Search Results

Search found 5105 results on 205 pages for 'words'.

Page 156/205 | < Previous Page | 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163  | Next Page >

  • Adding a UINavigationController as a subview of UIView

    - by eagle
    I'm trying to display a UILabel on top of a UINavigationController. The problem is that when I add the UILabel as a subview of UIWindow it will not automatically rotate since it is not a subview of UIViewController (UIViewController automatically handles updating subviews during rotations). This is the hierarchy I was using: UIWindow UILabel UINavigationController So I was thinking I could use the following hierarchy: UIWindow UIViewController UIView UILabel UINavigationController This way the label could be displayed on top of the UINavigationController's bar while also automatically being rotated since it is a subview of UIViewController. The problem is that when I try adding a UINavigationController as a subview of a view: [myViewController.view addSubview:myNavigationController.view]; it will appear 20 pixels downwards. Which I'm guessing is because it thinks it needs to make room for the status bar. But, since the UINavigationController is being placed inside a UIView which does not overlay on top of the status bar, it is incorrectly adding an additional 20 pixels. In other words, the top of the UINavigationBar is at the screen's 40 pixel mark instead of at 20 pixels. Is there any easy way to just shift the UINavigationController and all of its elements (e.g. navigation bar, tool bar, root view controller) up 20 pixels? Or to let it know that it shouldn't compensate for a status bar? If not, I guess I would need to use my first hierarchy mentioned above and figure out how to rotate the label so it is consistent with the navigation bar's rotation. Where can I find more information on how to do this? Note: by "displaying a label on top of the navigation bar", I mean it should overlay on top of the navigation bar... it can't simply be wrapped in a bar button item and placed as one of the items of the navigation bar.

    Read the article

  • Stdin to powershell script

    - by Stefan
    I have a service running that can invoke an external process to modify a text stream before it is returned to the service. The text stream is handed from the service to the external process on stdout and the modified result is read from the service on stdin. The external process (command) can in other words be used as a text "filter". I would like to use a powershell script to modify the text stream. I can successfully launch a script from the service on win 2008r2 using the command "powershell -executionpolicy bypass -noninteractive ./myscript.ps1". I can make the script return text to the service on stdout using the write-host cmdlet. My problem is that I can't find a way to read the text on stdin in the script. Read-host doesn't seem to work as it requires an interactive shell. I would like to avoid writing the stdout from the service to a tmp file and read that file in the script as the service is multithreaded (can launch more than one external command at a time) and tmp file management (locking, unique filenames etc) is not desired. Is this possible or should I use for example Perl for this? Powershell seems compelling as it is preinstalled on all my win 2008 machines.

    Read the article

  • $facebook->getSession() returns null in the example code. is that ok?

    - by Toto
    Running the example code for the Facebook API I get a null session object, and I should get a non-null object giving the comment in the code. What am I doing wrong? In other words, in my index.php this fragment from the example code shows "no session" when I go to http://apps.facebook.com/my_app in my browser: <?php require './facebook.php'; // Create our Application instance. $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => '...', // actual value replaced by '...' for this post 'secret' => '...', // actual value replaced by '...' for the post 'cookie' => true, )); // We may or may not have this data based on a $_GET or $_COOKIE based session. // // If we get a session here, it means we found a correctly signed session using // the Application Secret only Facebook and the Application know. We dont know // if it is still valid until we make an API call using the session. A session // can become invalid if it has already expired (should not be getting the // session back in this case) or if the user logged out of Facebook. $session = $facebook->getSession(); if ($session) { echo "session ok"; } else { echo "no session"; } ?> Note: in my server index.php and facebook.php are in the same folder.

    Read the article

  • Can I set a <probing> privatePath in ~/subdir/web.config without access to the root application .con

    - by Bago
    In ASP.NET, is it possible to set a path from a web.config in a subdir that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, can I reference a private assembly in the ~/subdir/bin folder? Take a look at my setup below, and let me know if I'm doing something wrong, please. Let me explain why I'm doing this: my page is setup in ~/subdir. I don't have write access to the root. I only have FTP access to the server (i.e., I am not an IIS admin and I can't login to the machine) I am trying to use FCKeditor in my subdir application Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *FredCK.FCKeditorV2.dll | | *Default.aspx | | *web.config Here is the <runtime> section of ~/subdir/web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="subdir;subdir/bin" /> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> I've tried all sorts of things to get to work. However, upon checking the Fusion logs, my subdir never shows up in the probing paths.

    Read the article

  • Java RegEx API "Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index ..."

    - by Foo Inc
    Hello, I'm on to some SQL where clause parsing and designed a working RegEx to find a column outside string literals using "Rad Software Regular Expression Desginer" which is using the .NET API. To make sure the designed RegEx works with Java too, I tested it by using the API of course (1.5 and 1.6). But guess what, it won't work. I got the message "Look-behind group does not have an obvious maximum length near index 28". The string that I'm trying to get parsed is Column_1='test''the''stuff''all''day''long' AND Column_2='000' AND TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = 'Column_1=''test''''the''''stuff''''all''''day''''long'' AND Column_2=''000'' AND TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = '' TheVeryColumnIWantToFind = '' AND (Column_3 is null or Column_3 = ''Not interesting'') AND ''1'' = ''1''' AND (Column_3 is null or Column_3 = 'Still not interesting') AND '1' = '1' As you may have guessed, I tried to create some kind of worst case to ensure the RegEx won't fail on more complicated SQL where clauses. The RegEx itself looks like this (?i:(?<!=\s*'(?:[^']|(?:''))*)((?<=\s*)TheVeryColumnIWantToFind(?=(?:\s+|=)))) I'm not sure if there is a more elegant RegEx (there'll most likely be one), but that's not important right now as it does the trick. To explain the RegEx in a few words: If it finds the column I'm after, it does a negative look-behind to figure out if the column name is used in a string literal. If so, it won't match. If not, it'll match. Back to the question. As I mentioned before, it won't work with Java. What will work and result in what I want? I found out, that Java does not seem to support unlimited look-behinds but still I couldn't get it to work. Isn't it right that a look-behind is always putting a limit up on itself from the search offset to the current search position? So it would result in something like "position - offset"?

    Read the article

  • X509 Certificates, DigitalSignature vs NonRepudiation (C#)

    - by Eyvind
    We have been handed a set of test sertificates on smart cards for developing a solution that requires XML messages to be signed using PKI. Each (physical) smart card seems to have two certificates stored on it. I import them into the Windows certificate store using software supplied by the smart card provider, and then use code resembling the following to iterate over the installed certificates: foreach (X509Certificate2 x509 in CertStore.Certificates) { foreach (X509Extension extension in x509.Extensions) { if (extension.Oid.Value == "one we are interested in") { X509KeyUsageExtension ext = (X509KeyUsageExtension)extension; if ((ext.KeyUsages & X509KeyUsageFlags.DigitalSignature) != X509KeyUsageFlags.None) { // process certs here We have been told to use the certificates that have the NonRepudiation key usage flag set to sign the XMLs. However, the certificate that has the NonRepudiation flag has this flag only, and not for instance the DigitalSignature flag which I check for above. Does this strike anyone but me as slightly odd? I am in other words told to sign with a certificate that does not (appear to) have the DigitalSignature usage flag set. Is this normal procedure? Any comments? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I install asp.net mvc 2 on IIS7?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have developed an ASP.NET MVC 2 website, and now need to deploy it to my web server. I've overcome some hurdles already, since ASP.NET was not installed etc. but I've now got to the point where I can serve up plain content files, and if I try to hit one of my MVC URLs I get this: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. Not surprising, that, as I've not installed MVC2. Problem is, I can't find any good information about how to install it! The Microsoft Download Center lists 3 files, none of which look promising: ASP.NET-MVC-2-RTM-Release-Notes.doc AspNetMVC2_VS2008.exe mvc2-ms-pl.zip The site doesn't bother to explain what the files actually are, but I assume that the last file is the source code. That's what it looks like, anyway. The release notes are no help whatsoever, since they're all about installing on your development machine, and indeed the name of the EXE makes it clear that that's all about Visual Studio integration too. So how do I actually deploy the darn thing? The other option linked to from Scott Gu's blog is the Microsoft Web Platform Installer. Now, I don't want to install more than just MVC2, and I already have IIS etc. set up, so this seems a bit heavy. But it's all academic, as it refuses to run on my server, saying "your system is not supported" or words to that effect. (The server is Windows Server 2008 Standard SP2, so I really don't know what it's problem is). Help! [It's ridiculous that this should be so hard - or perhaps not hard at all, but certainly a well-kept secret!]

    Read the article

  • Log in/out of Gmail chat programmatically, clicking Gmail's span "links"

    - by endolith
    At work, I use Gmail's chat, since it's encrypted and logs chats without installing or saving anything to the hard drive. At home, I use Pidgin. When I log into GMail at home, I have to log out of chat, or messages will end up in the wrong place. When I log into GMail at work, I have to log back in to chat. In other words, when I start Firefox at home, I want Gmail's chat disabled automatically. When I start Firefox at work, I want Gmail's chat enabled automatically. Is there a way to use a Greasemonkey script or similar to force logging in and logging out on specific machines? It would seem simple enough; just follow a URL or simulate clicking a link. Unfortunately, Gmail doesn't use actual links. While logged out: <span tabindex="0" role="link" action="si" class="az9OKd">Sign into chat</span> While logged in, in drop-down menu: <div tabindex="-1" id=":1mj" role="menuitem" class="oA" value="si"><div class="uQ c6"/>Sign into chat</div> <div tabindex="-1" id=":8f" role="menuitem" class="oA" value="sia"><div class="uQ c5"/>Sign into AIM®</div> <div tabindex="-1" id=":8e" role="menuitem" class="oA" value="so"><div class="uQ df"/>Sign out of chat</div> At bottom of page: <span id=":im" class="l8 ou" tabindex="0" role="link">turn off chat</span> <span id=":im" class="l8 ou" tabindex="0" role="link">turn on chat</span> Anyone know how to "click" these non-links with JavaScript or access their functions? I would imagine that "so" means "sign out", "si" means "sign in", and "sia" means "sign in AIM". Can I somehow call these actions directly? Is there some other alternative for disabling chat?

    Read the article

  • DDD/NHibernate Use of Aggregate root and impact on web design - ex. Editing children of aggregate ro

    - by pbrophy
    Hopefully, this fictitious example will illustrate my problem: Suppose you are writing a system which tracks complaints for a software product, as well as many other attributes about the product. In this case the SoftwareProduct is our aggregate root and Complaints are entities that only can exist as a child of the product. In other words, if the software product is removed from the system, so shall the complaints. In the system, there is a dashboard like web page which displays many different aspects of a single SoftwareProduct. One section in the dashboard, displays a list of Complaints in a grid like fashion, showing only some very high level information for each complaint. When an admin type user chooses one of these complaints, they are directed to an edit screen which allows them to edit the detail of a single Complaint. The question is: what is the best way for the edit screen to retrieve the single Complaint, so that it can be displayed for editing purposes? Keep in mind we have already established the SoftwareProduct as an aggregate root, therefore direct access to a Complaint should not be allowed. Also, the system is using NHibernate, so eager loading is an option, but my understanding is that even if a single Complaint is eager loaded via the SoftwareProduct, as soon as the Complaints collection is accessed the rest of the collection is loaded. So, how do you get the single Complaint through the SoftwareProduct without incurring the overhead of loading the entire Complaints collection?

    Read the article

  • How to share session cookies between Internet Explorer and an ActiveX components hosted in a webpage

    - by jerem
    I am currently working on a .Net application which makes HTTP requests to some web applications hosted on a IIS server. The application is deployed through ClickOnce and is working fine on simple networks architectures. One of our customers has a very complex network involving a custom authentication server on which the user has first to log himself in order to be authenticated and get access to other applications on this network. Once authenticated on this server, a session cookie is created and sent to the user. Every time the user then makes a request on a secured server of the network, this cookie is checked to grant access to the user. If this cookie is not sent with the request, the user is redirected to the login page. The only browser used is Internet Explorer. This cookie cannot be accessed from our .net application since it is executed in another process than the Internet Explorer process which was used to log the user in, and thus is not sent with our requests, which cannot be completed since the server redirects every of our requests to the login page. I had a look at embedding my application into Internet Explorer by making the main control COM visible and creating it on an HTML page with an tag. It is working properly, however the sessions cookies set earlier in the browser are not sent when the ActiveX control makes web requests. I was hoping this sharing of the session information would be automatic (although I didn't really believe it). So my questions are : Is it possible to have access to this cookie in the embedded ActiveX? How? Does it make a difference to use a .Net COM-interop component instead of a "true" ActiveX control? Also, are there specific security words to describe this kind of behaviors (given that I am not an expert at all on security topics, this lack of proper terminology makes it a lot harder to find the needed resources)? My goal is to have my application's requests look the same from the requests made by the host browser's requests, and I thought that embedding the application as an ActiveX control into the browser was the only way to achieve this, however any suggestion on another to do this is welcome.

    Read the article

  • Using JavaScript/jQuery to return a list of CSS selectors based on highlighted text

    - by Bungle
    I've been given some project requirements that involve (ideally) returning a list of CSS selectors based on highlighted text. In other words, a user could do something like this on a page: Click a button to indicate that their next text selection should be recorded. Highlight some text on the page. See a generated list of CSS selectors that correspond to all the elements that contain the highlighted text. Firstly, does this seem like a feasible goal? jQuery makes it easy to use a selector to access a particular element, but I'm not sure if the reverse holds true. If an element lacks an id attribute, I also don't know how you'd return an "optimized" selector - i.e., one that identifies an element uniquely. Maybe crawl up the DOM until you find an ID, then stem the selector from there? Secondly, from a high-level perspective, any ideas on how to go about this? Any tips or tricks that could speed development? I very much appreciate any help. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Spring 3 DI using generic DAO interface

    - by Peders
    I'm trying to use @Autowired annotation with my generic Dao interface like this: public interface DaoContainer<E extends DomainObject> { public int numberOfItems(); // Other methods omitted for brevity } I use this interface in my Controller in following fashion: @Configurable public class HelloWorld { @Autowired private DaoContainer<Notification> notificationContainer; @Autowired private DaoContainer<User> userContainer; // Implementation omitted for brevity } I've configured my application context with following configuration <context:spring-configured /> <context:component-scan base-package="com.organization.sample"> <context:exclude-filter expression="org.springframework.stereotype.Controller" type="annotation" /> </context:component-scan> <tx:annotation-driven /> This works only partially, since Spring creates and injects only one instance of my DaoContainer, namely DaoContainer. In other words, if I ask userContainer.numberOfItems(); I get the number of notificationContainer.numberOfItems() I've tried to use strongly typed interfaces to mark the correct implementation like this: public interface NotificationContainer extends DaoContainer<Notification> { } public interface UserContainer extends DaoContainer<User> { } And then used these interfaces like this: @Configurable public class HelloWorld { @Autowired private NotificationContainer notificationContainer; @Autowired private UserContainer userContainer; // Implementation omitted... } Sadly this fails to BeanCreationException: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Could not autowire field: private com.organization.sample.dao.NotificationContainer com.organization.sample.HelloWorld.notificationContainer; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type [com.organization.sample.NotificationContainer] found for dependency: expected at least 1 bean which qualifies as autowire candidate for this dependency. Dependency annotations: {@org.springframework.beans.factory.annotation.Autowired(required=true)} Now, I'm a little confused how should I proceed or is using multiple Dao's even possible. Any help would be greatly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • Does anyone use Fortify 360 with Classic ASP? a Header Manipulation vulnerability story

    - by j_green71
    Good morning, everyone. I'm on a short-term contracting gig, trying to patch some vulnerabilities in their legacy code. The application I'm working on is a combination of Classic ASP(VBScript) and .Net 2.0 (C#). One of the tools they have purchased is Fortify 360. Let's say that this is a current classic ASP page in the application: <%@ Language=VBScript %> <% Dim var var = Request.QueryString("var") ' do stuff Response.Redirect "nextpage.asp?var=" & var %> I know, I know, short and very dangerous. So we wrote some (en/de)coders and validation/verification routines: <%@ Language=VBScript %> <% Dim var var = Decode(Request.QueryString("var")) ' do stuff if isValid(var) then Response.Redirect "nextpage.asp?var=" & Encode(var) else 'throw error page end if %> And still Fortify flags this as vulnerable to Header Manipulation. How or what exactly is Fortify looking for? The reason I suspect that Fortify is looking for specific key words is that on the .Net side of things, I can include the Microsoft AntiXss assembly and call functions such as GetSafeHtmlFragment and UrlEncode and Fortify is happy. Any advice?

    Read the article

  • Workflow for academic research projects, one-step builds, and the Joel Test

    - by Steve
    Working alone on academic research sometimes breeds bad habits. With no one else reading my code, I would write a lot of throw-away code, and I would lose track of intermediate results which, weeks or months later, I wish I had retained. My recent attempts to make my personal workflow conform to the Joel Test raised interesting questions. Academic research has inherently different goals than industrial software development, and therefore some aspects of the Joel Test become less valid. Nevertheless, I find these steps to be still valuable for academic research: Do you use source control? Can you make a build in one step? Do you have an up-to-date schedule? Do you have a spec? Of particular use is the one-step build. I find myself more organized now that I have implemented the following "one-step build": In other words, I have a single script, build.py, that accepts Python code, data, and TeX as inputs. The outputs are results, figures, and a paper with all the results filled in. (Yes, I know "build" is probably not accurate in this context, but you get the idea.) By consolidating many small steps into one, I am not backtracking as much as I used to. ...but I'm sure there is still room for improvement. Question: For research projects, which steps of the Joel Test do you still value? Do you have a one-step build? If so, what does yours consist of, i.e., what inputs does it accept, and what output does it generate?

    Read the article

  • Explicit casting doesn't work in default model binding

    - by Felix
    I am using ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework. I am going to simplify the situation a little; hopefully it will make it clearer, not more confusing! I have a controller action to create address, and the country is a lookup table (in other words, there is a one-to-many relationship between Country and Address classes). Let's say for clarity that the field in the Address class is called Address.Land. And, for the purposes of the dropdown list, I am getting Country.CountryID and Country.Name. I am aware of Model vs. Input validation. So, if I call the dropdown field formLand - I can make it work. But if I call the field Land (that is, matching the variable in Address class) - I am getting the following error: "The parameter conversion from type 'System.String' to type 'App.Country' failed because no type converter can convert between these types." OK, this makes sense. A string (CountryID) comes from the form and the binder doesn't know how to convert it to Country type. So, I wrote the converter: namespace App { public partial class Country { public static explicit operator Country(string countryID) { AppEntities context = new AppEntities(); Country country = (Country) context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("AppEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } } } FWIW, I tried both explicit and implicit. I tested it from the controller - Country c = (Country)"fr" - and it works fine. However, it never got invoked when the View is posted. I am getting the same "no type converter" error in the model. Any ideas how to hint to the model binder that there is a type converter? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Extjs - Dynamically generate fields in a FormPanel

    - by Benjamin
    Hi all, I've got a script that generates a form panel: var form = new Ext.FormPanel({ id: 'form-exploit-zombie-'+zombie_ip, formId: 'form-exploit-zombie-'+zombie_ip, border: false, labelWidth: 75, formBind: true, defaultType: 'textfield', url: '/ui/modules/exploit/new', autoHeight: true, buttons:[{ text: 'Execute exploit', handler: function() { var form = Ext.getCmp('form-exploit-zombie-'+zombie_ip); form.getForm().submit({ waitMsg: 'Running exploit ...', success: function() { Ext.beef.msg('Yeh!', 'Exploit sent to the zombie.') }, failure: function() { Ext.beef.msg('Ehhh!', 'An error occured while trying to send the exploit.') } }); } }] }); that same scripts then retrieves a json file from my server which defines how many input fields that form should contain. The script then adds those fields to the form: Ext.each(inputs, function(input) { var input_name; var input_type = 'TextField'; var input_definition = new Array(); if(typeof input == 'string') { input_name = input; var field = new Ext.form.TextField({ id: 'form-zombie-'+zombie_ip+'-field-'+input_name, fieldLabel: input_name, name: 'txt_'+input_name, width: 175, allowBlank:false }); form.add(field); } else if(typeof input == 'object') { //input_name = array_key(input); for(definition in input) { if(typeof definition == 'string') { } } } else { return; } }); Finally, the form is added to the appropriate panel in my interface: panel.add(form); panel.doLayout(); The problem I have is: when I submit the form by clicking on the button, the http request sent to my server does not contain the fields added to the form. In other words, I'm not posting those fields to the server. Anyone knows why and how I could fix that? Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • How to start an iPhone 3.1.3 project in Xcode 3.2.3 (iPhone SDK 4 beta)

    - by Zordid
    Hi there! I am having big problems since I downloaded the beta version of iPhone SDK 4.0. Okay, I just started to look at iPhone development a few weeks ago, but I cannot figure out how Xcode is supposed to work: whenever I start a new project, I choose a template like "View-based application" or so. Now, the target will always (at least I did not find a preference anywhere!) be the latest SDK: 4.0. But then: switching the target back to, say, 3.1.3 the template files seem to contain errors! Starting an empty application this way yields an exception: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSUnknownKeyException', reason: [...] this class is not key value coding-compliant for the key rootViewController sick Now, my (stupid) question: How do I develop an application NOT targeting the latest SDK, but the standard 3.1.3 SDK?? In other words: I would expect Xcode not only to ask for a project type in the New Project window, but also for my desired target!! Am I right that the templates generated with this step are not valid for any other target than 4.0? How can that be?? ...I want my Eclipse back! sigh Can anybody help me please?

    Read the article

  • Usinng svnadmin dump to revert the latest revision committed

    - by Wux
    What I need is that the latest (mistake) revision being reverted and that the repository does not store it in anyway. That is, I'm trying to erase the latest revision out of existence, NOT trying to fix things by coming back to the latest-1 revision. In other words, I want to avoid the repository growing in size. Suppose head revision is 100. I knew that the suggested answer is that svnadmin dump -r0:80 old-repo | svnadmin load --force-uuid new-repo. What I'm confusing myself about is why not svnadmin dump -r81:100 old-repo Why the first and not the second solution? I suppose svnadmin dump will erase the repository completely? And keeping only revision 0 - 80 in a dump file? Is my understanding of "taking a part out of the repository into a dump file" about svnadmin dump completely wrong? (That is revision 81 - 100 is still there) Sincere apologies if this has been asked. I did spend some time searching though no specific things about this were found. A topic link in case I miss it would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • When good programmers go bad!

    - by Ed Bloom
    Hi, I'm a team lead/dev who manages a team of 10 programmers. Most of them are hard working talented guys. But of late, I've got this one person who while highly talented and has delivered great work for me in the past, has just become completely unreliable. It's not his ability - that is not in question - he's proven that many times. He just looks bored now. Is blatantly not doing much work (despite a LOT of pressure being put on the team to meet tight deadlines etc.) He just doesn't seem to care and looks bored. I'm partially guilty for not having addressed this before now - I was afraid to have to lose a talented guy given the workload I've got on. But at this stage it's becoming a problem and affecting those around him. Can anyone spare their thoughts or words of wisdom on how I should go about dealing this. I want the talented AND motivated guy back. Otherwise he's gonna have to go. Thanks, Ed

    Read the article

  • jQuery slideToggle() Internet Explorer problem and jumpy animation

    - by UtothaX
    Hey yaa! I have a big problem with my jquery. I finally made it that my slidetoggle runs in firefox. The animation is a little bit jumpy in the end of the animation. I read a lot of workarounds, but somehow nothing helped me really. Perhaps anyone of you can rescue me out of this dilemma. The other bigger problem is that the hidden divs are unfortunately shown directly on start in internet explorer. I tested it in IE6&7. And the sliding effect is also very strange. Does anyone of you know if I have to give additional styling for IE??? Here is my site I am working on: http://www.haus-plan.de/%5F01%5FHausplan/ the red titles are slideable in the content area and the two Slide words on the right panel. I noticed that Internet Explorer runs the first Slide word on the right panel correctly. Here its div is first hidden and only shows up when we click and let it slide down. But for the other divs they are shown in the beginning which is very sh..... Please help meee....

    Read the article

  • C++ smart pointers: sharing pointers vs. sharing data

    - by Eli Bendersky
    In this insightful article, one of the Qt programmers tries to explain the different kinds of smart pointers Qt implements. In the beginning, he makes a distinction between sharing data and sharing the pointers themselves: First, let’s get one thing straight: there’s a difference between sharing pointers and sharing data. When you share pointers, the value of the pointer and its lifetime is protected by the smart pointer class. In other words, the pointer is the invariant. However, the object that the pointer is pointing to is completely outside its control. We don’t know if the object is copiable or not, if it’s assignable or not. Now, sharing of data involves the smart pointer class knowing something about the data being shared. In fact, the whole point is that the data is being shared and we don’t care how. The fact that pointers are being used to share the data is irrelevant at this point. For example, you don’t really care how Qt tool classes are implicitly shared, do you? What matters to you is that they are shared (thus reducing memory consumption) and that they work as if they weren’t. Frankly, I just don't undersand this explanation. There was a clarification plea in the article comments, but I didn't find the author's explanation sufficient. If you do understand this, please explain. What is this distinction, and how are other shared pointer classes (i.e. from boost or the new C++ standards) fit into this taxonomy? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • C#: How to force "calling" a method from the main thread by signaling in some way from another thread

    - by Fire-Dragon-DoL
    Sorry for long title, I don't know even the way on how to express the question I'm using a library which run a callback from a different context from the main thread (is a C Library), I created the callback in C# and when gets called I would like to just raise an event. However because I don't know what will be inside the event, I would like to find a way to invoke the method without the problem of locks and so on (otherwise the third party user will have to handle this inside the event, very ugly) Are there any way to do this? I can be totally on the wrong way but I'm thinking about winforms way to handle different threads (the .Invoke thing) Otherwise I can send a message to the message loop of the window, but I don't know a lot about message passing and if I can send "custom" messages like this Example: private uint lgLcdOnConfigureCB(int connection, System.IntPtr pContext) { OnConfigure(EventArgs.Empty); return 0U; } this callback is called from another program which I don't have control over, I would like to run OnConfigure method in the main thread (the one that handles my winform), how to do it? Or in other words, I would like to run OnConfigure without the need of thinking about locks

    Read the article

  • Using IOC in a remoting scenario

    - by Christoph
    I'm struggling with getting IOC to work in a remoting scenario. I have my application server set up to publish Services (SingleCall) which are configured via XML. This works just like this as we all know: RemotingConfiguration.Configure(ConfigFile, true); lets say my service looks like that (pseudocode) public class TourService : ITourService { IRepository _repository; public TourService() { _repository = new SqlServerRepository(); } } But what I rather would like to have sure looks like this: public class TourService : ITourService { IRepository _repository; public TourService(IRepository repository) { _repository = repository; } } On the client side we do something like that (pseudocode again): (ITourService)Activator.GetObject(ITourService, tcp://server/uri); This prompts the server to create a new instance of my TourService class... However this doesn't seem to work out well because the .NET Remoting Infrastructure want's to know the type it should publish but I would rather like to point it to the way how it could retrieve the object it should publish. In other words, route it through the IOC process pipe of - let's say windsor castle - for example. Currently I'm a bit lost on that task...

    Read the article

  • Win32: What is the status of chunked encoding support in WinHttpReadData?

    - by Cheeso
    The documentation for WinHttpReadData says, regarding HTTP's chunked transfer coding: Starting in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008, WinHttp enables applications to perform chunked transfer encoding on data sent to the server. When the Transfer-Encoding header is present on the WinHttp response, WinHttpReadData strips the chunking information before giving the data to the application. Can anyone decipher this? Q1 First, this text is on the page for WinHttpReadData, which is used to ... read data within an HTTP client application, specifically the response data. So what does it mean when it says Starting in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008, WinHttp enables applications to perform chunked transfer encoding on data sent to the server. The WinHttpReadData function isn't used with data being sent to the server. It is used when reading data from the server. Consulting the doc for the WinHttpWriteData function, which is used to send data to the server as part of an HTTP request, there is no mention of the chunked transfer capability. Q2 Supposing that I figure out just what the newish chunked transfer support amounts to, how do I get that support? It says that it is new on Vista and WS2008. What happens if I write an app that runs on WS2003, and uses WinHttpReadData and it encounters a chunked response, or WinHttpWriteData, and it wants to send a chunked request? Between the lines, is this documentation saying that I need to link against the Vista-era Windows SDK, or later, in order to get the capability to do chunked encoding? Or is it really impossible on WS2003?, in other words it is the case that the app doing chunked transfer using this library must run on the OS specified? This might read like a rant, but it's not. I truly want to know.

    Read the article

  • Does SmtpClient class represent POP3 client or…?

    - by SourceC
    I assume that web controls (such as the PasswordRecovery control) use SmtpClient to send email messages. If so, does SmtpClient represent a POP3 client or does SmtpClient forward email message to POP3 client? Do attributes specified inside <smtp> element in web.config map to SmtpClient class? <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp deliveryMethod="Network" ...></smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net> One of the possible values for the attribute deliveryMethod is Network, which tells that email should be sent through the network to an SMTP server. In other words, this value tells to send email to SMTP server using SMTP protocol?! For the PasswordRecovery control to be able to send email messages, we need to set basic properties in <MailDefinition> subelement of the PasswordRecovery control. Thus I assume MailDefinition is used by controls to create an email message?!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163  | Next Page >