Search Results

Search found 68614 results on 2745 pages for 'full set arguments'.

Page 151/2745 | < Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >

  • How do I set the user's locale on a JSP

    - by ebynum
    I have a .jsp page that the user loads directly. The request it with a URL like the following: http://www.example.com/myfile.jsp?country=CA&language=fr In the JSP, I pull the URL GET parameters and attempt to set the locale using them as follows: <% String myLanguage = request.getParameter("language"); String myCountry = request.getParameter("country"); Locale myLocale = new Locale(myLanguage, myCountry); pageContext.setAttribute("myLocale", myLocale, PageContext.PAGE_SCOPE); %> <fmt:setLocale value="${myLocale}" scope="page" /> There are several places in the JSP that then display a message pulled from a localized resource bundle using <bean:message bundle="ts" key="..." /> from Struts. On the first request for this page (after changing the language in the URL), it is returned in US English (the default Locale), and then subsequent refreshes will return the properly localized content.

    Read the article

  • Set two classes from array

    - by Thomas
    I want to change the classes on every third output from a query: <?php $style_classes = array('box','box','box no_right_margin'); $style_index = 0; ?> I set this on the div: <div <?php $k = $style_index%4; echo "class=$style_classes[$k]"; $style_index++; ?>> On the third div I want the class to look like this: <div class="box no_right_margin"> Right now it looks like: <div class="box" no_right_margin>

    Read the article

  • How to add additional rows to result set by condition

    - by Puzzled
    I have a table like this: ObjId Date Value 100 '20100401' 12 200 '20100501' 45 200 '20100401' 37 300 '20100501' 75 300 '20100401' 69 400 '20100401' 87 I have to add additional rows to result set for objId's, where there is no data at '20100501' **100 '20100501' null** 100 '20100401' 12 200 '20100501' 45 200 '20100401' 37 300 '20100501' 75 300 '20100401' 69 **400 '20100501' null** 400 '20100401' 87 What is the best way to do this? Here is the T-SQL script for the initial table: declare @datesTable table (objId int, date smalldatetime, value int) insert @datesTable select 100, '20100401', 12 union all select 200, '20100501', 45 union all select 200, '20100401', 37 union all select 300, '20100501', 75 union all select 300, '20100401', 69 union all select 400, '20100401', 87 select * from @datesTable

    Read the article

  • How to dynamically set validation messages on properties with a class validation attribute

    - by Dan
    I'm writing Validation attribute that sits on the class but inspects the properties of the class. I want it to set a validation message on each of the properties it finds to be invalid. How do I do this? This is what I have got so far: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public class LinkedFieldValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { private readonly string[] _properiesToValidate; public LinkedFieldValidationAttribute(params string[] properiesToValidate) { _properiesToValidate = properiesToValidate; } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); foreach (var propertyName in _properiesToValidate) { var propertyValue = properties.Find(propertyName, false).GetValue(value); //if value is invalid add message from base } //return validity } }

    Read the article

  • Set Pivot Items from Cell Range? Excel 2007

    - by Ben
    I have developed code which identifies the multiple item selections from a Pivot field and writes the list of items to a table. I then wish to take this contents of the list and use it to populate a number of other Pivot Tables on other tabs. I currently have the ability to do this for single Pivot items selections, but I need to do this for multiple selections. If I select multiple items in the Pivot Table and attempt to pass these selections to the other Pivot Tables it creates an error because it sees only hte text "Multiple Items" instead of a list of each item that was checked in the upstream Pivot field. I need some VBA code that allows me to use the list to set another Pivot Field's selections. All the Pivot fields in question here are page fields. I am using Excel 2007. Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • looking for a set union find algorithm

    - by Mig
    I have thousands of lines of 1 to 100 numbers, every line define a group of numbers and a relationship among them. I need to get the sets of related numbers. Little Example: If I have this 7 lines of data T1 T2 T3 T4 T5 T6 T1 T5 T4 T3 T4 I need a not so slow algorith to know that the sets here are: T1 T2 T6 (because T1 is related with T2 in the first line and T1 related with T6 in the line 5) T3 T4 T5 (because T5 is with T4 in line 6 and T3 is with T4 in line 7) but when you have very big sets is painfully slow to do a search of a T(x) in every big set, and do unions of sets... etc. Do you have a hint to do this in a not so brute force manner? I'm trying to do this in python. Thanks

    Read the article

  • sql join question, how to select when value not in a set of values

    - by Elliott
    I have two tables, table1 and table2. Table1 is in a one to many relationship with table2 (one row in table1 maps to many rows in table2). There is a field in table2 called code. If none of the values of code in table2 equal some set of values (say 1, 2, and 3), I want to select the value in table1. I'm not sure how to write this kind of join. Assume the primary key in table1 is called id and the foreign key to which it maps is called did. Can you tell me how to write this kind of join? Thanks, Elliott

    Read the article

  • sizeToFit label voids align right / set minimum width of label

    - by Deco
    Here is my code I am using to make a label (which contains content of an unknown length) the correct height for the content. (lines is equal to 0) myLabel.text =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@", myLabelContent]; myLabel.frame = CGRectMake(myLabel.frame.origin.x, myLabel.frame.origin.y, myLabel.frame.size.width, 800); [myLabel sizeToFit]; The only problem is, it is resizing the width as well as the height. I have two labels side by side, one aligned left, one aligned right. The left aligned one works fine. However, the right aligned one becomes intended (from the right). Because of its width resize, the content always starts at the origin.x position (in effect) because the label is made to be the shortest width required. I hope that makes sense. Is there a way to override or reset the width after auto resize had solved the height problem, or set a minimum width for the label? Many Thanks in advance, Deco

    Read the article

  • Possible to set filter on subform from parent form before subform data loads

    - by tbone
    I have frmParentForm with multiple controls used to build a filter for frmSubForm. On frmParentForm_Load, I am doing (simplified example): Me.sbfInvoice_List.Form.filter = "[created_on] >= #" & Me.RecentOrderDateCutoff & "#" Me.sbfInvoice_List.Form.FilterOn = True The problem is, on initial load, it seems the subform load is occurring first, so the entire table is loaded. Is there a way (in a different event perhaps) to properly set the subform filter from the parent form so it is applied before the subform does its initial data load? (The subform can exist on its own, or as a child of many different parent forms (sometimes filtered, sometimes not), so I'd rather not put some complicated hack in the subform itself to accomplish this.)

    Read the article

  • immediate=true is set on a jsf command button but still seeing validation

    - by Zack Macomber
    I have the following command button set up in a facelet: <h:commandButton action="#{addressAction.deletePreviousAddress}" value="#{bundle['button.deleteAddress']}" styleClass="deg-form-button" immediate="true"> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{addressAction.addressActionForm.previousAddress}" value="#{address}"> </f:setPropertyActionListener> </h:commandButton> In AddressAction, the following code gets run to delete a previous address on the form: public Enum<NavigationConstants> deletePreviousAddress() { addressActionForm.getPreviousAddresses().remove(addressActionForm.getPreviousAddress()); return NavigationConstants.addresses; } Before I made the address input components "required=true", this code worked fine and removed the previous address from the jsf form successfully. Right now, I can't successfully delete a previous address because validation is occurring and stating that the input components need to be filled in on the previous address record on the form. How can I bypass this validation? I thought the "immediate=true" attribute on the command button would have accomplished it but that's not cutting it in my case...

    Read the article

  • how to set imageview in webview

    - by mohsinpathan
    I am creating runtime images. i want to set that image in to web view. Please give me a hint or document.My source code is given below CGRect pdfSize = GetPdfSize(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), initialPage, [filePath UTF8String],myTable,mainString); //UIImageView *imgV=[[UIImageView alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 598,768)]; UIImageView *imgV=[[UIImageView alloc]initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, pdfSize.size.width,pdfSize.size.height)]; UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(pdfSize.size.width,pdfSize.size.height)); MyDisplayPDFPage(UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(), initialPage, [filePath UTF8String],myTable,mainString); imgV.image=UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); imgV.image=[imgV.image rotate:UIImageOrientationDownMirrored];

    Read the article

  • How do I set permissions on a Server 2003 folder

    - by Richard210363
    Hi There, In my part time position as entire IT department at my Office ( I'm a MCSD developer normally ) I have been asked to change a shared folder. Only I don't really understand all the Shared / Security options. I have a folder that must be accessed by 2 people in the company (and no one else). They both must have read/write/edit and change access. They must be able to read/write/edit each others files; existing or newly created. Should be easy but I'm a bit overwhelemd by all the choices. What should I set? Thanks for your help richard

    Read the article

  • 2 sites each in a different country with 1 set of content (cloaking)

    - by Greg
    Hi, I have a question re: cloaking. I have a friend who has a business in Canada and the UK. Currently the .ca site is hosted on Godaddy. The co.uk domain is registered (with uk ip address) with domainmonster and is using a cloaked/framed redirect to the .ca site. As a result (my assumption) the .ca site is indexed fine by google, the .co.uk is not. The content is generic for both sites. How do I point the .co.uk site directly to the content independently (preferably without duplicating the content hosting in the UK), so that for instance if the .ca domain was taken away altogether the .co.uk domain would remain an entity in itself from Google's point of view? Does Google index a generic set of content and then associate different country domains with that content? I hope I have explained this ok. Thanks, Greg

    Read the article

  • Cannot set focus on input field in infoWindow

    - by thomas
    Hi Why is focus not set to noteTitle? I am using google maps API V3. The getNoteForm() returns a input field "noteTitle". The $("#noteTitle").focus() works fine when executed in firebug. I call this function when clicking on the map: function setNewNoteInfowindow(latlng) { if (geocoder) { geocoder.geocode({'latLng': latlng}, function(results, status) { var address = ""; if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { if (results[1]) { address = results[1].formatted_address; } } newNoteInfowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: getNoteForm(latlng, address), size: new google.maps.Size(40,50) }); newNoteInfowindow.open(map, newNoteMarker); google.maps.event.addListener(newNoteInfowindow, 'domready', function() { $("#noteTitle").focus(); }); google.maps.event.addListener(newNoteInfowindow, 'closeclick', function() { newNoteMarker.setVisible(false); }); }); } }

    Read the article

  • Get and Set a Single Cookie with Node.js HTTP Server

    - by Corey Hart
    I want to be able to set a single cookie, and read that single cookie with each request made to the nodejs server instance. Can it be done in a few lines of code, without the need to pull in a third party lib? var http = require('http'); http.createServer(function (request, response) { response.writeHead(200, {'Content-Type': 'text/plain'}); response.end('Hello World\n'); }).listen(8124); console.log('Server running at http://127.0.0.1:8124/'); Just trying to take the above code directly from nodejs.org, and work a cookie into it.

    Read the article

  • What are the arguments against the inclusion of server side scripting in JavaScript code blocks?

    - by James Wiseman
    I've been arguing for some time against embedding server-side tags in JavaScript code, but was put on the spot today by a developer who seemed unconvinced The code in question was a legacy ASP application, although this is largely unimportant as it could equally apply to ASP.NET or PHP (for example). The example in question revolved around the use of a constant that they had defined in ServerSide code. 'VB Const MY_CONST: MY_CONST = 1 If sMyVbVar = MY_CONST Then 'Do Something End If //JavaScript if (sMyJsVar === "<%= MY_CONST%>"){ //DoSomething } My standard arguments against this are: Script injection: The server-side tag could include code that can break the JavaScript code Unit testing. Harder to isolate units of code for testing Code Separation : We should keep web page technologies apart as much as possible. The reason for doing this was so that the developer did not have to define the constant in two places. They reasoned that as it was a value that they controlled, that it wasn't subject to script injection. This reduced my justification for (1) to "We're trying to keep the standards simple, and defining exception cases would confuse people" The unit testing and code separation arguments did not hold water either, as the page itself was a horrible amalgam of HTML, JavaScript, ASP.NET, CSS, XML....you name it, it was there. No code that was every going to be included in this page could possibly be unit tested. So I found myself feeling like a bit of a pedant insisting that the code was changed, given the circumstances. Are there any further arguments that might support my reasoning, or am I, in fact being a bit pedantic in this insistence?

    Read the article

  • How can I set the main theme-font dynamically, in WordPress

    - by windyjonas
    I have created a theme where I already have a custom options page where I let the user set text for footer, twitter user and some other things and that works well. Now i'd like to add the functionality of letting the user select which font that should be used for content on the site. How can i accomplish this? I can probably create a php file that outputs something like: <style type="text/css"> body{ font-family: <?php echo get_option('my-font');?>; } </style> and include that file in header.php, but that means that I have to hit php for every request for this css and I want to avoid that if posssible.

    Read the article

  • MySQL: Get only count of result set.

    - by Varun
    I am using MVC with PHP/MySQL. Suppose I am using 10 functions with different queries for fetching details from the database. But at other times I may want to get only the count of the result that will be returned by the query. What is the standard way to handle such situation. Should I write 10 more functions which duplicate almost whole query and return only the count. Or Should I always return the count also with the result set Or I can pass a flag to indicate that the function should return count only, and then based on the flag I will dynamically generate the (select part of) query. Or Is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Set class property at runtime.

    - by Lambo
    I have a problem with my code, I cannot get it the 'test' to get the values im trying to assign to it. rec = new Record(account, actual, commitment, costCentre, internalCostCentre); webservicename.singleSummary test = new webservicename.singleSummary(); test.account = rec.Account; test.actual = recc.Actual; test.commitment = rec.Commitment; test.costCentre = rec.CostCentre; test.internalCostCentre = rec.InternalCostCentre; webservicename.Feed CallWebService = new webservicename.Feed(); I am trying to get this to pop up in a dialog box to show that it is working, with something like test.account getting showed in the message box, not sure quite what the problem is. My overall problem is I am trying to set the class porpert at runtime. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to point to jdni.properties file to set properties in Java

    - by prosseek
    I can use System.getProperties() method to set properties in Java. System.getProperties().put("java.naming.factory.initial", "fr.dyade.aaa.jndi2.client.NamingContextFactory"); System.getProperties().put("java.naming.factory.host", "localhost"); System.getProperties().put("java.naming.factory.port", "16400"); How can I get the same effect by reading the properties stored in a file? When I have a jdni.properties with the following content: java.naming.factory.initial fr.dyade.aaa.jndi2.client.NamingContextFactory java.naming.factory.host localhost java.naming.factory.port 16400 How can I teach Java to read them as properties?

    Read the article

  • Set database based on how the application was started

    - by AaronThomson
    I have two Rails applications (lets call them APP-1 and APP-2), each of them has a dependancy on a third Rails application (APP-3). I would like to be able to run the tests for APP-1 and APP-2 in parallel on my CI server. The problem is, both need to start up APP-3 and write to a DB via the APP-3. This causes conflicts and failures if the tests are run in parallel. My idea for a solution is for APP-1 and APP-2 to each start their own instance of APP-3 and to have each instance point to a different DB. Is there a way to dynamically set the DB in the database.yml of APP-3 so that it connects to a different DB depending on which APP starts it up? FYI. APP-1 and APP-2 currently start APP-3 via rake tasks.

    Read the article

  • How to set initial size of a TreeViewer?

    - by Jeff
    Hello, I'm using a TreeViewer within a jface WizardPage and the initial input into the tree causes the WizardPage to grow vertically so that it can show all of the tree's values. When expanding one of the tree's values, then the vertical scrollbar works as expected. I'd like to be able to set the tree's size initially so that it is fixed and the scrollbar is already shown when the WizardPage is first drawn, but doing this isn't particularly obvious to me - the setSize method on the TreeViewer's Tree doesn't seem to do anything. Any help would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Most Efficient way to set Register to 1 or (-1)

    - by Bob
    I am taking an assembly course now, and the guy who checks our home assignments is a very pedantic old-school optimization freak. For example he deducts 10% if he sees: mov ax, 0 instead of: xor ax,ax even if it's only used once. I am not a complete beginner in assembly programing but I'm not an optimization expert, so I need your help in something (might be a very stupid question but I'll ask anyway): if I need to set a register value to 1 or (-1) is it better to use: mov ax, 1 or do something like: xor ax,ax inc ax I really need a good grade, so I'm trying to get it as optimized as possible. ( I need to optimize both time and code size)

    Read the article

  • Set NTFS Permissions with DirectorySecurity after created Active Dirctory Groups c#

    - by maverick
    Hi I am a little confused about setting NTFS Permissions to a directory after I created Active Directory Groups (both programmatically). When I created the Active Directory Objects then I have to wait a few seconds to set the NTFS Permissions. If I have not this timeout then I get sometimes an error message that the identify (active directory groupname) could not found. Is it possible that the DirectorySecurity-Class from DirectoryInfo-Class has an different algorithm to get the idenfity from active directory objects? Because when I checking the existing of the groups in active directory with System.DirectoryServices all the objects exist suddenly after creation. Kind regards

    Read the article

  • Launch x64 Windows application in C# while the project is set to x86

    - by daydr3am3r
    Hi all I'm trying to launch the osk.exe and I keep getting "Could not start osk" message. The problem is that my project is set to x86 (i'm using a ms access database). If I switch to x64 or Any CPU everything works fine but the database will no longer work. I tried this using System.Diagnostics; private void btnOSK_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Process.Start("osk.exe"); Process.Start(@"C:\windows\system32\osk.exe"); } I also tried to run SysWOWW\osk but this also didn't work. Besides my application should run on both x86 and x64 machines. Is there any way to bypass this? It's really frustrating.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158  | Next Page >