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• Sound doesn't work anymore after replacing RAM

  - by thejh

  Hello, today, I replaced one old RAM module with two newer, bigger ones, but now, the sound doesn't seem to work anymore. Already ran alsaconf and it didn't help. Output of lspci for the audio device: 00:07.0 Audio device: nVidia Corporation MCP67 High Definition Audio (rev a1) Subsystem: Giga-byte Technology Device a002 Control: I/O- Mem+ BusMaster+ SpecCycle- MemWINV- VGASnoop- ParErr- Stepping- SERR- FastB2B- DisINTx- Status: Cap+ 66MHz+ UDF- FastB2B+ ParErr- DEVSEL=fast >TAbort- <TAbort- <MAbort- >SERR- <PERR- INTx- Latency: 0 (500ns min, 1250ns max) Interrupt: pin A routed to IRQ 21 Region 0: Memory at f5100000 (32-bit, non-prefetchable) [size=16K] Capabilities: [44] Power Management version 2 Flags: PMEClk- DSI- D1- D2- AuxCurrent=0mA PME(D0-,D1-,D2-,D3hot+,D3cold+) Status: D0 PME-Enable- DSel=0 DScale=0 PME- Capabilities: [50] Message Signalled Interrupts: Mask+ 64bit+ Queue=0/0 Enable- Address: 0000000000000000 Data: 0000 Masking: 00000000 Pending: 00000000 Capabilities: [6c] HyperTransport: MSI Mapping Enable+ Fixed+ Kernel driver in use: HDA Intel Kernel modules: snd-hda-intel The audio device is onboard and has six configurable outputs, two or so are also capable of being an input (if I remember it correctly), but I don't know how to control it under linux. Does somebody know how/whether replacing the RAM could be related to my problem and/or how to fix it?

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• Need to set up a proxy on Linksys E3200 to filter home internet

  - by Justin Amberson

  the fact that I have a Linksys E3200 may not be important. I can configure the router through the web interface, but I don't know the things I will be toggling are called. I already do simple port forwarding to access applications on my Mac remotely. So router admin is not something I technically need explained. I'm looking to running a proxy on my home computer, that filters all HTTP traffic that goes through my router. So if my daughter is on her iPad and accesses Safari, my Mac will be the judge of the validity of the request. I need something like NetNanny I guess, but local. Actually, anything that can just filter all port 80 traffic that runs locally, but maybe validates with a password? I truly truly hope this question falls within the bounds of Serverfault. I'm not a total internet newb but I'm at a loss for what to Google. If possible answer this question: Is there a webapp that can listen on port 80, and validate requests to port 80 with a password? If so, can I forward all traffic on port 80 to my Mac, to be re-routed to the user? Is this the same as a VPN? Thank you for your help. Justin

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• How to stop my wireless adapter from received dhcp from router (windows)

  - by baobeiii

  Hi, I have a windows 7 computer which is connected via vpn to an OpenVpn server which happens to be in another country. I have all internet traffic being routed from my computer through the vpn to the server. However dns queries are not going through the vpn, but are instead going directly to my isp's dns via a route outside of the vpn tunnel. This is happening because my wireless adapter is configured to obtain DNS server address automatically. The router that stands between my computer and the internet happens to have a DCHP server running on it that is assinging my computer with the DNS addresses of the isp. The issue is, i haven't been able to stop my wireless adapter on my computer from receiving the dns settings from the router. I've tried selecting 'use the following dns server addresses' and then just leaving them blank, but ipconfig /all shows me that this hasn't worked and i'm still getting dns form the router. So is there any way to completely stop my windows wireless adapter from receiving these settings from the router? I have the OpenVpn server pushing to my computer's tun adapter the dns that it should be using. I'd rather solve this in a way that doesn't involve disabling the dhcp server on the router or fiddling with the router. The reason is i'm on a laptop and i want my vpn to not leak dns even when i'm out, for example in wireless hotspots. I know if i could just force the wireless adapter to ignore the router's dhcp server then my dns queries would go through the tunnel to the dns address pushed by the OpenVpn server. Sorry, i know thats long winded, if you have any idea's please do tell me. Thanks and merry xmas.

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• iptables rules for DNS/Transparent proxy with ip exceptions

  - by SlimSCSI

  I am running a router (A Netgear WNDR3700 if that matters) with dd-wrt. For content filtering I am using OpenDNS. I wanted to make sure a user could not bypass OpenDNS by putting in their own name servers, so I have a rule to catch all DNS traffic. iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i br0 -p all --dport 53 -j DNAT --to $LAN_IP I did have one computer on the network I wanted to allow past OpenDNS filters. On that machine I manually set the name servers, and created another rule to allow it to pass iptables -t nat -I PREROUTING -i br0 -s 192.168.1.2 -j ACCEPT This worked well. Today, I installed a transparent proxy (squid) on the router and added these rules: iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i br0 -s $LAN_NET -d $LAN_NET -p tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT iptables -t nat -A PREROUTING -i br0 -s ! $PROXY_IP -p tcp --dport 80 -j DNAT --to $PROXY_IP:$PROXY_PORT iptables -t nat -I POSTROUTING -o br0 -s $LAN_NET -d $PROXY_IP -p tcp -j SNAT --to $LAN_IP iptables -I FORWARD -i br0 -o br0 -s $LAN_NET -d $PROXY_IP -p tcp --dport $PROXY_PORT -j ACCEPT This also works, however the 192.168.1.2 address does not get routed through squid. How can I have 192.168.1.2 (and maybe others in the future) by-pass the port 53 rules, but not the port 80 rules?

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• Suggestions for transitioning to new GW/private network

  - by Quinten

  I am replacing a private T1 link with a new firewall device with an ipsec tunnel for a branch office. I am trying to figure out the right way to transition folks at the new site over to the new connection, so that they default to using the much faster tunnel. Existing network: 192.168.254.0/24, gw 192.168.254.253 (Cisco router plugged in to private t1) Test network I have been using with ipsec tunnel: 192.168.1.0/24, gw 192.168.1.1 (pfsense fw plugged in to public internet), also plugged in to same switch as the old network. There are probably ~20-30 network devices in the existing subnet, about 5 with static IPs. The remote endpoint is already the firewall--I can't set up redundant links to the existing subnet. In other words, as soon as I change the tunnel configuration to point to 192.168.254.0/24, all devices in the existing subnet will stop working because they point to the wrong gateway. I'd like some ability to do this slowly--such that I can move over a few clients and verify the stability of the new link before moving critical services or less tolerant users over. What's the right way to do this? Change the netmask on all of the devices to /16, and update gateway to point to the new device? Could this cause any problems? Also, how should I handle DNS? The pfsense box is not aware of my Active Directory environment. But if I change DNS to use the local servers, it will result in a huge slowdown as DNS queries will still be routed over the private t1. I need some help coming up with a plan that's not too disruptive but will really let me thoroughly test the stability of the IPSEC tunnel before I make the final switch. The AD version is 2008R2, as are the servers. Workstations are mostly Windows XP SP3. I have not configured the 192.168.1.0/24 as a site in AD sites and services.

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• VPN: Disable class based route addition for Windows XP/Vista

  - by brgsousa

  Paraphrasing this SuperUser link: When you set up a VPN, the Windows default is to enable "Use default gateway on remote network." A new default route is added to the routing table pointing to the remote network's gateway, and the existing default route has its metric increased to force all Internet traffic to traverse the tunnel and use the remote network's gateway. All traffic uses the VPN, and traffic destined for the outside world is directed to the remote gateway. When the VPN drops, the route to the remote gateway is removed and the original default route is set back to the original metric. Unchecking "use default gateway on remote network" means that new default route isn't added, so Internet traffic goes out the local gateway, but a new classful route is added to the routing table, using the local adapter's IP, pointing down the VPN. Only traffic destined for the classful network of the local adapter goes down the VPN. This may not be what you want. Checking "Disable class based route addition" means that classful route isn't added to your machine when the VPN starts up, and you'll need to add the appropriate routes for networks that should be routed through the tunnel. But, the option "Disable class based route addition" is available ONLY for Windows 7. How can I do something like that for Windows XP or Vista since they don't have that option? I have searched about for that but, no solution yet.

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• Google Apps routing to different servers, depending on domain

  - by Philip

  We are investigating Google Apps for Education for our group of schools. Currently, each school uses their own Exchange (2003) server. Each school has its own domain which I have added to Google Apps as additional domains. I would like to start transitioning certain staff and some new pupils over to Google Apps to start testing. In this interim phase, I need mail to be routed through Google Apps and then, if no appropriate mail box is found, route on to the individual schools depending on the recipient. I do know that it is possible to route mail that does not have an appropriate Google Apps mail account to a single server - under "Settings / E-mail Settings / General Settings / Routing / E-mail routing". This works well for a single organisation where all the extra mail is destined for one place. I do know that it is possible to set up Routes, under "Settings / E-mail Settings / Hosts" and then use rules, found under "Settigns / E-mail Settings / General Settings / Routing / Receiving Routing". I can then filter based on e-mail domain and forward on to the necessary server. My problem with this, as I understand it, is that it ignores the users that have Google Apps accounts set up and sends all mail to the Exchange server. Are there any solutions for this predicament? Many thanks!

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• Linux: Three default gateways?

  - by Daniel

  My server has three default gateways, how can that be? Shouldn't there be one default gw? I have three NICs, each attached to a separate subnet: server1:~# route Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.5.0.0 * 255.255.255.224 U 0 0 0 eth3 localnet * 255.255.255.224 U 0 0 0 eth0 192.168.8.0 * 255.255.255.192 U 0 0 0 eth1 default 10.5.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth3 default 192.168.8.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth1 default 10.1.0.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 Sometimes, I can't ping a host on the Internet, sometimes I can. What I want is traffic to the Internet (0.0.0.0) routed through a specific NIC. Can I just add a route for 0.0.0.0 and default gw to one of the eth0-3 interfaces? Will it break my connection? I'm using Debian, here is my /etc/network/interfaces: # This file describes the network interfaces available on your system # and how to activate them. For more information, see interfaces(5). # The loopback network interface auto lo iface lo inet loopback # The primary network interface allow-hotplug eth0 iface eth0 inet static address 10.1.0.4 netmask 255.255.255.224 network 10.1.0.0 broadcast 10.1.0.31 gateway 10.1.0.1 allow-hotplug eth1 iface eth1 inet static address 192.168.8.4 netmask 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.8.0 broadcast 192.168.8.63 gateway 192.168.8.1 allow-hotplug eth3 iface eth3 inet static address 10.5.0.4 netmask 255.255.255.224 network 10.5.0.0 broadcast 10.5.0.31 gateway 10.5.0.1

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• Asterisk relay between multiple subnets

  - by immoune

  I wonder what's the best way to go when you have phones on multiple networks which are not directly reachable. I have 3 networks 10.3.x.x 10.6.x.x 10.17.x.x My asterisk server resides on the 10.3.0.5 IP. The machines from the 10.6 and 10.17 networks are routed here through VPN tunnels. At this point we don't talk about NAT anywhere on the network just pure routing. Since the 10.3.0.5 PBX has routes back to all the subnet's it has no problem to communicate with softphones/hardphones from these ranges. The problem comes from that Asterisk (as far as I understand) only responsible for the SIP communication part not the Audio/Video transmission which is in P2P fashion done between the devices. So although a client using sipdroid from 10.6.x.x is able to connect to the pbx (10.3.0.5) and dial a bria client on the 10.17.x.x network once the phone rings out and the call establishes no audio will be transmitted simply because it has no way to directly connect there. For this there are multiple solutions described in this text: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee480411%28v=winembedded.60%29.aspx What I would prefer is to keep these networks segregated as they are now. What would be the best solution? Is it possible to actually relay through all the audio/video information through the Asterisk server? That would be the best in my case, I using Astlinux there which has a lot of other parts. Thanks

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• Setting up a server that routes local traffic through vpn, while still being able to access internet directly

  - by Kazuo

  The goal is to setup a local server that routes local traffic through an uncontrolled remote vpn service while still being able to access the internet directly (not tunneled via vpn) and provide services through that direct connection. It is supposed to look like this: http://i.stack.imgur.com/74dGC.png Note: There is another router with modem between the local server and the internet. What is the easiest (best?) way to get this network setup working? I'm planning to setup the connection between the local router and the local server with simple ip forwarding. The problem now is that all the server's traffic is routed through the vpn tunnel as soon as I connect the server's openvpn client to the remote service so there is no direct internet connection available. My first idea was to setup a virtual machine (lxc container or something) and run the vpn client and local networking stuff in the vm. So that the vm receives all the incoming traffic from the local router and tunnels it through the vpn. This, as far as I understand, should not affect the physical server's network connection and should allow it to provide services to the internet. Before I start trying to set this up (I don't have much experience in networking), is there any easier or better way to do this? I would be thankful for every suggestion. Edit: Let's say the interface connected to the internet is eth0 and the interface connected to the local router is eth1. Another idea would be to create a virtual interface eth0:0 and specifiy it as openvpn's local endpoint and then force any traffic coming from eth1 through eth0:0. I'm not sure how I would force the traffic through eth0:0, though (possibly by adding routes).

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• MVC Html.ActionLink not passing querystring properly

  - by Dave Hanna

  This seems like it should be pretty straight forward, but I'm apparently confused. I have a List view that displays a paged list. At the bottom I have a set of actionlinks: <%= Html.ActionLink("First Page", "List", new { page = 1} ) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Prev Page", "List", new { page = Model.PageNumber - 1 }) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Next Page", "List", new { page = Model.PageNumber + 1 }) %> &nbsp; <%= Html.ActionLink("Last Page", "List", new { page = Model.LastPage } )%> I'm using the basic default routes setup, except with "List" substituted for "Index": routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "List", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); The problem is that the ActionLink helpers are generating links of the form: http://localhost:2083/Retrofit?page=2 rather than http://localhost:2083/Retrofit/?page=2 (with the trailing slash after the controller name & before the query string). When the first URL is routed, it completely loses the query string - if I look at Request.QueryString by the time it gets to the controller, it's null. If I enter the second URL (with the trailing slash), it comes in properly (i.e., QueryString of "page=2"). So how can I either get the ActionLink helper to generate the right URL, or get the Routing to properly parse what ActionLink is generating? Thanks.

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• Using two versions of the same assembly (system.web.mvc) at the same time

  - by Joel Abrahamsson

  I'm using a content management system whose admin interface uses MVC 1.0. I would like to build the public parts of the site using MVC 2. If I just reference System.Web.Mvc version 2 in my project the admin mode doesn't work as the reference to System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage created by the views in the admin interface is ambiguous: The type 'System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage' is ambiguous: it could come from assembly 'C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Mvc\2.0.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35\System.Web.Mvc.dll' or from assembly 'C:\Windows\assembly\GAC_MSIL\System.Web.Mvc\1.0.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35\System.Web.Mvc.dll'. Please specify the assembly explicitly in the type name. I could easily work around this by using binding redirects to specify that MVC 2 should always be used. Unfortunately the content management systems admin mode isn't compatible with MVC 2. I'm not exactly sure why, but I start getting a bunch of null reference exceptions in some of it's actions when I try it and the developers of the CMS have confirmed that it isn't compatible with MVC 2 (yet). The admin interface which is accessed through domain.com/admin is not physically located in webroot/admin but in the program files folder on the server and domain.com/admin is instead routed there using a virtual path provider. Therefor, putting a separate web.config file in the admin folder to specify a different version of System.Web.Mvc for that part of the site isn't an option as that won't fly when using shared hosting. Can anyone see any solution to this problem? Perhaps it's possible to specify that for some assemblies a different version of a referenced assembly should be used?

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• How to publish an ASP.NET MVC website

  - by Luke Puplett

  Hello -- I've a site that I'd like to publish to a co-located live server. I'm finding this simple task quite hard. My problems begin with the Web Deploy tool (1.1) giving me a 401 Unauthorized as the adminstrator because port :8172 comes up in the errors and this port is blocked - but the documentation says "The default ListenURL is http://+:80/MsDeployAgentService"! I'm loathe to open another port and I've little patience these days so I thought bu66er it, I'll create a Web Deploy package and import it into IIS on the server over RDP. I notice first that Visual Studio doesn't use a dialog box to gather settings, or use my Publish profiles but seems to use a tab in the project properties, although I think these are ignored when importing the package anyway? I'm now sitting in the import wizard with Application Path and Connection String. I've cleared the conn string as I think this is for some ASP stuff I don't use but when I enter nothing in the Application Path, the wizard barks at me saying that basically I'm a weirdo because most people publish to folders beneath the root site. Now, I want my site to be site.com/Home/About and not site.com/subfolder/Home/About and I think being an MVC routed site that a subfolder will introduce other headaches. Should I go ahead and use the root? Finally, I also want to publish a web service to www.site.com/services/soap which I think IIS can handle. While typing this question, Amazon have delivered my IIS 7 Resource Kit, and I've been scouring the internet but actually I'm getting more confused. Comment here seems to show consensus opinion that Publish isn't for production sites and that real men roll their own. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260525/asp-net-website-publish-vs-web-deployment-project ...I guess this was pre- Web Deployment Tool era? I'm going to experiment on a spare box for now but any assistance is welcome. Luke

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• Apache and backslashes in mod_rewrite

  - by NuCalTone

  I want to process all incoming requests through a single script (index.php in web-root). So, the following is what currently happens: http://localhost/foo/bar/baz Is routed by Apache (through .htaccess) to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo/bar/baz This works well, however, in Firefox I am able to do this: http://localhost/foo\ - notice the backslash. And Apache, instead of doing: /index.php?url=foo\ Emits a generic error page saying: Object not found! The requested URL was not found on this server. If you entered the URL manually please check your spelling and try again. If you think this is a server error, please contact the webmaster. Error 404 localhost Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 Directly going to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo\ works without issues, however. All the sites that I've seen on the internet seem to be able to handle backslashes gracefully (e.g., http://stackoverflow.com/tags/php\\\\\). I consider this behavior a bug and I want to force Apache to forward backslashes correctly. Here's my .htaccess file in its entirety: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [L] How can I make this work properly?

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• MVC Areas - View not found

  - by user314827

  Hi, I have a project that is using MVC areas. The area has the entire project in it while the main "Views/Controllers/Models" folders outside the Areas are empty barring a dispatch controller I have setup that routes default incoming requests to the Home Controller in my area. This controller has one method as follows:- public ActionResult Index(string id) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home", new {area = "xyz"}); } I also have a default route setup to use this controller as follows:- routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Default route "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Dispatch", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); Any default requests to my site are appropriately routed to the relevant area. The Area's "RegisterArea" method has a single route:- context.MapRoute( "xyz_default", "xyz/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } My area has multiple controllers with a lot of views. Any call to a specific view in these controller methods like "return View("blah"); renders the correct view. However whenever I try and return a view along with a model object passed in as a parameter I get the following error:- Server Error in '/DeveloperPortal' Application. The view 'blah' or its master was not found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Profile/blah.aspx ~/Views/Profile/blah.ascx ~/Views/Shared/blah.aspx ~/Views/Shared/blah.ascx It looks like whenever a model object is passed in as a param. to the "View()" method [e.g. return View("blah",obj) ] it searches for the view in the root of the project instead of in the area specific view folder. What am I missing here ? Thanks in advance.

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• Write binary data as a response in an ASP.NET MVC web control

  - by Lou Franco

  I am trying to get a control that I wrote for ASP.NET to work in an ASP.NET MVC environment. Normally, the control does the normal thing, and that works fine Sometimes it needs to respond by clearing the response, writing an image to the response stream and changing the content type. When you do this, you get an exception "OutputStream is not available when a custom TextWriter is used". If I were a page or controller, I see how I can create custom responses with binary data, but I can't see how to do this from inside a control's render functions. To simplify it -- imagine I want to make a web control that renders to: <img src="pageThatControlIsOn?controlImage"> And I know how to look at incoming requests and recognize query strings that should be routed to the control. Now the control is supposed to respond with a generated image (content-type: image/png -- and the encoded image). In ASP.NET, we: Response.Clear(); Response.OutputStream.Write(thePngData); // this throws in MVC // set the content type, etc Response.End(); How am I supposed to do that in an ASP.NET MVC control?

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• Why not systematically attach event in WPF instead of using delegate ?

  - by user310291

  For a button to handle event, we can add a delegate to the click property of the button: this.button1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.button1_Click); But in WPF contrary to Winform, you can also attach a handler http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc785480.aspx So why not do so for the button ? Is performance better in first case maybe ? Update: I mean this Attached Events In order to enable elements to handle events that are declared in a different element, WPF supports something called attached events. Attached events are routed events that support a hookup in XAML on elements other than the type on which the event is declared. For example, if you want the Grid element to listen for a Button.Click event to bubble past, you would simply hook it up like the following: <Grid Button.Click="myButton_Click"> <Button Name="myButton" >Click Me</Button> </Grid> The resulting code in the compile-time-generated partial class now looks like this: #line 5 "..\..\Window1.xaml" ((System.Windows.Controls.Grid)(target)).AddHandler( System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.ButtonBase.ClickEvent, new System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler(this.myButton_Click));

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• iOS 5 Audio Alarms Don't Sound Without kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryMixWithOthers On

  - by coneybeare

  I have an audio app that is having some problems with the way iOS 5 has changed audio behaviors. When my app's audio is playing (AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback), and a Clock.app alarm or timer is fired from the OS, the UIAlertView notification pops up, but without the audio alert. My application sound ducks fine to get out of the way of the audio alert, but the alarm app's audio alert does not sound. Naturally, tons of support requests poured in over the iOS 5 change. I have solved this temporarily by setting kAudioSessionProperty_OverrideCategoryMixWithOthers which lets the alarm audio come through, but there are a few very undesirable side-effects when doing this: Other app's audio can play with/over mine. The remote control events are not routed to my app, but to iPod.app. None of the above drawbacks are acceptable for my app's requirements. I have been hacking away at this for some time now but haven't been able to crack it. How can I setup my audio such that: My app's audio still uses the AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback category for background audio. The Clock.app alarms still have their audio alerts make sound The app still responds to remote control notifications

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• RESTfully Nesting Resource Routes with Single Identifiers

  - by Craig Walker

  In my Rails app I have a fairly standard has_many relationship between two entities. A Foo has zero or more Bars; a Bar belongs to exactly one Foo. Both Foo and Bar are identified by a single integer ID value. These values are unique across all of their respective instances. Bar is existence dependent on Foo: it makes no sense to have a Bar without a Foo. There's two ways to RESTfully references instances of these classes. Given a Foo.id of "100" and a Bar.id of "200": Reference each Foo and Bar through their own "top-level" URL routes, like so: /foo/100 /bar/200 Reference Bar as a nested resource through its instance of Foo: /foo/100 /foo/100/bar/200 I like the nested routes in #2 as it more closely represents the actual dependency relationship between the entities. However, it does seem to involve a lot of extra work for very little gain. Assuming that I know about a particular Bar, I don't need to be told about a particular Foo; I can derive that from the Bar itself. In fact, I probably should be validating the routed Foo everywhere I go (so that you couldn't do /foo/150/bar/200, assuming Bar 200 is not assigned to Foo 150). Ultimately, I don't see what this brings me. So, are there any other arguments for or against these two routing schemes?

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• Destroying nested resources in restful way

  - by Alex

  I'm looking for help destroying a nested resource in Merb. My current method seems near correct, but the controller raise an InternalServerError during the destruction of the nested object. Here comes all the details concerning the request, don't hesitate to ask for more :) Thanks, Alex I'm trying to destroy a nested resources using the following route in router.resources :events, Orga::Events do |event| event.resources :locations, Orga::Locations end Which gives in jQuery request (delete_ method is a implementation of $.ajax with "DELETE"): $.delete_("/events/123/locations/456"); In the Location controller side, I've got: def delete(id) @location = Location.get(id) raise NotFound unless @location if @location.destroy redirect url(:orga_locations) else raise InternalServerError end end And the log: merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Routed to: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Params: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} ~ (0.000025) SELECT `id`, `class_type`, `name`, `prefix`, `type`, `capacity`, `handicap`, `export_name` FROM `entities` WHERE (`class_type` IN ('Location') AND `id` = 456) ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 ~ (0.000014) SELECT `id`, `streetname`, `phone`, `lat`, `lng`, `country_region_city_id`, `location_id`, `organisation_id` FROM `country_region_city_addresses` WHERE `location_id` = 456 ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError - (Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError)

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• Handling events from user control containing a WPF textbox

  - by Tom

  I've been successful in putting a WPF textbox into an existing windows form using ElementHost and a user control. It looks like the following: Public Class MyUserControl Private _elementHost as ElementHost = New ElementHost Private _wpfTextbox as System.Windows.Controls.Textbox = New System.Windows.Controls.Textbox Public Sub New() Me.Controls.Add(_elementHost) _elementHost.Dock = DockStyle.Fill _elementHost.Child = _wpfTextbox _wpfTextbox.SpellCheck.IsEnabled = True End Sub End Class Now, when I put this user control onto a windows form, it accepts keyboard input and the form itself can get text from the textbox. However, when I try to handle keypress (or keydown, keyup) events from the user control, nothing happens. I've looked into this problem and did a bit of research but now I'm a little confused as to what I really need to be looking at. The following are the topics that I am somewhat confused about. HwndSource Relaxed delegates WPF routed events If I am interpreting everything correctly, input from WPF textboxes are handled differently compared to regular form textboxes. It seems like both aren't compatible with each other but there must be some way to "pass" keys from one to another? I'd appreciate any help.

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• Exception Handling in ASP.NET MVC and Ajax - [HandleException] filter

  - by Graham

  All, I'm learning MVC and using it for a business app (MVC 1.0). I'm really struggling to get my head around exception handling. I've spent a lot of time on the web but not found anything along the lines of what I'm after. We currently use a filter attribute that implements IExceptionFilter. We decorate a base controller class with this so all server side exceptions are nicely routed to an exception page that displays the error and performs logging. I've started to use AJAX calls that return JSON data but when the server side implementation throws an error, the filter is fired but the page does not redirect to the Error page - it just stays on the page that called the AJAX method. Is there any way to force the redirect on the server (e.g. a ASP.NET Server.Transfer or redirect?) I've read that I must return a JSON object (wrapping the .NET Exception) and then redirect on the client, but then I can't guarantee the client will redirect... but then (although I'm probably doing something wrong) the server attempts to redirect but then gets an unauthorised exception (the base controller is secured but the Exception controller is not as it does not inherit from this) Has anybody please got a simple example (.NET and jQuery code). I feel like I'm randomly trying things in the hope it will work Exception Filter so far... public class HandleExceptionAttribute : FilterAttribute, IExceptionFilter { #region IExceptionFilter Members public void OnException(ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (filterContext.ExceptionHandled) { return; } filterContext.Controller.TempData[CommonLookup.ExceptionObject] = filterContext.Exception; if (filterContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) { filterContext.Result = AjaxException(filterContext.Exception.Message, filterContext); } else { //Redirect to global handler filterContext.Result = new RedirectToRouteResult(new RouteValueDictionary(new { controller = AvailableControllers.Exception, action = AvailableActions.HandleException })); filterContext.ExceptionHandled = true; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); } } #endregion private JsonResult AjaxException(string message, ExceptionContext filterContext) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { message = "Server error"; //TODO: Replace with better message } filterContext.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = (int)HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; filterContext.HttpContext.Response.TrySkipIisCustomErrors = true; //Needed for IIS7.0 return new JsonResult { Data = new { ErrorMessage = message }, ContentEncoding = Encoding.UTF8, }; } }

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• How would the 'Model' in a Rails-type webapp be implemented in a functional programming langauge?

  - by ceptorial

  In MVC web development frameworks such as Ruby on Rails, Django, and CakePHP, HTTP requests are routed to controllers, which fetch objects which are usually persisted to a backend database store. These objects represent things like users, blog posts, etc., and often contain logic within their methods for permissions, fetching and/or mutating other objects, validation, etc. These frameworks are all very much object oriented. I've been reading up recently on functional programming and it seems to tout tremendous benefits such as testability, conciseness, modularity, etc. However most of the examples I've seen for functional programming implement trivial functionality like quicksort or the fibonnacci sequence, not complex webapps. I've looked at a few 'functional' web frameworks, and they all seem to implement the view and controller just fine, but largely skip over the whole 'model' and 'persistence' part. (I'm talking more about frameworks like Compojure which are supposed to be purely functional, versus something Lift which conveniently seems to use the OO part of Scala for the model -- but correct me if I'm wrong here.) I haven't seen a good explanation of how functional programming can be used to provide the metaphor that OO programming provides, i.e. tables map to objects, and objects can have methods which provide powerful, encapsulated logic such as permissioning and validation. Also the whole concept of using SQL queries to persist data seems to violate the whole 'side effects' concept. Could someone provide an explanation of how the 'model' layer would be implemented in a functionally programmed web framework?

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• How does the socket API accept() function work?

  - by Eli Bendersky

  The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

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• Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

  - by Donn Felker

  I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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