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  • Calculating collision for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmatically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collision problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

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  • Creating a Mysql view to SELECT coloumns from different tables

    - by user330429
    I need help in constructing a VIEW on 4 tables. The view should contain coloumns: ER.ID, ER.EMPID, ER.CUSTID, ER.STATUS, ER.DATEREPORTED, ER.REPORT, EB.NAME, CR.CUSTNAME, CR.LOCID, CL.LOCNAME, DI.DEPTNAME ALIASES EMP_REPORT ER , EMP_BIO EB, CUST_RECORD CR, CUST_LOC CL, DEPT_ID DI THE DATA MODELS ARE: describe EMP_REPORT; +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | empid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | custid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | status | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | datereported | bigint(20) | NO | | NULL | | | report | text | YES | | NULL | | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe EMP_BIO; +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | empid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | name | varchar(56) | NO | | NULL | | | sex | char(1) | NO | | NULL | | | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | email | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | gtlk | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | skype | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | cvid | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe CUST_RECORD; +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | custid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | custname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | address | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | contactp | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | locid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | remarks | text | YES | | NULL | | | date | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | addedby | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe CUST_LOC; +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | locid | int(11) | NO | PRI | 0 | | | locname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe DEPT_ID; +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | deptname | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ The table EMP_REPORT contains reports submitted by employees, all the coloumns in it needs to be fetched. The empid in this table should be used to fetch corresponding name in EMP_BIO (employee biodata) table. The custid in EMP_REPORT should be used to fetch corresponding locid in CUST_RECORD(customer record) which is used to fetch locname in CUST_LOC(customer location) table. The empid in EMP_REPORT is used to fetch corresponding deptid in EMP_BIO table which is then used to fetch corresponding deptname from DEPT_ID(department id) table. I tried constructing view using union of different select queries, but dint get proper results. Please help me. Thanks in advance. PS: sorry for my poor english

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  • MVVM: Do I need Inheritance with ViewModels A + B ?

    - by Lisa
    Hello guys my first post on SO because EE sucks in the meantime ;P I am using wpf and mvvm in my desktop application. Scenario: I have a calendar with week A and week B which are rotating by every X week depending on the user settings. But the UserControl "week B" is only visible when the user sets the option "rotating weeks"... The UserControl with week A has a DataGrid and for week B I want to use the same UserControl of course. What I want to achieve is that all data entered/choosen by the user in the Week A is saved/backed by a ViewModel A and Model C. When the user wants a rotating weekly calendar plan I need also a ViewModel B and again Model C. The reason why I need to know what data entered by the user belongs to week A or week B is because I have to write the entered data in a certain order into the database = db.Write(weekA),db.Write(weekB),db.Write(weekA),etc... I am unsure how a solution could look like... What would you do to identify a ViewModel A or B so you know the order of how to write the data in the proper order into database? Any other suggestions are also welcome of course, maybe I think in the wrong direction its late here :) I am new to mvvm so please be patient.

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  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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  • In an Android application, should I have one content provider per table or only one for the entire a

    - by Andrew Dyer
    I have years of experience with Microsoft .NET development (primarily C#) and have been working to come up to speed on Android and Java. So far, I've built a small application with a couple screens and a working content provider. All of the examples I've seen for developing content providers typically work with a single table, so I got the impression that this was the convention. I built a couple more content providers for other tables and ran into the "Unknown URI" IllegalArgumentException when I tried to test them. The exception is being thrown by one of my content providers, but not the one I was intending to call. It appears that my application is using the first content provider in the AndroidManifest.xml file, which now has me wondering if I should only have a single content provider for the entire application. Are there any best practices and/or examples for working with multiple tables in an Android application? Should I have one content provider per table or only one for the entire application? If the former, how do I resolve URIs to the proper provider? If the latter, how do I keep my content provider code from being polluted with switch statements?

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  • Set service dependencies after install

    - by Dennis
    I have an application that runs as a Windows service. It stores various things settings in a database that are looked up when the service starts. I built the service to support various types of databases (SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, etc). Often times end users choose to configure the software to use SQL Server (they can simply modify a config file with the connection string and restart the service). The problem is that when their machine boots up, often times SQL Server is started after my service so my service errors out on start up because it can't connect to the database. I know that I can specify dependencies for my service to help guide the Windows service manager to start the appropriate services before mine. However, I don't know what services to depend upon at install time (when my service is registered) since the user can change databases later on. So my question is: is there a way for the user to manually indicate the service dependencies based on the database that they are using? If not, what is the proper design approach that I should be taking? I've thought about trying to do something like wait 30 seconds after my service starts up before connecting to the database but this seems really flaky for various reasons. I've also considered trying to "lazily" connect to the database; the problem is that I need a connection immediately upon start up since the database contains various pieces of vital info that my service needs when it first starts. Any ideas?

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  • Connection Pool Strategy: Good, Bad or Ugly?

    - by Drew
    I'm in charge of developing and maintaining a group of Web Applications that are centered around similar data. The architecture I decided on at the time was that each application would have their own database and web-root application. Each application maintains a connection pool to its own database and a central database for shared data (logins, etc.) A co-worker has been positing that this strategy will not scale because having so many different connection pools will not be scalable and that we should refactor the database so that all of the different applications use a single central database and that any modifications that may be unique to a system will need to be reflected from that one database and then use a single pool powered by Tomcat. He has posited that there is a lot of "meta data" that goes back and forth across the network to maintain a connection pool. My understanding is that with proper tuning to use only as many connections as necessary across the different pools (low volume apps getting less connections, high volume apps getting more, etc.) that the number of pools doesn't matter compared to the number of connections or more formally that the difference in overhead required to maintain 3 pools of 10 connections is negligible compared to 1 pool of 30 connections. The reasoning behind initially breaking the systems into a one-app-one-database design was that there are likely going to be differences between the apps and that each system could make modifications on the schema as needed. Similarly, it eliminated the possibility of system data bleeding through to other apps. Unfortunately there is not strong leadership in the company to make a hard decision. Although my co-worker is backing up his worries only with vagueness, I want to make sure I understand the ramifications of multiple small databases/connections versus one large database/connection pool.

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  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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  • How to protect a form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

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  • Does new JUnit 4.8 @Category render test suites almost obsolete?

    - by grigory
    Given question 'How to run all tests belonging to a certain Category?' and the answer would the following approach be better for test organization? define master test suite that contains all tests (e.g. using ClasspathSuite) design sufficient set of JUnit categories (sufficient means that every desirable collection of sets is identifiable using one or more categories) define targeted test suites based on master test suite and set of categories For example: identify categories for speed (slow, fast), dependencies (mock, database, integration), function (), domain ( demand that each test is properly qualified (tagged) with relevant set of categories. create master test suite using ClasspathSuite (all tests found in classpath) create targeted suites by qualifying master test suite with categories, e.g. mock test suite, fast database test suite, slow integration for domain X test suite, etc. My question is more like soliciting approval rate for such approach vs. classic test suite approach. One unbeatable benefit is that every new test is immediately contained by relevant suites with no suite maintenance. One concern is proper categorization of each test.

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  • I expect to see in the browswer "http://path/some_page.html" but instead it identifies with "http:/

    - by indiehacker
    I am developing with app engine SDK. I have a feeling this is much too basic a question so apologies ahead of time... A simple submit button doesnt work instead of just showing an alert box as expected it continues on afterwards and redirects me to the latest http-request, and I think this is because I dont understand how to tell the browser to recognize the proper URLs. Why does my browser say I am at the most recent http-request http://localhost:8080/putProjectInDB rather than the somepage.html that was actually served to the browser that I am currently looking at? How can I get the browser to recognize and show in its url spot the normal expected http://somepage.html ? Just in case, here are details of the specific problem which you might be able to ignore for answering the question: This hasnt been mattered for me until I just wanted to put into my .html a simple button that changes some stuff of the page without needing the server. The below code after displaying the alert box redirects me to the last server request http://localhost:8080/putProjectInDB instead of just staying in the same html page. in header: function MyFormCommands() { alert('Some Text'); } in body: <form onSubmit="MyFormCommands()" ><input type=submit ></form >

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  • Pass an array from IronRuby to C#

    - by cgyDeveloper
    I'm sure this is an easy fix and I just can't find it, but here goes: I have a C# class (let's call it Test) in an assembly (let's say SOTest.dll). Here is something along the lines of what I'm doing: private List<string> items; public List<string> list_items() { return this.items; } public void set_items(List<string> new_items) { this.items = new_items; } In the IronRuby interpreter I run: >>> require "SOTest.dll" true >>> include TestNamespace Object >>> myClass = Test.new TestNamespace.Test >>> myClass.list_items() ['Apples', 'Oranges', 'Pears'] >>> myClass.set_items ['Peaches', 'Plums'] TypeError: can't convert Array into System::Collections::Generic::List(string) I get a similar error whether I make the argument a 'List< string ', 'List< object ' or 'string[ ]'. What is the proper syntax? I can't find a documented mapping of types anywhere (because it's likely too complicated to define in certain scenarios given what Ruby can do).

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  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

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  • problem finding a header with a c++ makefile

    - by Max
    Hi. I've started working with my first makefile. I'm writing a roguelike in C++ using the libtcod library, and have the following hello world program to test if my environment's up and running: #include "libtcod.hpp" int main() { TCODConsole::initRoot(80, 50, "PartyHack"); TCODConsole::root->printCenter(40, 25, TCOD_BKGND_NONE, "Hello World"); TCODConsole::flush(); TCODConsole::waitForKeypress(true); } My project directory structure looks like this: /CppPartyHack ----/libtcod-1.5.1 # this is the libtcod root folder --------/include ------------libtcod.hpp ----/PartyHack --------makefile --------partyhack.cpp # the above code (while we're here, how do I do proper indentation? Using those dashes is silly.) and here's my makefile: SRCDIR = . INCDIR = ../libtcod-1.5.1/include CFLAGS = $(FLAGS) -I$(INCDIR) -I$(SRCDIR) -Wall CC = gcc CPP = g++ .SUFFIXES: .o .h .c .hpp .cpp $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.cpp $(CPP) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.c $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< CPP_OBJS = $(TEMP)partyhack.o all : partyhack partyhack : $(CPP_OBJS) $(CPP) $(CPP_OBJS) -o $@ -L../libtcod-1.5.1 -ltcod -ltcod++ -Wl,-rpath,. clean : \rm -f $(CPP_OBJS) partyhack I'm using Ubuntu, and my terminal gives me the following errors: max@max-desktop:~/Desktop/Development/CppPartyhack/PartyHack$ make g++ -c -o partyhack.o partyhack.cpp partyhack.cpp:1:23: error: libtcod.hpp: No such file or directory partyhack.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: partyhack.cpp:5: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCOD_BKGND_NONE’ was not declared in this scope partyhack.cpp:7: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:8: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared make: * [partyhack.o] Error 1 So obviously, the makefile can't find libtcod.hpp. I've double checked and I'm sure the relative path to libtcod.hpp in INCDIR is correct, but as I'm just starting out with makefiles, I'm uncertain what else could be wrong. My makefile is based off a template that the libtcod designers provided along with the library itself, and while I've looked at a few online makefile tutorials, the code in this makefile is a good bit more complicated than any of the examples the tutorials showed, so I'm assuming I screwed up something basic in the conversion. Thanks for any help.

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  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

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  • XCode enum woes

    - by Raconteur
    Hi gang, I thought I had this sorted, but I am still missing something. Very simply, I have a Settings class that hold a DAO (sitting on a plist). I want to have a couple of enums for the settings for convenience and readability, such as GamePlayType and DifficultyLevel. Right now I am defining them in the Settings.h file above the @interface line as such: typedef enum { EASY, NORMAL, HARD } DifficultyLevel; and typedef enum { SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES, TO_COMPLETION } GamePlayType; If I access them from within the Settings class like: - (int)gridSizeForLOD { switch ([self difficultyLevel]) { case EASY: return GRID_SIZE_EASY; case NORMAL: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; case HARD: return GRID_SIZE_HARD; default: return GRID_SIZE_NORMAL; } } everything is fine. But, if I try to access them outside of the Settings class, let's say in my main view controller class, like this: if (([settings gameType] == SET_NUMBER_OF_MOVES) && (numMoves == [settings numMovesForLOD])) { [self showLoseScreen]; } I get errors (like EXC_BAD_ACCESS) or the condition always fails. Am I doing something incorrectly? Also, I should point out that I have this code for the call to gameType (which lives in the Settings class): - (GamePlayType)gameType { return [dao gameType]; } and the DAO implements gameType like this: - (int)gameType { return (settingsContent != nil) ? [[settingsContent objectForKey:@"Game Type"] intValue] : 0; } I know I have the DAO returning an int instead of a GamePlayType, but A) the problem I am describing arose there when I tried to use the "proper" data type, and B) I did not think it would matter since the enum is just a bunch of named ints, right? Any help, greatly appreciated. I really want to understand this thoroughly, and something is eluding me... Cheers, Chris

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  • Scripts fail when jQuery.js isn't cached. When cached, scripts run fine.

    - by Bob
    I have jQuery UI Tabs which load their content via AJAX. About once every 15 times when the entire page is loaded (not just XHR), things fail and I don't see the proper content in the tab. Fiddler showed me that when things fail I also see that jQuery.js and jQuery-ui.js are both sent to the browser in full (~100kB). Normally, a page load results in HTTP status code 304 for both of those files, they're not re-downloaded, and the page displays properly. When the status code is 200 and fresh copies of jQuery/UI are sent, things fail. I notice this most often in IE8, but that's because I use it for web development. I have seen it in Firefox, but for some reason I can't reproduce it now. Fiddler shows that the HTTP request asks for: GET /Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js?_=1255309685187 HTTP/1.1 I can't figure out what the ?_=1255309685187 is for, but I'm guessing it's a token to indicate for how long the file should be cached. Since I can't reproduce the problem in Firefox right now, I don't know what Firebug says. Any insight would be appreciated. EDIT: This is with Visual Studio's development webserver.

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  • How can get unique values from data table using dql?

    - by piemesons
    I am having a table in which there is a column in which various values are stored.i want to retrieve unique values from that table using dql. Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('rec.school') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.city='$city' ") ->execute(); Now i want only unique values. Can anybody tell me how to do that... Edit Table Structure: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `records` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `state` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `city` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=16334 ; This is the Query I am using: Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('DISTINCT rec.city') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.state = '$state'") // ->getSql(); ->execute(); Generting Sql for this gives me: SELECT DISTINCT r.id AS r__id, r.city AS r__city FROM records r WHERE r.state = 'AR' Now check the sql generated:::: DISTINCT is on 'id' column where as i want Distinct on city column. Anybody know how to fix this. EDIT2 Id is unique cause its an auto incremental value.Ya i have some real duplicates in city column like: Delhi and Delhi. Right.. Now when i am trying to fetch data from it, I am getting Delhi two times. How can i make query like this: select DISTINCT rec.city where state="xyz"; Cause this will give me the proper output. EDIT3: Anybody who can tell me how to figure out this query..???

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  • Android ListView: how to select an item?

    - by mmo
    I am having trouble with a ListView I created: I want an item to get selected when I click on it. My code for this looks like: protected void onResume() { ... ListView lv = getListView(); lv.setOnItemSelectedListener(new OnItemSelectedListener() { public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { Log.v(TAG, "onItemSelected(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } public void onNothingSelected(AdapterView<?> adapterView) { Log.v(TAG, "onNothingSelected(...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); lv.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> adapterView, View view, int pos, long id) { lv.setSelection(pos); Log.v(TAG, "onItemClick(..., " + pos + ",...) => selected: " + getSelectedItemPosition()); } }); ... } When I run this and click e.g. on the second item (i.e. pos=1) I get: 04-03 23:08:36.994: V/DisplayLists(663): onItemClick(..., 1,...) => selected: -1 i.e. even though the OnItemClickListener is called with the proper argument and calls a setSelection(1), there is no item selected (and hence also OnItemSelectedListener.onItemSelected(...) is never called) and getSelectedItemPosition() still yields -1 after the setSelection(1)-call. What am I missing? Michael PS.: My list does have =2 elements...

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  • how do I best create a set of list classes to match my business objects

    - by ken-forslund
    I'm a bit fuzzy on the best way to solve the problem of needing a list for each of my business objects that implements some overridden functions. Here's the setup: I have a baseObject that sets up database, and has its proper Dispose() method All my other business objects inherit from it, and if necessary, override Dispose() Some of these classes also contain arrays (lists) of other objects. So I create a class that holds a List of these. I'm aware I could just use the generic List, but that doesn't let me add extra features like Dispose() so it will loop through and clean up. So if I had objects called User, Project and Schedule, I would create UserList, ProjectList, ScheduleList. In the past, I have simply had these inherit from List< with the appropriate class named and then written the pile of common functions I wanted it to have, like Dispose(). this meant I would verify by hand, that each of these List classes had the same set of methods. Some of these classes had pretty simple versions of these methods that could have been inherited from a base list class. I could write an interface, to force me to ensure that each of my List classes has the same functions, but interfaces don't let me write common base functions that SOME of the lists might override. I had tried to write a baseObjectList that inherited from List, and then make my other Lists inherit from that, but there are issues with that (which is really why I came here). One of which was trying to use the Find() method with a predicate. I've simplified the problem down to just a discussion of Dispose() method on the list that loops through and disposes its contents, but in reality, I have several other common functions that I want all my lists to have. What's the best practice to solve this organizational matter?

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  • EFv1 mapping 1 to many Relationship to POCOs

    - by Scott
    I'm trying to work through a problem where I'm mapping EF Entities to POCO which serve as DTO. I have two tables within my database, say Products and Categories. A Product belongs to one category and one category may contain many Products. My EF entities are named efProduct and efCategory. Within each entity there is the proper Navigation Property between efProduct and efCategory. My Poco objects are simple public class Product { public string Name { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public double Price { get; set; } public Category ProductType { get; set; } } public class Category { public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public List<Product> products { get; set; } } To get a list of products I am able to do something like public IQueryable<Product> GetProducts() { return from p in ctx.Products select new Product { ID = p.ID, Name = p.Name, Price = p.Price ProductType = p.Category }; } However there is a type mismatch error because p.Category is of type efCategory. How can I resolve this? That is, how can I convert p.Category to type Category? I know in .NET EF has added support for POCO, but I'm forced to use .NET 3.5 SP1.

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  • Jquery Ajax + PHP

    - by Kris.Mitchell
    I am having problems with jQuery Ajax and PHP I have my php file set up to echo the data I am gathering from a mysql database. I have verified that the database is returning something and that the string at the end of the function actually contains data. What is happening though, is that it looks like the php echo is happening before the ajax call, causing the php data to be displayed at the top of the page, and not below in proper div. I think it might have something to do with timing of the ajax and the php call, but I am not sure. So, why is the data not getting caught by the .ajax and thrown into the div? Thanks for the help! jQuery $(document).ready(function() { $.ajax({ url: "../database_functions.php", type: "GET", data: "cat=jw&sub=pi&sort=no", cache: false, success: function (html) { alert("Success!"); $('#product-list').html(html); } }); }); PHP echo "Hello World";

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  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

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