx'; $url = 'http://twitter.com/statuses/update.xml'; $postargs = 'status='.urlencode($status); $responseInfo=array(); $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); // Give CURL the arguments in the POST curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postargs); // Set the username and password in the CURL call curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_USERPWD, $username.':'.$password); // Set some cur flags (not too important) $response = curl_exec($ch); if($response === false) { echo 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($ch); } else { echo 'Operation completed without any errors<br/>'; } // Get information about the response $responseInfo=curl_getinfo($ch); // Close the CURL connection curl_close($ch); // Make sure we received a response from Twitter if(intval($responseInfo['http_code'])==200){ // Display the response from Twitter echo $response; }else{ // Something went wrong echo "Error: " . $responseInfo['http_code']; } curl_close($ch); } updateTwitter("Just finished a sweet tutorial on http://brandontreb.com"); ?> I get the following error now Curl error: Couldn't resolve host 'api.twitter.com' Error: 0 Please somebody solve my problem

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  • Authentication and Security in my website - need advice please.

    - by Ichirichi
    Hi, I am using database with a list of username/passwords, and a simple web form that allows for users to enter their username/password. When they submit the page, I simply do a stored procedure check to authenticate. If they are authorised, then their user details (e.g. username, dob, address, company address, other important info) are stored in a custom User object and then in a session. This custom User object that I created is used throughout the web application, and also in a sub-site (session sharing). My question/problems are: Is my method of authentication the correct way to do things? I find users complaining that their session have expired although they "were not idle", possibly due the app pool recycling? They type large amounts of text and find that their session had expired and thus lose all the text typed in. I am uncertain whether the session does really reset sporadically but will Forms Authentication using cookies/cookiless resolve the issue? Alternatively should I build and store the User Object in a session, cookie or something else instead in order to be more "correct" and avoid cases like in point #2. If I go down the Forms Authentication route, I believe I cannot store my custom User object in a Forms Authentication cookie so does it mean I would store the UserID and then recreate the user object on every page? Would this not be a huge increase on the server load? Advice and answers much appreciated. L

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