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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • Facebook IFrame Application issues for certain users

    - by Kon
    We have a strange issue with running an Facebook IFrame application (using MVC 2). When I run my app and log into Facebook, I get to the application just fine. But when my coworker does it, she gets the following error: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: Requires valid next URL. Typically this error is resolved by updating the "New Data Permissions" setting of the Facebook application. However, in this case it doesn't help. We've also tried logging in with our accounts from different computers and it seems that neither computer nor which one the MVC ASP.NET app is running from matters. The only difference is who is logged into Facebook. We've looked at our Facebook account settings, but couldn't find any obvious differences. We both have Developer access to the FB application and we both can edit its settings. However, only one of us can actually run the application without getting the above mentioned error message. Any idea what could be happening here?

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • Unknown and unreproducible crash causes App Store rejection

    - by Daniel Johnson
    After submitting our application several times, we continue to receive the following response: Thank you for submitting My App to the App Store. We've reviewed your application and determined that we cannot post this version of your iPad application to the App Store because My App is crashing on iPad running iPhone OS 3.2 and Mac OS X 10.6.2. My App crashes upon launch. Unfortunately, crash logs have not been generated. However, resigning the same build with the AdHoc entitlements and loading the build onto the device yields no such crash. After a number of attempts, the application simply does not crash as reported by the reviewer. Furthermore, the reviewer does not provide any useful logging that may have been generated by SpringBoard such as an exit status or event if it had worked properly for any other device. There are no calls to explicitly exit or quit the application in the code line and yet the application terminates on startup. What might cause an application to terminate in such a manner? Under what conditions is an application tested that might not be found under a development environment? Could it be a result of a signing issue that the submission validation system is simply unable to catch? Thanks in advance.

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  • Cocoa document-based app: Notification not always received by observer

    - by roysolay
    Hi, I hope somebody can help with my notification problem. I have a notification which looks to be set up correctly but it isn’t delivered as expected. I am developing a document based app. The delegate/ document class posts the notification when it reads from a saved file: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:self]; Logging tells me that this line is reached whenever I open a saved document. In the DrawView class, I have observers for the windowOpen notification and the bsplinePoly file open notification: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(mainWindowOpen:) name:NSWindowDidBecomeMainNotification object:nil]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(savedBspline:) name:notifyBsplinePolyOpened object:nil]; - (void) mainWindowOpen:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"Window opened"); _mainWindow = [note object]; } - (void) savedBspline:(NSNotification*) note { NSLog(@"savedBspline called"); NSLog(@"note is %@", [note name]); } The behavior is odd. When I save and close the main window and reopen it, I get the “Window opened” message but not the “savedBspline called” message. If I leave a main window open and open a previously saved session, I get the “Window opened” message and the “savedBspline called” message. I have searched online discussion and Apple DevCenter documentation but I have not seen this problem.

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  • Parameters lost on login form submitted with post in JBoss

    - by Supowski
    My login page contains two forms: one for logging in and one for signing up. Shorten like this: <form name="LoginForm" id="LoginForm" method="post" action="j_security_check" > <input type="text" name="j_username" /> <input type="text" name="j_password" /> <input type="submit" value="Sing In" /> <form> <form name="SignUpForm" id="SignUpForm" method="post" action="/homepage" > <input type="text" name="loginName" /> <input type="password" name="password1" /> <input type="password" name="password2" /> <input type="submit" value="Sing Up" /> <form> I If 'Sing Up', than values of input are lost during processing and not passed into my Servlet. It works fine with GET, but than there is password in URL, so it's not the right solution :) Similar problem has been posted to community.jboss.org, but with no response: http://community.jboss.org/message/7150#7150. I'm using JBoss 4.3eap. Any help?

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  • How can I determine PerlLogHandler performance impact?

    - by Timmy
    I want to create a custom Apache2 log handler, and the template that is found on the apache site is: #file:MyApache2/LogPerUser.pm #--------------------------- package MyApache2::LogPerUser; use strict; use warnings; use Apache2::RequestRec (); use Apache2::Connection (); use Fcntl qw(:flock); use File::Spec::Functions qw(catfile); use Apache2::Const -compile => qw(OK DECLINED); sub handler { my $r = shift; my ($username) = $r->uri =~ m|^/~([^/]+)|; return Apache2::Const::DECLINED unless defined $username; my $entry = sprintf qq(%s [%s] "%s" %d %d\n), $r->connection->remote_ip, scalar(localtime), $r->uri, $r->status, $r->bytes_sent; my $log_path = catfile Apache2::ServerUtil::server_root, "logs", "$username.log"; open my $fh, ">>$log_path" or die "can't open $log_path: $!"; flock $fh, LOCK_EX; print $fh $entry; close $fh; return Apache2::Const::OK; } 1; What is the performance cost of the flocks? Is this logging process done in parallel, or in serial with the HTTP request? In parallel the performance would not matter as much, but I wouldn't want the user to wait another split second to add something like this.

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  • Empty Postbacks on ASP.NET pages

    - by AaronLS
    We are having a problem that seems to only be a problem when accessing our websites from internal intranet machines. When logged into the domain, and accessing our websites, postbacks are not working. Basically the page behaves as if it were refreshed and nothing was changed. When logging the GETs and POSTs with an HTTP analyzer, the post is complete empty and the ContentLength is 0. It is also very sporadic, but seems to be happening fairly often. In the case where it failed, we could see that there was an extra item in the Header for the POST, it was "Authorization" and the value was the word "Negotiate " followed by a space and then a bunch of characters and two equal symbols at the end, which looked like some kind of base64 encoded value. In a case where it succeeded, this Authorization item was no in the header, but I have logged more than one successful cases to know if that is consistent. We have seen this occur only with IE8 so far, and when it occurs it is sometimes sporadic. I can close and open the browser and it will begin working sometimes, and other times it is still broken. What might be causing the postback to be empty? This means the viewstate is not sent to the server which makes the page basically broken. It seems to certainly be a client side issue, but not sure if it's not aggravated by some server settings. Thanks in advance.

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  • mysql row locking via php

    - by deezee
    I am helping a friend with a web based form that is for their business. I am trying to get it ready to handle multiple users. I have set it up so that just before the record is displayed for editing I am locking the record with the following code. $query = "START TRANSACTION;"; mysql_query($query); $query = "SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = \"$value\" FOR UPDATE;"; mysql_query($query); (okay that is greatly simplified but that is the essence of the mysql) It does not appear to be working. However, when I go directly to mysql from the command line, logging in with the same user and execute START TRANSACTION; SELECT field FROM table WHERE ID = "40" FOR UPDATE; I can effectively block the web form from accessing record "40" and get the timeout warning. I have tried using BEGIN instead of START TRANSACTION. I have tried doing SET AUTOCOMMIT=0 first and starting the transaction after locking but I cannot seem to lock the row from the PHP code. Since I can lock the row from the command line I do not think there is a problem with how the database is set up. I am really hoping that there is some simple something that I have missed in my reading. FYI, I am developing on XAMPP version 1.7.3 which has Apache 2.2.14, MySQL 5.1.41 and PHP 5.3.1. Thanks in advance. This is my first time posting but I have gleaned alot of knowledge from this site in the past.

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  • Android Cursor strange behaviour

    - by sandis
    After many houres of bug searching in a big app, I have finally tracked down the bug. This logging captures the problem: Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): "+DBresult.getInt(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(1): "+DBresult.getString(1)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): "+DBresult.getInt(4)); Log.d(TAG,"buildList, DBresult.getString(4): "+DBresult.getString(4)); The resulting output: 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(1): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(1): false 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getInt(4): 0 05-06 11:11:20.123: DEBUG/TodoList(18943): buildList, DBresult.getString(4): true There are no backgroung threads running. As you can see the problem is that '0' is interpreted as false on one occasion, and as true on another. Since I am completely lost on how this can happen, I dont know how to proceed. What could possibly result in such a behaviour? Both the columns are of the type "boolean", i.e a numeric in sqlite. Unfortunately the string returned is the correct value, while the integer is always 0. If I export the database to my computer and check it with SQlite Administrator I can see that the values are correctly set, it is only the getInt()-function that always returns 0. I know for a fact that this works in other apps I have coded, and I dont know why this has stopped working. I have tried compiling the code under 2.0, 2.0.1 and 2.1, and it always appears. I can make my app runnable again by getting boolean values like this: myBool= (DBresult.getString(0).equals("true")); but that is both ugly and not optimized. Any suggestions on what is causing this behaviour is welcome. Cheers,

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  • Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

    - by Callmeed
    We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

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  • Session variables not getting set but only in Internet Explorer and not on all machines

    - by gaoshan88
    Logging into a site I'm working on functions as expected on my local machine but fails on the remote server but ONLY in Internet Explorer. The kicker is that it works in IE locally, just not on the remote machine. What in the world could cause this? I have stepped through the code on the remote machine and can see the entered login values being checked in the database, they are found and then a login function is called. This sets two $_SESSION variables and redirects to the main admin page. However, in IE only (and not when run on local machine... this is key) the $_SESSION variables are not present by the time you get to the main admin page. var_dump($_SESSION) gives me what I expect on every browser when I am running this in my local environment and in every browser except IE 6, 7 and 8 when run on the remote server (where I get a null value as if nothing has been set for $_SESSION). This really has me stumped so any advice is appreciated. For an example... in IE, run locally, var_dump gives me: array 'Username' => string 'theusername' length=11 'UserID' => string 'somevalue' length=9 Run on the remote server (IE only... works fine in other browsers) var_dump gives me: array(0){} Code: $User = GetUser($Username, $Password); if ($User->UserID <> "") { // this works so we call Login()... Login($User); // this also works and gives expected results. on to redirect... header("Location: index.php"); // a var_dump at index.php shows that there is no session data at all in IE, remotely. } else { header("Location: login.php"); } function Login($data) { $_SESSION['Username'] = $data->Username; $_SESSION['UserID'] = $data->UserID; // a var dump here gives the expected data in every browser }

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  • Setting left/top position not working in IE

    - by Brian
    Hello, In a custom ASP.NET AJAX control, i have this to do some repositioning. var dims = Sys.UI.DomElement.getBounds(control); this.get_element().style.position = "absolute"; //Sys.UI.DomElement.setLocation(this.get_element(), dims.x, (dims.y + dims.height)); this.get_element().style.left = dims.x; this.get_element().style.top = (dims.y + dims.height); getBounds simply returns the x/y and width/height. I use this to set the left/top, but in IE, it's doubling; say the coordinates are 500, 20; when it sets this on the element, its actually setting to 1000, 40. Any ideas why? In firefox, this works correctly. this.get_element() returns the correct element and all, but it's not setting correctly, even though event logging says it's the correct coordinates. When using setLocation too, it doesn't work in either... What else in my code may be affecting it? JQuery isn't an option here too. Thanks.

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  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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  • Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

    - by François
    We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • How to develop Online Shopping Portal Application using PHP ?

    - by Sarang
    I do not know PHP & I have to develop a Shopping Portal with following Definition : Scenario: Online Shopping Portal XYZ.com wants to create an online shopping portal for managing its registered customers and their shopping. The customers need to register themselves first before they do shopping using the shopping portal. However, everyone, whether registered or not, can view the various products along with the prices listed in the portal. The registered customers, after logging in, are allowed to place order for one or more products from the products listed in the portal. Once the order is placed, the customer gets a reference order number and the order status should be “order in process”. The customers can track their order using the given reference number. The management of XYZ.com should be able to modify the order status of a particular reference order number to “shipped” once the products are shipped to the shipping address entered by the customer at the time of placing the order. The Functionalities required are : Create the interface for the XYZ.com shopping portal using HTML/XHTML and CSS. Implement the client side validations using JavaScript. Create the tables using MySQL. Implement the functionality using the server side scripting language, PHP. Integrate all the above tasks and make the XYZ.com shopping portal functional. How do I develop this application with following proper steps of development ?

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  • Adobe Air update error "file version doesn't match" but it's the same!...

    - by baroquedub
    I'm using Claus Wahlers' AIR Remote Updater class (codeazur.com.br/lab/airremoteupdater/). All works fine and an update is triggered if the remote version is newer. The newer file is downloaded and the update starts. However I then get "an error has occured" message: "This application cannot be installed because this installer has been mis-configured" (The same file will update without errors when run manually "Would you like to replace the currently installed version?" Choosing 'replace' works fine) I have enabled Air Application Installer logging and I can see that both the app id and the pub id match - this seems to be a common reason for this problem (forums.adobe.com/thread/243421?tstart=60) The error given in the log file is as follows: AIR file version doesn't match Requested version: ; AIR file version: 1.0.2 But if I unzip the new app file and look at META-INF\AIR\application.xml the version designator shows <version>1.0.2</version> As requested! The log file is also showing me where the newer file is being downloaded and unpacked. If I look at the application.xml file in that directory: Unpackaging to C:\Documents and Settings\myusername\Local Settings\Temp\fla893D.tmp the version designator also shows <version>1.0.2</version> I don't get it?! The log tells me that the requested file version doesn't match but it's exactly the same as what's shown in the version designator of the downloaded update package... This is driving me crazy. Can anyone help?

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • Accept All Cookies via HttpClient

    - by Vinay
    So this is currently how my app is set up: 1.) Login Activity. 2.) Once logged in, other activities may be fired up that use PHP scripts that require the cookies sent from logging in. I am using one HttpClient across my app to ensure that the same cookies are used, but my problem is that I am getting 2 of the 3 cookies rejected. I do not care about the validity of the cookies, but I do need them to be accepted. I tried setting the CookiePolicy, but that hasn't worked either. This is what logcat is saying: 11-26 10:33:57.613: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0] [name: cookie_user_id][value: 1][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" 11-26 10:33:57.593: WARN/ResponseProcessCookies(271): Cookie rejected: "[version: 0][name: cookie_session_id][value: 1985208971][domain: www.trackallthethings.com][path: trackallthethings][expiry: Sun Nov 25 11:33:00 CST 2012]". Illegal path attribute "trackallthethings". Path of origin: "/mobile-api/login.php" I am sure that my actual code is correct (my app still logs in correctly, just doesn't accept the aforementioned cookies), but here it is anyway: HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(//MY URL); HttpResponse response; response = Main.httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); InputStream in = entity.getContent(); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(in)); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); From here I use the StringBuilder to simply get the String of the response. Nothing fancy. I understand that the reason my cookies are being rejected is because of an "Illegal path attribute" (I am running a script at /mobile-api/login.php whereas the cookie will return with a path of just "/" for trackallthethings), but I would like to accept the cookies anyhow. Is there a way to do this?

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  • NSTask Tail -f Using objective C

    - by Bach
    I need to read the last added line to a log file, in realtime, and capture that line being added. Something similar to Tail -f. So my first attempt was to use Tail -f using NSTask. I can't see any output using the code below: NSTask *server = [[NSTask alloc] init]; [server setLaunchPath:@"/usr/bin/tail"]; [server setArguments:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"-f", @"/path/to/my/LogFile.txt",nil]]; NSPipe *outputPipe = [NSPipe pipe]; [server setStandardInput:[NSPipe pipe]]; [server setStandardOutput:outputPipe]; [server launch]; [server waitUntilExit]; [server release]; NSData *outputData = [[outputPipe fileHandleForReading] readDataToEndOfFile]; NSString *outputString = [[[NSString alloc] initWithData:outputData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding] autorelease]; NSLog (@"Output \n%@", outputString); I can see the output as expected when using: [server setLaunchPath:@"/bin/ls"]; How can i capture the output of that tail NSTask? Is there any alternative to this method, where I can open a stream to file and each time a line is added, output it on screen? (basic logging functionality)

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  • Android - How can I upload a txt file to a website?

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I want to upload a txt file to a website, I'll admit I haven't looked into it in any great detail but I have looked at a few examples and would like more experienced opinions on whether I'm going in the right direction. Here is what I have so far: DefaultHttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpContext localContext = new BasicHttpContext(); private String ret; HttpResponse response = null; HttpPost httpPost = null; public String postPage(String url, String data, boolean returnAddr) { ret = null; httpClient.getParams().setParameter(ClientPNames.COOKIE_POLICY, CookiePolicy.RFC_2109); httpPost = new HttpPost(url); response = null; StringEntity tmp = null; try { tmp = new StringEntity(data,"UTF-8"); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : UnsupportedEncodingException : "+e); } httpPost.setEntity(tmp); try { response = httpClient.execute(httpPost,localContext); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : ClientProtocolException : "+e); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("HTTPHelp : IOException : "+e); } ret = response.getStatusLine().toString(); return ret; } And I call it as follows: postPage("http://www.testwebsite.com", "data/data/com.testxmlpost.xml/files/logging.txt", true)); I want to be able to upload a file from the device to a website. But when trying this way I get the following response back. HTTP/1.1 405 Method Not Allowed Am I trying the correct way or should I be doing it another way?

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  • NHibernate + Fluent long startup time

    - by PaRa
    Hi all, am new to NHibernate. When performing below test took 11.2 seconds (debug mode) i am seeing this large startup time in all my tests (basically creating the first session takes a tone of time) setup = Windows 2003 SP2 / Oracle10gR2 latest CPU / ODP.net 2.111.7.20 / FNH 1.0.0.636 / NHibernate 2.1.2.4000 / NUnit 2.5.2.9222 / VS2008 SP1 using System; using System.Collections; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; using System.IO; using System.Text; using System.Data; using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Data.Common; using NHibernate; using log4net.Config; using System.Configuration; using FluentNHibernate; [Test()] public void GetEmailById() { Email result; using (EmailRepository repository = new EmailRepository()) { results = repository.GetById(1111); } Assert.IsTrue(results != null); } public class EmailRepository : RepositoryBase { public EmailRepository():base() { } } In my RepositoryBase public T GetById(object id) { using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { T returnVal = session.Get(id); transaction.Commit(); return returnVal; } catch (HibernateException ex) { // Logging here transaction.Rollback(); return null; } } } The query time is very small. The resulting entity is really small. Subsequent queries are fine. Its seems to be getting the first session started. Has anyone else seen something similar?

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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  • Single website multiple connection strings using asp mvc 2 and nhibernate

    - by jjjjj
    Hi In my website i use ASP MVC 2 + Fluent NHibernate as orm, StructureMap for IoC container. There are several databases with identical metadata(and so entities and mappings are the same). On LogOn page user fiils in login, password, rememberme and chooses his server from dropdownlist (in fact he chooses database). Web.config contains all connstrings and we can assume that they won't be changed in run-time. I suppose that it is required to have one session factory per database. Before using multiple databases, i loaded classes to my StructureMap ObjectFactory in Application_Start ObjectFactory.Initialize(init => init.AddRegistry<ObjectRegistry>()); ObjectFactory.Configure(conf => conf.AddRegistry<NhibernateRegistry>()); NhibernateRegistry class: public class NhibernateRegistry : Registry { public NhibernateRegistry() { var sessionFactory = NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); For<Configuration>().Singleton().Use( NhibernateConfiguration.Configuration); For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(sessionFactory); For<ISession>().HybridHttpOrThreadLocalScoped().Use( ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().GetCurrentSession()); } } In Application_BeginRequest i bind opened nhibernate session to asp session(nhibernate session per request) and in EndRequest i unbind them: protected void Application_BeginRequest( object sender, EventArgs e) { CurrentSessionContext.Bind(ObjectFactory.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); } Q1: How can i realize what SessionFactory should i use according to authenticated user? is it something like UserData filled with database name (i use simple FormsAuthentication) For logging i use log4net, namely AdoNetAppender which contains connectionString(in xml, of course). Q2: How can i manage multiple connection strings for this database appender, so logs would be written to current database? I have no idea how to do that except changing xml all the time and reseting xml configuration, but its really bad solution.

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