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  • Problem using UnhandledException in Windows Mobile app

    - by MusiGenesis
    I have a Windows Mobile program that accesses an attached device through a third-party DLL. Each call to the device can take an unknown length of time, so each call includes a timeout property. If the call takes longer than the specified timeout to return, the DLL instead throws an exception which my app catches with no problem. The problem that I have is with closing the application. If my application has made a call to the DLL and is waiting for the timeout to occur, and I then close the application before the timeout occurs, my application locks up and requires the PDA to be rebooted. I can ensure that the application waits for the timeout before closing, under normal conditions. However, I am trying to use AppDomain.CurrentDomain.UnhandledException to catch any unhandled exceptions in the program and use the event to wait for this pending timeout to occur so the program can be closed finally. My problem is that this event doesn't seem to stick around long enough. If I put a MessageBox.Show("unhandled exception"); line in the event, and then throw a new unhandled exception from my application's main form, I see the message box for a split second but then it disappears without my having clicked the OK button. The documentation I've found on this event suggests that by the time it's called the application is fully committed to closing and the closing can't be stopped, but I didn't think it meant that the event method itself won't finish. What gives (I guess that's the question)? Update: In full windows (Vista) this works as expected, but only if I use the Application.ThreadException event, which doesn't exist in .Net CF 2.0.

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  • Using Grapher on GIN application with GinModuleAdapter

    - by Epaga
    I've been trying to use Grapher on my GIN project. But trying to create an Injector to give the InjectorGrapher has not been working. Right in the first line of my code: Injector injector = Guice.createInjector( new GinModuleAdapter( new MyGinModule() ) ); it crashes with Exception in thread "main" java.lang.AssertionError: should never be actually called at com.google.gwt.inject.rebind.adapter.GwtDotCreateProvider.get(GwtDotCreateProvider.java:43) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter$1.call(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:45) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:811) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.get(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:42) at com.google.inject.Scopes$1$1.get(Scopes.java:54) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.SingleParameterInjector.inject(SingleParameterInjector.java:42) at com.google.inject.SingleParameterInjector.getAll(SingleParameterInjector.java:66) at com.google.inject.ConstructorInjector.construct(ConstructorInjector.java:84) at com.google.inject.ConstructorBindingImpl$Factory.get(ConstructorBindingImpl.java:111) at com.google.inject.BoundProviderFactory.get(BoundProviderFactory.java:56) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter$1.call(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:45) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:811) at com.google.inject.ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.get(ProviderToInternalFactoryAdapter.java:42) at com.google.inject.Scopes$1$1.get(Scopes.java:54) at com.google.inject.InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.get(InternalFactoryToProviderAdapter.java:48) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder$1.call(InjectorBuilder.java:200) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder$1.call(InjectorBuilder.java:194) at com.google.inject.InjectorImpl.callInContext(InjectorImpl.java:804) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.loadEagerSingletons(InjectorBuilder.java:194) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.injectDynamically(InjectorBuilder.java:176) at com.google.inject.InjectorBuilder.build(InjectorBuilder.java:113) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:92) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:69) at com.google.inject.Guice.createInjector(Guice.java:59) at com.me.myself.Grapher.main(Grapher.java:20) What gives?

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  • How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s = e.Result; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • Forcing file redirection on x64 for a 32-bit application

    - by Paul Alexander
    The silent redirection of 64-bit system files to their 32-bit equivalents can be turned off and reverted with Wow64DisableWow64FsRedirection and Wow64RevertWow64FsRedirection. We use this for certain file identity checks in our application. The problem is that in performing some of theses tasks, we might call a framework or Windows API in a DLL that has not yet been loaded. If redirection is enabled at that time, the wrong version of the dll may be loaded resulting in a XXX is not a valid Win32 application error. I've identified the few API calls in question and what I'd like to do force the redirection on for the duration of that call then revert it back - just the opposite of the provided Win32 APIs. Unfortunately these calls do not provide any sort of WOW64 compatibility flag like some of the registry methods do. The obvious alternative is to use Wow64EnableWow64FsRedirection, pass TRUE for Wow64FsEanbledRedirection. However there are a variety of warnings about the use of this method and a note that it is not compatible with Disable/Revert combo methods that have replaced it. Is there a safe way to force redirection on for a give Win32 call? The docs state the redirection is thread specific so I've considered spinning up a new thread for the specific call with appropriate locks and waits, but I was hoping for a simpler solution.

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  • [C#] How to use delegate to perform callback between caller and web service helper class?

    - by codemonkie
    I have 2 classes A and B, where they belongs to the same namespace but resides in seperate files namely a.cs and b.cs, where class B essentially is a helper wrapping a web service call as follow: public class A { public A() // constructor { protected static B b = new B(); } private void processResult1(string result) { // come here when result is successful } private void processResult2(string result) { // come here when result is failed } static void main() { b.DoJobHelper(...); } } public class B { private com.nowhere.somewebservice ws; public B() { this.ws = new com.nowhere.somewebservice(); ws.JobCompleted += new JobCompletedEventHandler(OnCompleted); } void OnCompleted(object sender, JobCompletedEventArgs e) { string s; Guid taskID = (Guid)e.UserState; switch (s) { case "Success": // Call processResult1(); break; case "Failed": // Call processResult2(); break; default: break; } } public void DoJobHelper() { Object userState = Guid.NewGuid(); ws.DoJob(..., userState); } } (1) I have seen texts on the net on using delegates for callbacks but failed to apply that to my case. All I want to do is to call the appropriate processResult() method upon OnCompleted() event, but dunno how to and where to declare the delegate: public delegate void CallBack(string s); (2) There is a sender object passed in to OnCompleted() but never used, did I miss anything there? Or how can I make good use of sender? Any helps appreciated.

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Ambiguous access to base class template member function

    - by Johann Gerell
    In Visual Studio 2008, the compiler cannot resolve the call to SetCustomer in _tmain below and make it unambiguous: template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { void SetConsumer(TConsumer* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; struct AppleConsumer { }; struct MeatConsumer { }; struct ShillyShallyProducer : public Producer<AppleConsumer>, public Producer<MeatConsumer> { }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { ShillyShallyProducer producer; AppleConsumer consumer; producer.SetConsumer(&consumer); // <--- Ambiguous call!! return 0; } This is the compilation error: // error C2385: ambiguous access of 'SetConsumer' // could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<AppleConsumer>' // or could be the 'SetConsumer' in base 'Producer<MeatConsumer>' I thought the template argument lookup mechanism would be smart enough to deduce the correct base Producer. Why isn't it? I could get around this by changing Producer to template <typename TConsumer> struct Producer { template <typename TConsumer2> void SetConsumer(TConsumer2* consumer) { consumer_ = consumer; } TConsumer* consumer_; }; and call SetConsumer as producer.SetConsumer<AppleConsumer>(&consumer); // Unambiguous call!! but it would be nicer if I didn't have to...

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  • Ajax -- re-load div on success.

    - by RPM
    I am trying to accomplish a "re-load." More specifically, I need to be able to refresh a portion of my page as a result of another successful ajax call. Moreover, I load my portion of the page via ajax which obtains it's content from an ajax post. The result is my content being displayed inside my portion precisely. I need this portion of the page refreshed after a successful ajax post. Here is some of the code: /* Ajax-- this part is loaded automatically, and I need it reloaded upon success of another ajax post. This data comes from the outcome of my other ajax function. */ $('#newCo').load('click', function() { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/Indeed', dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { if (json['newCompare']) { $('#newCo .newResults').html(json['newCompare']); } } }); }); The next portion of code is responsible for posting the data of which I obtain in this above ajax function. function ZgHiapud (ofWhich) { $.ajax({ url: 'index.php?dkd432k=uBus/310/update', type: 'post', data: 'product_id=' + product_id, dataType: 'json', success: function(json) { $('.success, .warning, .attention, .information').remove(); if (json['success']) { $('.attention').fadeIn('slow'); $('#compare_total').html(json['total']); $('html, body').animate({ scrollTop: 0 }, 'slow'); } } }); } In the end, I need to obtain the data that I send to the server immediately upon success of the second ajax call. This data that is sent via the second ajax call needs to fire the first ajax call upon success.

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  • jQuery aspx error function always called, even with apparently valid return data

    - by M Katz
    I am making an ajax call using jQuery (jquery-1.5.2.min.js). The server receives the call. fiddler shows the response text coming back apparently correct. But back in javascript my error: function is called instead of my success: function, and the data of the parameters to the error function don't give much clue as to the problem. Here's the function where I make the initial call: function SelectCBGAtClickedPoint() { $.ajax( { type: "GET", dataType: "text", url: "http://localhost/ajax/SelectCBGAtPoint/1/2", success: function( msg ) { alert( "success: " + msg ); }, error: function( jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown ) { alert( "error: " + jqXHR + textStatus + errorThrown ); } } ); } Here's the function where I handle the call in my cherrypy server code: def ajax( ajax, *args ): with lock: print "ajax request received: " + str( args ) cherrypy.response.headers[ "Content-Type" ] = "application/text" return "{ x: 0 }" Cherrypy is an odd beast, and I was thinking the problem must lie there. But as I say, I see both the query go out and the response come back in Fiddler. Here is what Fiddler shows as the raw view of the response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Mon, 11 Apr 2011 17:49:25 GMT Content-Length: 8 Content-Type: application/text Server: CherryPy/3.2.0 { x: 0 } Looks good, but then back in javascript, I get into the error: function, with the following values for the parameters (as shown in firebug): errorThrown = "" jqXHR = Object { readyState=0, status=0, statusText="error"} statusText = "error" I don't know where that word "error" is coming from. That string does not appear anywhere in my cherrypy server code. Note that even though I'm returning a JSON string I've set the send and receive types to "text" for now, just to simplify in order to isolate the problem. Any ideas why I'm getting this "error" reply, even when errorThrown is empty? Could it be that I haven't properly "initialized" either jQuery or jQuery.ajax?

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  • passing callback function accross windows causing error with ie ...

    - by krul
    I have a problem with IE causing two errors: 1. Object doesn't support this property or method 2. Call was rejected by callee. My Intention: To call window.opener.myObject method that is going to retrieve some data using ajax and pass in callback function that live as nested function in popup window that initiated call that is going to handle response data and modify popup window html accordingly. Here is a scenario: I pull up popup window that handles some specific operation. This popup window calling window.opener.myObject method that using ajax call. I'm passing in popup window function that is going to handle response and it works with ff and safari but not with ie. Here is code sample //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON POPUP WINDOW $('#myButton').live('click', function() { var h = window.opener.myObject, p = { 'p1': 1 }; var responseHandler = function(responseObj) { //in IE we never got here if (!responseObj) { alert('Unexpected error!! No response from server'); return false; } //..handle response }; p.p1 = $('#control').val(); h.executeMethod(p, responseHandler); }); //RELEVANT SCRIPT ON WINDOW OPENER MYOBJECT try { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', async: true, url: url, data: postData, dataType: "json", contentType: 'application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=utf-8', success: r, // r here is reference to my responseHandler popup window function error: handleError }); } catch (ex) { alert(ex.message); } Any tips?

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  • Executing sequential stored procedures; works in query analyzer, doesn't in my .NET application

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called MyOther DB with a stored procedure called 'CreatedAudit' as well. In other words in MyDB I have CreateAudit, which does the following EXEC dbo.MyOtherDB.CreateAudit. I call the MyDb CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") One line after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • How can I export an array from Dynamics AX 2009 via c#?

    - by Steve Homer
    I'm pulling data from Dynamics AX 2009 from c# using the following code snippet. This works fine, except for those cases where the underlying field type is a dimension. I want to be able to "flatten" array types when I return them but can't see any way to do this. Any ideas anyone? axRecord = ax.CreateAxaptaRecord(tableName); axRecord.ExecuteStmt(strQuery); // Loop through the set of retrieved records. using (StreamWriter sw = File.CreateText(path)) { AxaptaObject axDictTable = ax.CreateAxaptaObject("SysDictTable",axRecord.get_Field("tableid")); outputRow = null; List<int> ids = new List<int>(); for (int i = 1; i <= (int)axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt"); i++) { AxaptaObject axDictField = ax.CreateAxaptaObject("DictField", axRecord.get_Field("tableid"), axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt2ID", i)); outputRow += ((string)axDictField.Call("Name")) + ","; ids.Add((int)axDictTable.Call("fieldCnt2ID", i)); } sw.WriteLine(outputRow); while (axRecord.Found) { outputRow = null; foreach(int i in ids) outputRow += axRecord.get_Field(i).ToString().Replace(",", "") + ","; sw.WriteLine(outputRow); axRecord.Next(); } }

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  • Passing an object as parameter from Andriod to web service using ksoap

    - by user3718626
    I have an object called User which implements KvmSerializable. Would like to pass this object to the webservice. PropertyInfo pi = new PropertyInfo(); pi.setName("obj"); pi.setValue(user); pi.setType(user.getClass()); request.addProperty(pi); SoapSerializationEnvelope envelope = new SoapSerializationEnvelope(SoapEnvelope.VER11); envelope.setOutputSoapObject(request); envelope.addMapping(NAMESPACE, "User",User.class); HttpTransportSE androidHttpTransport = new HttpTransportSE(URL); I get the following error.... SoapFault - faultcode: 'soapenv:Server' faultstring: 'Unknow type {http://users.com}User' faultactor: 'null' detail: org.kxml2.kdom.Node@53263024 at org.ksoap2.serialization.SoapSerializationEnvelope.parseBody(SoapSerializationEnvelope.java:141) at org.ksoap2.SoapEnvelope.parse(SoapEnvelope.java:140) at org.ksoap2.transport.Transport.parseResponse(Transport.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:272) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:118) at org.ksoap2.transport.HttpTransportSE.call(HttpTransportSE.java:113) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.getQuestion(WebServiceCallTask.java:114) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:53) at com.compete.WebServiceCallTask.doInBackground(WebServiceCallTask.java:1) at android.os.AsyncTask$2.call(AsyncTask.java:287) at java.util.concurrent.FutureTask.run(FutureTask.java:234) at android.os.AsyncTask$SerialExecutor$1.run(AsyncTask.java:230) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.runWorker(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:1080) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor$Worker.run(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:573) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:856) Appreciate if any one can point me to an sample code or can direct me what is the issue. Thanks.

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  • Optional Member Objects

    - by David Relihan
    Okay, so you have a load of methods sprinkled around your systems main class. So you do the right thing and refactor by creating a new class and perform move method(s) into a new class. The new class has a single responsibility and all is right with the world again: class Feature { public: Feature(){}; void doSomething(); void doSomething1(); void doSomething2(); }; So now your original class has a member variable of type object: Feature _feature; Which you will call in the main class. Now if you do this many times, you will have many member-objects in your main class. Now these features may or not be required based on configuration so in a way it's costly having all these objects that may or not be needed. Can anyone suggest a way of improving this? At the moment I plan to test in the newly created class if the feature is enabled - so the when a call is made to method I will return if it is not enabled. I could have a pointer to the object and then only call new if feature is enabled - but this means I will have to test before I call a method on it which would be potentially dangerous and not very readable. Would having an auto_ptr to the object improve things: auto_ptr<Feature> feature; Or am I still paying the cost of object invokation even though the object may\or may not be required. BTW - I don't think this is premeature optimisation - I just want to consider the possibilites.

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  • Can a stateless WCF service benefit from built-in database connection pooling?

    - by vladimir
    I understand that a typical .NET application that accesses a(n SQL Server) database doesn't have to do anything in particular in order to benefit from the connection pooling. Even if an application repeatedly opens and closes database connections, they do get pooled by the framework (assuming that things such as credentials do not change from call to call). My usage scenario seems to be a bit different. When my service gets instantiated, it opens a database connection once, does some work, closes the connection and returns the result. Then it gets torn down by the WCF, and the next incoming call creates a new instance of the service. In other words, my service gets instantiated per client call, as in [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)]. The service accesses an SQL Server 2008 database. I'm using .NET framework 3.5 SP1. Does the connection pooling still work in this scenario, or I need to roll my own connection pool in form of a singleton or by some other means (IInstanceContextProvider?). I would rather avoid reinventing the wheel, if possible.

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  • NetworkStream.Read delay .Net

    - by Gilbes
    I have a class that inherits from TcpClient. In that class I have a method to process responses. In that method I call I get the NetworkStream with MyBase.GetStream and call Read on it. This works fine, excpet the first call to read blocks too long. And by too long I mean that the socket has recieved plenty of data, but won't read it until some arbitrary limit is reached. I can see that it has recieved plenty of data using the packet sniffer WireShark. I have set the recieve buffer to small amounts, and very small amounts (like just a few bytes) to no avail. I have done the same with the buffer byte array I pass to the read method, and it still delays. Or to put it another way. I am download 600k. The download takes 5 seconds (at a little over 100k/second connection to the server which makes sense). The initial Read call takes 2-3 seconds and tells me only 256 bytes are availble (256 is the Recieve buffer and the size of the array I read in to). Then magically, the other few hundred thousand bytes can be read in 256 byte chunks in only a few process ticks each. Using a packet sniffer, I know that during those initial 2-3 seconds, the socket has recieved much more than just 256 bytes. My connection wasn't .25k/second for 3 seconds and then 400k for 2 seconds. How do I get the bytes from a socket as they come in?

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  • How do I authenticate regarding EJB3 Container ?

    - by FMR
    I have my business classes protected by EJB3 security annotations, now I would like to call these methods from a Spring controller, how do I do it? edit I will add some information about my setup, I'm using Tomcat for the webcontainer and OpenEJB for embedding EJB into tomcat. I did not settle on any version of spring so it's more or less open to suggestions. edit current setup works this way : I have a login form + controller that puts a User pojo inside SessionContext. Each time someone access a secured part of the site, the application checks for the User pojo, if it's there check roles and then show the page, if it's not show a appropriate message or redirect to login page. Now the bussiness calls are made thanks to a call method inside User which bypass a probable security context which is a remix of this code found in openejb security examples : Caller managerBean = (Caller) context.lookup("ManagerBeanLocal"); managerBean.call(new Callable() { public Object call() throws Exception { Movies movies = (Movies) context.lookup("MoviesLocal"); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Quentin Tarantino", "Reservoir Dogs", 1992)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "Fargo", 1996)); movies.addMovie(new Movie("Joel Coen", "The Big Lebowski", 1998)); List<Movie> list = movies.getMovies(); assertEquals("List.size()", 3, list.size()); for (Movie movie : list) { movies.deleteMovie(movie); } assertEquals("Movies.getMovies()", 0, movies.getMovies().size()); return null; } });

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  • UIView Animation Inconsistent Result

    - by Josh Kahane
    I am trying to make use of UIView animation to slide my views across the screen. I have a UIScrollView in my view controller, in which I have my UIViews. I alos have this method: -(void)translateView:(UIView *)view toRect:(CGRect)rect withDuration:(CGFloat)duration { [UIView animateWithDuration:duration animations:^ { view.frame = rect; } completion:^(BOOL finished) { //Finished }]; } I call this to move my UIView in an animated fashion to a CGRect of my choice over a certain time. I have a loop which creates and slides out 7 views. This works great, I call it like below, the loop of course calling this 7 times on different views: [self translateView:cell toRect:translationRect withDuration:0.7]; However, I can't then call this again immediately afterwards, just nothing happens. Although, lets say I call this again after a 2 second NSTimer, the animation does run, but then when i scroll my UIScrollView, the view I just animated jumps back to its previous CGRect. Hope you can help, its all feeling very un-explanetory, Ill post more code if it isn't making any sense, thanks.

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  • Throwing a C++ exception after an inline-asm jump

    - by SoapBox
    I have some odd self modifying code, but at the root of it is a pretty simple problem: I want to be able to execute a jmp (or a call) and then from that arbitrary point throw an exception and have it caught by the try/catch block that contained the jmp/call. But when I do this (in gcc 4.4.1 x86_64) the exception results in a terminate() as it would if the exception was thrown from outside of a try/catch. I don't really see how this is different than throwing an exception from inside of some far-flung library, yet it obviously is because it just doesn't work. How can I execute a jmp or call but still throw an exception back to the original try/catch? Why doesn't this try/catch continue to handle these exceptions as it would if the function was called normally? The code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> using namespace std; void thrower() { cout << "Inside thrower" << endl; throw runtime_error("some exception"); } int main() { cout << "Top of main" << endl; try { asm volatile ( "jmp *%0" // same thing happens with a call instead of a jmp : : "r"((long)thrower) : ); } catch (exception &e) { cout << "Caught : " << e.what() << endl; } cout << "Bottom of main" << endl << endl; } The expected output: Top of main Inside thrower Caught : some exception Bottom of main The actual output: Top of main Inside thrower terminate called after throwing an instance of 'std::runtime_error' what(): some exception Aborted

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  • What is jasper report's algorithm for using a data source?

    - by spderosso
    Hi, I have created my custom data source by implementing the interface JRDataSource. This interface looks like this: public interface JRDataSource { /** * Tries to position the cursor on the next element in the data source. * @return true if there is a next record, false otherwise * @throws JRException if any error occurs while trying to move to the next element */ public boolean next() throws JRException; /** * Gets the field value for the current position. * @return an object containing the field value. The object type must be the field object type. */ public Object getFieldValue(JRField jrField) throws JRException; } My question is the following: In what way does jasper report call this functions for obtaining the fields in the .jrxml. E.g: if( next() )){ call getFieldValue for every field present in the page header while( next() ){ call getFieldValue for every field present in detail part } call getFieldValue for every field present the footer } The previous is just an example, experimentally in fact I found out that it is actually not like that. So my question arised. Thanks!

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  • Thread-safe data structure design

    - by Inso Reiges
    Hello, I have to design a data structure that is to be used in a multi-threaded environment. The basic API is simple: insert element, remove element, retrieve element, check that element exists. The structure's implementation uses implicit locking to guarantee the atomicity of a single API call. After i implemented this it became apparent, that what i really need is atomicity across several API calls. For example if a caller needs to check the existence of an element before trying to insert it he can't do that atomically even if each single API call is atomic: if(!data_structure.exists(element)) { data_structure.insert(element); } The example is somewhat awkward, but the basic point is that we can't trust the result of "exists" call anymore after we return from atomic context (the generated assembly clearly shows a minor chance of context switch between the two calls). What i currently have in mind to solve this is exposing the lock through the data structure's public API. This way clients will have to explicitly lock things, but at least they won't have to create their own locks. Is there a better commonly-known solution to these kinds of problems? And as long as we're at it, can you advise some good literature on thread-safe design? EDIT: I have a better example. Suppose that element retrieval returns either a reference or a pointer to the stored element and not it's copy. How can a caller be protected to safely use this pointer\reference after the call returns? If you think that not returning copies is a problem, then think about deep copies, i.e. objects that should also copy another objects they point to internally. Thank you.

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  • How can I have a VBA macro perform a Search/Replace in formulas across an entire workbook?

    - by richardtallent
    I distribute an Excel workbook to a number of users, and they are supposed to have a particular macro file pre-installed in their XLSTART folder. If they don't have the macro installed correctly, and they send the workbook back to me, any formulas depending on it include the full path of the macro, e.g.: 'C:\Documents and Settings\richard.tallent\Application Data\ Microsoft\Excel\XLSTART\pcs.xls'!MyMacroFunction() I want to create a quick macro I can use to remove the improper path from every formula in the workbook. I've successfully retrieved the special folder using GetSpecialFolder (an external function that is working just fine), but the Replace call itself shown below throws an "Application-defined or object-defined error". Public Sub FixBrokenMacroFormulas() Dim badpath As String badpath = "'" & GetSpecialFolder(AppDataFolder) & "\Microsoft\Excel\XLSTART\mymacro.xls'!" Dim Sheet As Worksheet For Each Sheet In ActiveWorkbook.Sheets Call Sheet.Activate Call Sheet.Select(True) Call Selection.Replace(What:=badpath, Replacement:="", LookIn:=xlFormulas) ''//LookAt:=xlPart, MatchCase:=False, SearchFormat:=False, ReplaceFormat:=False Next End Sub Automating search and replace isn't exactly my forte, what am I doing wrong? I've already commented out some of the parameters that don't seem essential.

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  • Generic callbacks

    - by bobobobo
    Extends So, I'm trying to learn template metaprogramming better and I figure this is a good exercise for it. I'm trying to write code that can callback a function with any number of arguments I like passed to it. // First function to call int add( int x, int y ) ; // Second function to call double square( double x ) ; // Third func to call void go() ; The callback creation code should look like: // Write a callback object that // will be executed after 42ms for "add" Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; c1.func = add ; c1.args.push_back( 2 ); // these are the 2 args c1.args.push_back( 5 ); // to pass to the "add" function // when it is called Callback<double, double> c2 ; c2.func = square ; c2.args.push_back( 52.2 ) ; What I'm thinking is, using template metaprogramming I want to be able to declare callbacks like, write a struct like this (please keep in mind this is VERY PSEUDOcode) <TEMPLATING ACTION <<ANY NUMBER OF TYPES GO HERE>> > struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute TYPE1 (*func)( TYPE2 a, TYPE3 b ) ; void* argList ; // a stored list of arguments // to plug in when it is time to call __func__ } ; So for when called with Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; You would automatically get constructed for you by < HARDCORE TEMPLATING ACTION > a struct like struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute int (*func)( int a, int b ) ; void* argList ; // this would still be void*, // but I somehow need to remember // the types of the args.. } ; Any pointers in the right direction to get started on writing this?

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  • Delphi - Help calling threaded dll function from another thread

    - by cloudstrif3
    I'm using Delphi 2006 and have a bit of a problem with an application I'm developing. I have a form that creates a thread which calls a function that performs a lengthy operation, lets call it LengthyProcess. Inside the LengthyProcess function we also call several Dll functions which also create threads of their own. The problem that I am having is that if I don't use the Synchronize function of my thread to call LengthyProcess the thread stops responding (the main thread is still responding fine). I don't want to use Synchronize because that means the main thread is waiting for LengthyProcess to finish and therefore defeats the purpose of creating a separate thread. I have tracked the problem down to a function inside the dll that creates a thread and then calls WaitFor, this is all done using TThread by the way. WaitFor checks to see if the CurrentThreadID is equal to the MainThreadID and if it is then it will call CheckSychronization, and all is fine. So if we use Synchronize then the CurrentThreadID will equal the MainThreadID however if we do not use Synchronize then of course CurrentThreadID < MainThreadID, and when this happens WaitFor tells the current thread (the thread I created) to wait for the thread created by the DLL and so CheckSynchronization never gets called and my thread ends up waiting forever for the thread created in the dll. I hope this makes sense, sorry I don't know any better way to explain it. Has anyone else had this issue and knows how to solve it please?

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  • XMLHttpRequest() and Google Analytics Tracking

    - by sjw
    I have implemented an XMLHttpRequest() call to a standalone html page which simply has an html, title & body tag which Google Analytics Tracking code. I want to track when someone makes a request to display information (i.e. phone number) to try and understand what portion of people look at my directory versus obtaining a phone number to make a call. It is very simple code: var xhReq = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhReq.open("GET", "/registerPhoneClick.htm?id=" + id, false); xhReq.send(null); var serverResponse = xhReq.responseText Yet I cannot see the "hit" in Analytics... Has anyone had this issue? All the analytics tracking code does is call: <script type="text/javascript"> var gaJsHost = (("https:" == document.location.protocol) ? "https://ssl." : "http://www."); document.write(unescape("%3Cscript src='" + gaJsHost + "google-analytics.com/ga.js' type='text/javascript'%3E%3C/script%3E")); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> try { var pageTracker = _gat._getTracker("UA-XXXXXXX"); pageTracker._trackPageview(); } catch(err) {}</script> So realistically, my XmlHTTPRequest() calls an htm file within which a script is execute to make an outbound call to Google Analytics. Is there any reason why an XmlHTTPRequest() would not execute this? Does an XmlHTTPRequest() still bring the code to the client before execution? Help Please

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