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  • Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

    - by Yucel
    Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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  • passing string to a AJAX/JSON function

    - by Mikey1980
    I’m having trouble getting a AJAX/JSON function to work correctly. I had this function grabbing value from a drop down box but now I want to use an anchor tag to set it's value. I thought it would be easy to just use the onClick event to pass string to the function I was using for the drop down box but it doesn’t do anything. I’m stumped! Here how I set it up: 1st I add an onClick event… <a href="<?php echo Settings::get('app.webroot'); ?>?view=schedule&action=questions" onmouseout="MM_swapImgRestore();" onmouseover="MM_swapImage('bre','','template/images/schedule/bre_f2.gif',1) onclick="assignCallType('testing')";> 2nd I check main.js.php function assignCallType(type) { alert(type); //just for debugging new Request.JSON({ url: "ajax.php", onSuccess: function(rtndata,txt){ if (rtndata['STATUS'] != 'OK') alert('Error assigning call type to call'); }, onFailure: function (xhr) { alert('Error assigning call type to call'); } }).get({ 'action': 'assignCallType', 'call_type': type }); } 3rd Ajax.php: the variable is back in PHP and values don’t get added to the db, but I also didn’t get the alert from main.js.php if ($_GET['action'] == "assignCallType") { if ($USER->isInsideSales()) { $call_type = $_GET['call_type']; $_SESSION['callinfo']->setCallType($call_type); $_SESSION['callinfo']->save($callid); echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'OK')); } else { echo json_encode(array('STATUS'=>'DENIED')); } } Any idea where I am going wrong. The only difference between this and the working drop down is how the function was called, I used onchange="assignCallType(this.value)".

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  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • What can cause a spontaneous EPIPE error without either end calling close() or crashing?

    - by Hongli
    I have an application that consists of two processes (let's call them A and B), connected to each other through Unix domain sockets. Most of the time it works fine, but some users report the following behavior: A sends a request to B. This works. A now starts reading the reply from B. B sends a reply to A. The corresponding write() call returns an EPIPE error, and as a result B close() the socket. However, A did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. A's read() call returns 0, indicating end-of-file. A thinks that B prematurely closed the connection. Users have also reported variations of this behavior, e.g.: A sends a request to B. This works partially, but before the entire request is sent A's write() call returns EPIPE, and as a result A close() the socket. However B did not close() the socket, nor did it crash. B reads a partial request and then suddenly gets an EOF. The problem is I cannot reproduce this behavior locally at all. I've tried OS X and Linux. The users are on a variety of systems, mostly OS X and Linux. Things that I've already tried and considered: Double close() bugs (close() is called twice on the same file descriptor): probably not as that would result in EBADF errors, but I haven't seen them. Increasing the maximum file descriptor limit. One user reported that this worked for him, the rest reported that it did not. What else can possibly cause behavior like this? I know for certain that neither A nor B close() the socket prematurely, and I know for certain that neither of them have crashed because both A and B were able to report the error. It is as if the kernel suddenly decided to pull the plug from the socket for some reason.

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  • Is private method in spring service implement class thread safe

    - by Roger Ray
    I got a service in an project using Spring framework. public class MyServiceImpl implements IMyService { public MyObject foo(SomeObject obj) { MyObject myobj = this.mapToMyObject(obj); myobj.setLastUpdatedDate(new Date()); return myobj; } private MyObject mapToMyObject(SomeObject obj){ MyObject myojb = new MyObject(); ConvertUtils.register(new MyNullConvertor(), String.class); ConvertUtils.register(new StringConvertorForDateType(), Date.class); BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class); return myojb; } } Then I got a class to call foo() in multi-thread; There goes the problem. In some of the threads, I got error when calling BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj); saying Cannot invoke com.my.MyObject.setStartDate - java.lang.ClassCastException@2da93171 obviously, this is caused by ConvertUtils.deregister(Date.class) which is supposed to be called after BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. It looks like one of the threads deregistered the Date class out while another thread was just about to call BeanUtils.copyProperties(myojb , obj);. So My question is how do I make the private method mapToMyObject() thread safe? Or simply make the BeanUtils thread safe when it's used in a private method. And will the problem still be there if I keep the code this way but instead I call this foo() method in sevlet? If many sevlets call at the same time, would this be a multi-thread case as well?

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  • Apply [ThreadStatic] attribute to a method in external assembly

    - by Sen Jacob
    Can I use an external assembly's static method like [ThreadStatic] method? Here is my situation. The assembly class (which I do not have access to its source) has this structure public class RegistrationManager() { private RegistrationManager() {} public static void RegisterConfiguration(int ID) {} public static object DoWork() {} public static void UnregisterConfiguration(int ID) {} } Once registered, I cannot call the DoWork() with a different ID without unregistering the previously registered one. Actually I want to call the DoWork() method with different IDs simultaneously with multi-threading. If the RegisterConfiguration(int ID) method was [ThreadStatic], I could have call it in different threads without problems with calls, right? So, can I apply the [ThreadStatic] attribute to this method or is there any other way I can call the two static methods same time without waiting for other thread to unregister it? If I check it like the following, it should work. for(int i=0; i < 10; i++) { new Thread(new ThreadStart(() => Checker(i))).Start(); } public string Checker(int i) { public static void RegisterConfiguration(i); // Now i cannot register second time public static object DoWork(i); Thread.Sleep(5000); // DoWork() may take a little while to complete before unregistered public static void UnregisterConfiguration(i); }

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  • Javascript Namespace Help

    - by Jason
    Hi, I have a pretty big Javascript script with loads of global variables & functions in it. Then a piece of code that calls one function from this js file: myfunc(); Ok, now I have cloned this script and modified some functionality, all function prototypes and variables are named the same in both scripts. So now I have two scripts loaded and one call to myfunc(), now we have a clash because there are loads of global variables with the same names and two myfunc()s. What I want to do is wrap this cloned script in a namespace, so that I can modify the original call to: clone.myfunc() which will call the new function, but I also want myfunc() to just refer to the original script. In other words I can't touch the original script (no permissions) and I want to be able to use both the clone and the original at runtime. This is the script im cloning: http://pastebin.com/6KR5T3Ah Javascript namespaces seem quite tricky this seems a nice namespace method: var namespace = { foo: function() { } bar: function() { } } ... namespace.foo(); } However that requires using an object, and the script (as posted above) is humongous at nearly 4000 lines, too much to objectize I think? Anyone know a better solution to avoid namespace pollution, with one script I cant touch and one being a clone of that script. Just so I can call myfunc() and clone.myfunc() and all global variables will behave in their respected scope. It's either that, or I go through and modify everything to have unique names, which may take a lifetime This is a Mozilla addon if it helps context wise. Thanks.

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  • Templates, Function Pointers and C++0x

    - by user328543
    One of my personal experiments to understand some of the C++0x features: I'm trying to pass a function pointer to a template function to execute. Eventually the execution is supposed to happen in a different thread. But with all the different types of functions, I can't get the templates to work. #include `<functional`> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 4;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> int func(C&& c) { //typedef typename std::result_of< C() >::type result_type; typedef typename std::conditional< std::is_pointer< C >::value, std::result_of< C() >::type, std::conditional< std::is_object< C >::value, std::result_of< typename C::operator() >::type, void> >::type result_type; result_type result = c(); return result; } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); // call with a member function bar b; func(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 12;} ); return 0; } The result_of template alone doesn't seem to be able to find the operator() in class bar and the clunky conditional I created doesn't compile. Any ideas? Will I have additional problems with const functions?

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  • wx_ref and custom wx_object's

    - by Iogann
    Hi! I am developing MDI application with help of wxErlang. I have a parent frame, implemented as wx_object: -module(main_frame). -export([new/0, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -behaviour(wx_object). .... And I have a child frame, implemented as wx_object too: module(child_frame). -export([new/2, init/1, handle_call/3, handle_event/2, terminate/2]). -export([save/1]). -behaviour(wx_object). % some public API method save(Frame) -> wx_object:call(Frame, save). .... I want to call save/1 for an active child frame from the parent frame. There is my code: ActiveChild = wxMDIParentFrame:getActiveChild(Frame), case wx:is_null(ActiveChild) of false - child_frame:save(ActiveChild); _ - ignore end This code fails because ActiveChild is #wx_ref{} with state=[], but wx_object:call/2 needs #wx_ref{} where state is set to the pid of the process which we call. What is the right method to do this? I thought only to store a list of all created child frames with its pids in the parent frame and search the pid in this list, but this is ugly.

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  • get timestamp using OracleCachedRowSet

    - by chetan
    Code : OracleCachedRowSet rowSet = new OracleCachedRowSet(); ResultObject obj = new ResultObject(0,null); PreparedStatement pstat = connection.prepareStatement(strQry); rowSet.populate(pstat.executeQuery()); rowSet.beforeFirst(); while(rowSet.next()){ System.out.println("Conference name "+rowSet.getString(1)); System.out.println("StartTime "+rowSet.getTimestamp(5)) ; } When i run above code i got error like : java.sql.SQLException: Invalid column type at oracle.jdbc.rowset.OracleCachedRowSet.getTimestamp(OracleCachedRowSet.java:4399) at test.Test.main(Test.java:102) Same thing is working fine(check below correct code) if i use ResultSet instead of OracleCachedRowSet PreparedStatement pstat = connection.prepareStatement(strQry); ResultSet rset = pstat.executeQuery(); while(rset.next()){ System.out.println("Conference name "+rset.getString(1)); System.out.println("StartTime "+rset.getTimestamp(5)) ; } Is there any way to getTimestamp() using OracleCachedRowSet

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  • Django templatetag "order of processing"

    - by Jason Persampieri
    I am trying to write a set of template tags that allow you to easily specify js and css files from within the template files themselves. Something along the lines of {% requires global.css %}, and later in the request, {% get_required_css %}. I have this mostly working, but there are a couple of issues. We'll start with the 'timing' issues. Each template tag is made up of two steps, call/init and render. Every call/init happens before any render procedure is called. In order to guarantee that all of the files are queued before the {% get_required_css %} is rendered, I need to build my list of required files in the call/init procedures themselves. So, I need to collect all of the files into one bundle per request. The context dict is obviously the place for this, but unfortunately, the call/init doesn't have access to the context variable. Is this making sense? Anyone see a way around this (without resorting to a hack-y global request object)? Another possibility to store these in a local dict but they would still need to be tied to the request somehow... possibly some sort of {% start_requires %} tag? But I have no clue how to make that work either.

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  • C# and Objects/Classes

    - by user1192890
    I have tried to compile code from Deitel's C# 2010 for programmers. I copied it exactly out of the book, but it still can't find main, even though I declared it in one of the classes. Here is a look at the two classes: For GradeBookTest: // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. public class GradeBookTest { // Main method begins program execution public static void Main(string[] args) { // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); } // end Main } // end class GradeBookTest Now for the GradeBook class: // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook That is how I copied them. Here is how they appeared in the book: 1 // Fig. 4.2: GradeBookTest.cs 2 // Create a GradeBook object and call its DisplayMessage method. 3 public class GradeBookTest 4 { 5 // Main method begins program execution 6 public static void Main( string[] args ) 7 { 8 // create a GradeBook object and assign it to myGradeBook 9 GradeBook myGradeBook = new GradeBook(); 10 11 // call myGradeBook's DisplayMessage method 12 myGradeBook.DisplayMessage(); 13 } // end Main 14 } // end class GradeBookTest and // Fig. 4.1: GradeBook.cs // Class declaration with one method. using System; public class GradeBook { // display a welcome message to the GradeBook user public void DisplayMessage() { Console.WriteLine( "Welcome to the Grade Book!" ); } // end method DisplayMessage } // end class GradeBook I don't see why they are not working. Right now I am using Visual Studio Pro 2010. Any Thoughts?

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  • jQuery/Ajax IE7 - Long requests fail

    - by iQ
    Hi guys, I have a problem with IE7 regarding an ajax call that is made by jQuery.load function. Basically the request works in cases where the URL string is not too long, but as soon as the URL gets very large it fails. Doing some debugging on the Ajax call I found this error: URL: <blanked out security reasons but it's very long> Content Type: Headers size (bytes): 0 Data size (bytes): 0 Total size (bytes): 0 Transferred data size (bytes): 0 Cached data: No Error result: 0x800c0005 Error constant: INET_E_RESOURCE_NOT_FOUND Error description: The server or proxy was not found Extended error result: 0x7a Extended error description: The data area passed to a system call is too small. As you can see, it looks like nothing is being sent. Now this only happens on IE7 but not other browsers, with IE8 there is a small delay but still works. The same request works fine when the URL string is relatively small. Now I need this working on IE7 for compatibility reasons and I cannot find workarounds for this so any help is greatly appreciated. The actual ajax call is like this: $("ID").load("url?lotsofparams",callbac func(){}); "lotsofparams" can vary, sometimes being small or very large. It's when the string is very large that I get the above error for IE7 only.

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  • [MSBuild] Problem with setting properties 's values.

    - by Nam Gi VU
    Let's consider the below example. There, I have: target MAIN call target t then call target tt. target t call target ttt, target tt call target tttt. target t define property aa, target ttt modify aa. target tttt try to print property aa 's value. in short we have: MAIN - {t - {ttt-modify aa, define aa}, tt - tttt - print aa} But in target tttt, we can't "see" aa's updated value (by ttt)! Please help me to make that value visible to target tttt. Thank you! The whole script is as below: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003" DefaultTargets="MAIN" > <Target Name="MAIN" > <CallTarget Targets="t" /> <CallTarget Targets="tt" /> </Target> <Target Name="t"> <Message Text="t" /> <PropertyGroup> <aa>1</aa> </PropertyGroup> <CallTarget Targets="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tt"> <Message Text="tt" /> <CallTarget Targets="tttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="ttt"> <PropertyGroup> <aa>122</aa> </PropertyGroup> <Message Text="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tttt"> <Message Text="tttt" /> <Message Text="tttt:$(aa)" /> </Target> </Project>

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  • Need a design approach or suggestion for a simple structure using Servlet.

    - by akshay
    Hi I have to design such that whenever user pass a query I process it using servlet and then call the js page to draw the chart 1 user writes a query on a page 2 the page call the servelt class public class MyServlet extends Httpservlet implements DataSourceServlet {..... return data The user see a beautiful string like this.. google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); 3 when the user hits on different html page myhtml.js it draws the chart. I want the Myservlet class itself call the myhtml.js page and draw the chart directly. and want to eliminate the beautiful string google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); from coming on user's browser What should i do? I tried using functions to call another page like request dispatcher(), redirect() calling myhtml.js page directly after myservlet process the query results. But i get the result like this google.visualization.Query.setResponse......... /Tiger'},{v:80.0}, {v:false}]}]}}); and the entire myhtml.js code page below it on the browsers that to without the chart been draw. Is there anyway to element the beautiful string from coming on clients browser and only show them the chart been drawn ? :) This is the small tutorial i am following http://code.google.com/apis/visualization/documentation/dev/dsl_get_started.html

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  • Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

    - by Lansen Q
    I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

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  • jquery an div tags used in a ordered list

    - by shan2on
    hello everyone, i'm not sure where my errors are lying but here is my scenario... i have an un-ordered list in html that handles my main link bar... <ul id="navlist"> <li><a href="/" id="current">home</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="search">search</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="users">login</a></li> </ul> and what i want done is to call each id and have jQuery handle each and dislpay it where specified in my css file... for now, lets just ignore my "home" link... here is a snippet of my inline jquery $(document).ready(function() { $("a").click(function () { $("div#login").slideToggle("fast"); }); }) Now, whichever div i specify, it calls that ... however it will only call one div, using either from the un-orderd list, as mentioned above in the html. My Goal is to call a search bar when search is clicked, and to call a login box when login is clicked. to my knowledge (noob), i believe use an as a class, however that is what brings me here. i believe my error is in my jquery and not my css, as stated above, either instance will be displayed when the jquery function calls either tag. any help is greatly appreciated. thanks in advance shan2on

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  • Can a second stored procedure doing the same thing finish before first one?

    - by evanmortland
    Hello, I have an audit record table that I am writing to. I am connecting to MyDb, which has a stored procedure called 'CreateAudit', which is a passthrough stored procedure to another database on the same machine called 'CreatedAudit' as well. I call the CreateAudit stored procedure from my application, using subsonic as the DAL. The first time I call it, I call it with the following (pseudocode): Result = CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") Right after that, I call: Result2 = CreateAudit(recordId, "Closed") In my second stored procedure it is supposed to mark the record that was created by the CreateAudit(recordId, "Opened") with a status of closed. It works great if I run them independently of one another, but when they run in sequence in the application, the record is not marked as "Closed". When I run SQL profiler I see that both queries ran, and if I copy the queries out and run them from query analyzer the record gets marked as closed 100% of the time! When I run it from the application, about once every 20 times or so, the record is successfully marked closed - the other 19 times nothing happens, but I do not get an error! Is it possible for the .NET app to skip over the ouput from the first stored procedure and start executing the second stored procedure before the record in the first is created? When I add a "WAITFOR DELAY '00:00:00:003'" to the top of my stored procedure, the record is also closed 100% of the time. My head is spinning, any ideas why this is happening! Thanks for any responses, very interested in hearing how this can happen.

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  • Always send certain values with an ajax request/post

    - by DZittersteyn
    I'm building a system that displays a list of user, and on selection of a user requests some form of password. These values are saved in a hidden field on the page, and need to be sent with every request as a form of authentication. (I'm aware of the MITM-vulnerability that lies herein, but it's a very low-key system, so security is not a large concern). Now I need to send these values with each and every request, to auth the currently 'logged in' user. I'd like to automate this, via ajaxSetup, however i'm running into some issues. My first try was: init_user_auth: function(){ $.ajaxSetup({ data: { 'user' : site_user.selected_user_id(), 'passcode': site_user.selected_user_pc(), 'barcode' : site_user.selected_user_bc() } }); }, However, as I should have known, this reads the values once, at the time of the call to ajaxSetup, and never rereads them. What I need is a way to actually call the functions every time an ajax-call is made. I'm currently trying to understand what is happening here: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups=#!topic/jquery-dev/OBcEfgvTJ9I, however through the flamewar and very low-level stuff going on there, I'm not exactly sure I get what is going on. Is this the way to proceed, or should I just face facts and manually add login-info to each ajax-call?

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  • simplemodal click events stopped working in IE7

    - by prettynerd
    Here's my code: $('#alertInfo').modal({ close :false, overlayId :'confirmModalOverlay', containerId :'confirmModalContainer', onShow : function(dialog) { dialog.data.find('.message').append(message); dialog.data.find('.yes').click(function(){ if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); dialog.data.find('.close').click(function(){ $.modal.close(); }); } }); Basically, this is a dialogue box which I call to show a warning message that has a "X" button (with class 'close') and an "OK" button (with class 'yes'). The problem occurs in IE7. When I call this dialogue box and use my "X" button to close it everytime, my "X" button does not work anymore on the third time I call it (YES ON THE THIRD TIME!). However, if I use my "OK" button to close the dialogue box, it works fine no matter how many times I call it. I thought I found a workaround by unbinding and binding my click event of the '.close' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.close').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.close').bind('click',function(){$.modal.close();}); and it worked!!! unfortunately, however, the problem now occurs in my "OK" button. so, i did the same unbinding and binding the click event of the '.yes' class, as below: dialog.data.find('.yes').unbind('click'); dialog.data.find('.yes').bind('click', function() { if ($.isFunction(callback)) callback.apply(); $.modal.close(); }); BUT NOPE, IT DOES NOT WORK.. please help me.. @ericmmartin, i hope you're online now.. huhu..

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  • Nested bind expressions

    - by user328543
    This is a followup question to my previous question. #include <functional> int foo(void) {return 2;} class bar { public: int operator() (void) {return 3;}; int something(int a) {return a;}; }; template <class C> auto func(C&& c) -> decltype(c()) { return c(); } template <class C> int doit(C&& c) { return c();} template <class C> void func_wrapper(C&& c) { func( std::bind(doit<C>, std::forward<C>(c)) ); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { // call with a function pointer func(foo); func_wrapper(foo); // error // call with a member function bar b; func(b); func_wrapper(b); // call with a bind expression func(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); func_wrapper(std::bind(&bar::something, b, 42)); // error // call with a lambda expression func( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); func_wrapper( [](void)->int {return 42;} ); return 0; } I'm getting a compile errors deep in the C++ headers: functional:1137: error: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘int (&)()’ from expression of type ‘int (*)()’ functional:1137: error: conversion from ‘int’ to non-scalar type ‘std::_Bind(bar, int)’ requested func_wrapper(foo) is supposed to execute func(doit(foo)). In the real code it packages the function for a thread to execute. func would the function executed by the other thread, doit sits in between to check for unhandled exceptions and to clean up. But the additional bind in func_wrapper messes things up...

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  • problems piping in node.js

    - by alvaizq
    We have the following example in node.js var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function(request, response) { var proxy = http.createClient(8083, '127.0.0.1') var proxy_request = proxy.request(request.method, request.url, request.headers); proxy_request.on('response', function (proxy_response) { proxy_response.pipe(response); response.writeHead(proxy_response.statusCode, proxy_response.headers); }); setTimeout(function(){ request.pipe(proxy_request); },3000); }).listen(8081, '127.0.0.1'); The example listen to a request in 127.0.0.1:8081 and sends it to a dummy server (always return 200 OK status code) in 127.0.0.1:8083. The problem is in the pipe among the input stream (readable) and output stream (writable) when we have a async module before (in this case the setTimeOut timing). The pipe doesn't work and nothing is sent to dummy server in 8083 port. Maybe, when we have a async call (in this case the setTimeOut) before the pipe call, the inputstream change to a state "not readable", and after the async call the pipe doesn't send anything. This is just an example...we test it with more async modules from node.js community with the same result (ldapjs, etc)... We try to fix it with: - request.readable =true; //before pipe call - request.pipe(proxy_request, {end : false}); with the same result (the pipe doesn't work). Can anybody help us? Many thanks in advanced and best regards,

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  • Get notified when UITableView has finished asking for data?

    - by kennethmac2000
    Hi everyone, Is there some way to find out when a UITableView has finished asking for data from its data source? None of the viewDidLoad/viewWillAppear/viewDidAppear methods of the associated view controller (UITableViewController) are of use here, as they all fire too early. None of them (entirely understandably) guarantee that queries to the data source have finished for the time being (eg, until the view is scrolled). One workaround I have found is to call reloadData in viewDidAppear, since, when reloadData returns, the table view is guaranteed to have finished querying the data source as much as it needs to for the time being. However, this seems rather nasty, as I assume it is causing the data source to be asked for the same information twice (once automatically, and once because of the reloadData call) when it is first loaded. The reason I want to do this at all is that I want to preserve the scroll position of the UITableView - but right down to the pixel level, not just to the nearest row. When restoring the scroll position (using scrollRectToVisible:animated:), I need the table view to already have sufficient data in it, or else the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method call does nothing (which is what happens if you place the call on its own in any of viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear or viewDidAppear). Thanks in advance for your assistance!

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  • Empty Datagrid problem in VB6

    - by Hybrid SyntaX
    Hello Recently, i encountered a problem; when I bind a recordset to datagrid ,and run the application the datagrid is not populated even though recordset has data I use the following code Option Explicit Dim conn As New ADODB.Connection Dim cmd As New ADODB.Command Dim recordset As New ADODB.recordset Private Sub InitializeConnection() Dim str As String str = _ "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" & _ "Data Source=" + App.Path + "\phonebook.mdb;" & _ "Persist Security Info=False" conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient conn.ConnectionString = str conn.Open (conn.ConnectionString) End Sub Private Sub AbandonConnection() If conn.State <> 0 Then conn.Close End If End Sub Private Sub Persons_Read() Dim qry_all As String ' qry_all = "select * from person,web,phone Where web.personid = person.id And phone.personid = person.id" qry_all = "SELECT * FROM person" Call InitializeConnection cmd.CommandText = qry_all cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set cmd.ActiveConnection = conn If conn.State = 1 Then Set recordset = cmd.Execute() End If Call BindDatagrid Call AbandonConnection End Sub Private Function Person_Add() End Function Private Function Person_Delete() End Function Private Function Person_Update() End Function Private Sub BindDatagrid() Set dg_Persons.DataSource = recordset dg_Persons.Refresh End Sub Private Sub cmd_Add_Click() Person_Add End Sub Private Sub cmd_Delete_Click() Person_Delete End Sub Private Sub cmd_Update_Click() Person_Update End Sub Private Sub Form_Load() Call Persons_Read End Sub Private Sub mnu_About_Click() frm_About.Show End Sub Thanks in advance

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