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  • changing the serialization procedure for a graph of objects (.net framework)

    - by pierusch
    Hello I'm developing a scientific application using .net framework. The application depends heavily upon a large data structure (a tree like structure) that has been serialized using a standard binaryformatter object. The graph structure looks like this: <serializable()>Public class BigObjet inherits list(of smallObject) end class <serializable()>public class smallObject inherits list(of otherSmallerObjects) end class ... The binaryFormatter object does a nice job but it's not optimized at all and the entire data structure reaches around 100Mb on my filesystem. Deserialization works too but it's pretty slow (around 30seconds on my quad core). I've found a nice .dll on codeproject (see "optimizing serialization...") so I wrote a modified version of the classes above overriding the default serialization/deserialization procedure reaching very good results. The problem is this: I can't lose the data previosly serialized with the old version and I'd like to be able to use the new serialization/deserialization method. I have some ideas but I'm pretty sure someone will be able to give me a proper and better advice ! use an "helper" graph of objects who takes care of the entire serialization/deserialization procedure reading data from the old format and converting them into the classes I nedd. This could work but the binaryformatter "needs" to know the types being serialized so........ :( modify the "old" graph to include a modified version of serialization procedure...so I'll be able to deserialize old file and save them with the new format......this doesn't sound too good imho. well any help will be higly highly appreciated :)

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  • Why is BorderLayout calling setSize() and setBounds()?

    - by ags
    I'm trying to get my head around proper use of the different LayoutManagers to make my GUI design skills more efficient and effective. For me, that usually requires a detailed understanding of what is going on under the hood. I've found some good discussion of the interaction and consequences of a Container using BorderLayout containing a Container using FlowLayout. I understand it for the most part, but wanted to confirm my mental model and to do so I am looking at the code for BorderLayout. In the code snippet below taken from BorderLayout.layoutContainer(), note the calls to the child Component's setSize() method followed by setBounds(). Looking at the source for these methods of Component, setSize() actually calls setBounds() with the current values for Component.x and Component.y. Why is this done (and not entirely redudant?) Doesn't the setBounds() call completely overwrite the results of the setSize() call? if ((c=getChild(NORTH,ltr)) != null) { c.setSize(right - left, c.height); Dimension d = c.getPreferredSize(); c.setBounds(left, top, right - left, d.height); top += d.height + vgap; } I'm also tring to understand where/when the child Component's size is initially set (before the LayoutManager.layoutContainer() method is called). Finally, this post itself raises a "meta-question": in a situation like this, where the source is available elsewhere, is the accepteed protocol to include the entire method? Or some other way to make it easier for folks to participate in the thread? Thanks.

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  • How to properly implement the Strategy pattern in a web MVC framework?

    - by jboxer
    In my Django app, I have a model (lets call it Foo) with a field called "type". I'd like to use Foo.type to indicate what type the specific instance of Foo is (possible choices are "Number", "Date", "Single Line of Text", "Multiple Lines of Text", and a few others). There are two things I'd like the "type" field to end up affecting; the way a value is converted from its normal type to text (for example, in "Date", it may be str(the_date.isoformat())), and the way a value is converted from text to the specified type (in "Date", it may be datetime.date.fromtimestamp(the_text)). To me, this seems like the Strategy pattern (I may be completely wrong, and feel free to correct me if I am). My question is, what's the proper way to code this in a web MVC framework? In a client-side app, I'd create a Type class with abstract methods "serialize()" and "unserialize()", override those methods in subclasses of Type (such as NumberType and DateType), and dynamically set the "type" field of a newly-instantiated Foo to the appropriate Type subclass at runtime. In a web framework, it's not quite as straightforward for me. Right now, the way that makes the most sense is to define Foo.type as a Small Integer field and define a limited set of choices (0 = "Number", 1 = "Date", 2 = "Single Line of Text", etc.) in the code. Then, when a Foo object is instantiated, use a Factory method to look at the value of the instance's "type" field and plug in the correct Type subclass (as described in the paragraph above). Foo would also have serialize() and unserialize() methods, which would delegate directly to the plugged-in Type subclass. How does this design sound? I've never run into this issue before, so I'd really like to know if other people have, and how they've solved it.

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  • How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

    - by Marc Bettex
    Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

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  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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  • Jetty 7 will not allow me to customize a session cookie path

    - by Bob Obringer
    Using Jetty 7.0.2, I am unable to set a custom session cookie path. I am hosting multiple sites on the same server using apache to proxy requests to the proper context. (replaced http as htp as stackoverflow thinks my multiple links might be spam) <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName context.domain.com ProxyRequests On ProxyPreserveHost Off <Proxy *:80> Order deny,allow Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Proxy> ProxyPass / htp://localhost:8080/context/ ProxyPassReverse / htp://localhost:8080/context/ <Location /> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Location> </VirtualHost> Jetty is running on the same server on port 8080 and my context is available @ /context The user accesses the application @ htp://context.domain.com but jetty is setting the path for the session cookie @ /context. This prevents the browser from accessing the cookie since the the actual path to the context is not being used. I need to override Jetty's default setting to set the cookie for the context, and set the path at the root ( / ). In my Jetty's webdefault.xml I have the following, which is partially working: <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionCookie</param-name> <param-value>CustomCookieName</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionPath</param-name> <param-value>/</param-value> </context-param> The cookie is properly set with a custom name, but it is NOT setting the SessionPath. No matter what I set the value to... it refuses to set a cookie at any path but /context. This has been driving me crazy so any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • What's a good way to make a Flex component with placeholders in it?

    - by Daniel Brockman
    I want to create a component that has a couple of "holes" that are to be filled in differently on each use. Currently, I'm doing it like this (using the Flex 4 framework in this example --- it would look almost the same for Flex 3): public var fooComponent : IVisualElement; public var barComponent : IVisualElement; override protected function createChildren() : void { super.createChildren(); fooContainer.addElement(fooComponent); barContainer.addElement(barComponent); } <Group id="fooContainer"/> <!-- ... other components ... --> <Group id="barContainer"/> This works well, but it's kind of a lot of code to write for something so simple. What I'd like is something like this: [Bindable] public var fooComponent : IVisualElement; [Bindable] public var barComponent : IVisualElement; <Placeholder content="{fooComponent}"/> <!-- ... other components ... --> <Placeholder content="{barComponent}"/> Now, I could implement the Placeholder component myself, but I can't help wondering if there isn't a better way to do this using the existing tools in the Flex framework. Theoretically, with the proper compiler support, it could even be boiled down to something like this: <Placeholder id="fooComponent"/> <!-- ... other components ... --> <Placeholder id="barComponent"/>

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  • Find Exact difference between two dates

    - by iPhone Fun
    Hi all , I want some changes in the date comparison. In my application I am comparing two dates and getting difference as number of Days, but if there is only one day difference the system shows me 0 as a difference of days. I do use following code NSDateFormatter *date_formater=[[NSDateFormatter alloc]init]; [date_formater setDateFormat:@"MMM dd,YYYY"]; NSString *now=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[date_formater stringFromDate:[NSDate date]]]; LblTodayDate.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@",now]]; NSDate *dateofevent = [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] valueForKey:@"CeremonyDate_"]; NSDate *endDate =dateofevent; NSDate *startDate = [NSDate date]; gregorian = [[NSCalendar alloc] initWithCalendarIdentifier:NSGregorianCalendar]; unsigned int unitFlags = NSDayCalendarUnit; NSDateComponents *components = [gregorian components:unitFlags fromDate:startDate toDate:endDate options:0]; int days = [components day]; I found some solutions that If we make the time as 00:00:00 for comparision then it will show me proper answer , I am right or wrong i don't know. Please help me to solve the issue

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  • Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

    - by Christopher MacKinnon
    I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

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  • JSF2.0: variable list of custom component

    - by rattaman
    Hello Is there any way of using JSF2.0 in connection with variable lists of components? For example, lets say I have list o people that I would like to edit. They are presented on the page as list of components PersonEditor, which allow changing person data. Each editor is associated with single Person element. In order for this to work I need to perform following steps: On initial request: Get list of people For each person create PersonEditor and associate it with Person object. Fill editor's data. On user action: When user changes values and presses Save, data is processed by backing bean. I can either fill editor with data from list of people or bind it to the backing bean, but not at the same time, so I am stuck. I tried people.xhtml <ui:render value="#{bean.people}" var="person"> <example:personEditor person="#{person}"/> </ui:render> where personEditor.xhtml: a) proper association with person object, but no connection to backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{cc.attr.person.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> b) no association with person object, but there is connection to backing bean - there is no way to pass that person to the backing bean <h:form> <h:outputText value="#{editorBean.name}"/> <h:commandButton name="Save" actionListener="editorBean.save"> <f:ajax execute="@form" render="@form"/> </h:commandButton> </h:form> If I had each editor on separate page, I could pass the person id as url parameter (either using f:param or f:attribute) and initialize it accordingly. Is there any solution to this problem?

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  • Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

    - by kujawk
    Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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  • Creating a Mysql view to SELECT coloumns from different tables

    - by user330429
    I need help in constructing a VIEW on 4 tables. The view should contain coloumns: ER.ID, ER.EMPID, ER.CUSTID, ER.STATUS, ER.DATEREPORTED, ER.REPORT, EB.NAME, CR.CUSTNAME, CR.LOCID, CL.LOCNAME, DI.DEPTNAME ALIASES EMP_REPORT ER , EMP_BIO EB, CUST_RECORD CR, CUST_LOC CL, DEPT_ID DI THE DATA MODELS ARE: describe EMP_REPORT; +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | empid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | custid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | status | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | datereported | bigint(20) | NO | | NULL | | | report | text | YES | | NULL | | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe EMP_BIO; +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | empid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | name | varchar(56) | NO | | NULL | | | sex | char(1) | NO | | NULL | | | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | email | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | gtlk | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | skype | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | cvid | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe CUST_RECORD; +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | custid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | custname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | address | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | contactp | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | locid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | remarks | text | YES | | NULL | | | date | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | addedby | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe CUST_LOC; +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | locid | int(11) | NO | PRI | 0 | | | locname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe DEPT_ID; +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | deptname | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ The table EMP_REPORT contains reports submitted by employees, all the coloumns in it needs to be fetched. The empid in this table should be used to fetch corresponding name in EMP_BIO (employee biodata) table. The custid in EMP_REPORT should be used to fetch corresponding locid in CUST_RECORD(customer record) which is used to fetch locname in CUST_LOC(customer location) table. The empid in EMP_REPORT is used to fetch corresponding deptid in EMP_BIO table which is then used to fetch corresponding deptname from DEPT_ID(department id) table. I tried constructing view using union of different select queries, but dint get proper results. Please help me. Thanks in advance. PS: sorry for my poor english

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  • CodeIgniter and SimpleTest -- How to make my first test?

    - by Smandoli
    I'm used to web development using LAMP, PHP5, MySQL plus NetBeans with Xdebug. Now I want to improve my development, by learning how to use (A) proper testing and (B) a framework. So I have set up CodeIgniter, SimpleTest and the easy Xdebug add-in for Firefox. This is great fun because maroonbytes provided me with clear instructions and a configured setup ready for download. I am standing on the shoulders of giants, and very grateful. I've used SimpleTest a bit in the past. Here is a the kind of thing I wrote: <?php require_once('../simpletest/unit_tester.php'); require_once('../simpletest/reporter.php'); class TestOfMysqlTransaction extends UnitTestCase { function testDB_ViewTable() { $this->assertEqual(1,1); // a pseudo-test } } $test = new TestOfMysqlTransaction(); $test->run(new HtmlReporter()) ?> So I hope I know what a test looks like. What I can't figure out is where and how to put a test in my new setup. I don't see any sample tests in the maroonbytes package, and Google so far has led me to posts that assume unit testing is already functionally available. What do I do?

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  • PHP: MySQL query duplicating update for no reason

    - by ThinkingInBits
    The code below is first the client code, then the class file. For some reason the 'deductTokens()' method is calling twice, thus charging an account double. I've been programming all night, so I may just need a second pair of eyes: if ($action == 'place_order') { if ($_REQUEST['unlimited'] == 200) { $license = 'extended'; } else { $license = 'standard'; } if ($photograph->isValidPhotographSize($photograph_id, $_REQUEST['size_radio'])) { $token_cost = $photograph->getTokenCost($_REQUEST['size_radio'], $_REQUEST['unlimited']); $order = new ImageOrder($_SESSION['user']['id'], $_REQUEST['size_radio'], $license, $token_cost); $order->saveOrder(); $order->deductTokens(); header('location: account.php'); } else { die("Please go back and select a valid photograph size"); } } ######CLASS CODE####### <?php include_once('database_classes.php'); class Order { protected $account_id; protected $cost; protected $license; public function __construct($account_id, $license, $cost) { $this->account_id = $account_id; $this->cost = $cost; $this->license = $license; } } class ImageOrder extends Order { protected $size; public function __construct($account_id, $size, $license, $cost) { $this->size = $size; parent::__construct($account_id, $license, $cost); } public function saveOrder() { //$db = Connect::connect(); //$account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); //$size = $db->real_escape_string($this->size); //$license = $db->real_escape_string($this->license); //$cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); } public function deductTokens() { $db = Connect::connect(); $account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); $cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); $query = "UPDATE accounts set tokens=tokens-$cost WHERE id=$account_id"; $result = $db->query($query); } } ?> When I die("$query"); directly after the query, it's printing the proper statement, and when I run that query within MySQL it works perfectly.

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  • Question about the benefit of using an ORM

    - by johnny
    I want to use an ORM for learning purposes and am try nhibernate. I am using the tutorial and then I have a real project. I can go the "old way" or use an ORM. I'm not sure I totally understand the benefit. On the one hand I can create my abstractions in code such that I can change my databases and be database independent. On the other it seems that if I actually change the database columns I have to change all my code. Why wouldn't I have my application without the ORM, change my database and change my code, instead of changing my database, orm, and code? Is it that they database structure doesn't change that much? I believe there are real benefits because ORMs are used by so many. I'm just not sure I get it yet. Thank you. EDIT: In the tutorial they have many files that are used to make the ORM work http://www.hibernate.org/362.html In the event of an application change, it seems like a lot of extra work just to say that I have "proper" abstraction layers. Because I'm new at it it doesn't look that easy to maintain and again seems like extra work, not less.

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  • Process xml-like log file queue

    - by Zsolt Botykai
    Hi all, first of all: I'm not a programmer, never was, although had learn a lot during my professional carreer as a support consultant. Now my task is to process - and create some statistics about a constantly written and rapidly growing XML like log file. It's not valid XML, because it does not have a proper <root> element, e.g. the log looks like this: <log itemdate="somedate"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+1"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+n"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> E.g. I have to count all the items with field id=0. But most of the solutions I had found (e.g. using XPath) reports an error about the garbage after the first closing </log>. Most probably I can use python (2.6, although I can compile 3.x as well), or some really old perl version (5.6.x), and recently compiled xmlstarlet which really looks promising - I was able to create the statistics for a certain period after copying the file, and pre- & appending the opening and closing root element. But this is a huge file and copying takes time as well. Isn't there a better solution? Thanks in advance!

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  • problem finding a header with a c++ makefile

    - by Max
    Hi. I've started working with my first makefile. I'm writing a roguelike in C++ using the libtcod library, and have the following hello world program to test if my environment's up and running: #include "libtcod.hpp" int main() { TCODConsole::initRoot(80, 50, "PartyHack"); TCODConsole::root->printCenter(40, 25, TCOD_BKGND_NONE, "Hello World"); TCODConsole::flush(); TCODConsole::waitForKeypress(true); } My project directory structure looks like this: /CppPartyHack ----/libtcod-1.5.1 # this is the libtcod root folder --------/include ------------libtcod.hpp ----/PartyHack --------makefile --------partyhack.cpp # the above code (while we're here, how do I do proper indentation? Using those dashes is silly.) and here's my makefile: SRCDIR = . INCDIR = ../libtcod-1.5.1/include CFLAGS = $(FLAGS) -I$(INCDIR) -I$(SRCDIR) -Wall CC = gcc CPP = g++ .SUFFIXES: .o .h .c .hpp .cpp $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.cpp $(CPP) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< $(TEMP)/%.o : $(SRCDIR)/%.c $(CC) $(CFLAGS) -o $@ -c $< CPP_OBJS = $(TEMP)partyhack.o all : partyhack partyhack : $(CPP_OBJS) $(CPP) $(CPP_OBJS) -o $@ -L../libtcod-1.5.1 -ltcod -ltcod++ -Wl,-rpath,. clean : \rm -f $(CPP_OBJS) partyhack I'm using Ubuntu, and my terminal gives me the following errors: max@max-desktop:~/Desktop/Development/CppPartyhack/PartyHack$ make g++ -c -o partyhack.o partyhack.cpp partyhack.cpp:1:23: error: libtcod.hpp: No such file or directory partyhack.cpp: In function ‘int main()’: partyhack.cpp:5: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:6: error: ‘TCOD_BKGND_NONE’ was not declared in this scope partyhack.cpp:7: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared partyhack.cpp:8: error: ‘TCODConsole’ has not been declared make: * [partyhack.o] Error 1 So obviously, the makefile can't find libtcod.hpp. I've double checked and I'm sure the relative path to libtcod.hpp in INCDIR is correct, but as I'm just starting out with makefiles, I'm uncertain what else could be wrong. My makefile is based off a template that the libtcod designers provided along with the library itself, and while I've looked at a few online makefile tutorials, the code in this makefile is a good bit more complicated than any of the examples the tutorials showed, so I'm assuming I screwed up something basic in the conversion. Thanks for any help.

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  • EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

    - by Jaimin
    when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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  • Can i change the view without changing the controller?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Pretend1 there is a place to type in a name:     Name: __________________ When the text box changes, the value is absorbed into the controller, who stores it in data model. Business rules require that a name be entered: if there is no text entered the TextBox should be colored something in the view to indicate baddness; otherwise it can be whatever color the view likes. The TextBox contains a String, the controller handles a String, and the model stores a String. Now lets say i want to improve the view. There is a new kind of text box2 that can be fed not only string-based keyboard input, but also an image. The view (currently) knows how to determine if the image is in the proper format to perform the processing required to extract text out of it. If there is text, then that text can be fed to the controller, who feeds it to the data model. But if the image is invalid, e.g.3 wrong file format invalid dimensions invalid bit depth unhandled or unknown encoding format missing or incorrectly located registration marks contents not recognizable the view can show something to the user that the image is bad. But the telling the user that something is bad is supposed to be the job of the controller. i'm, of course, not going to re-write the controller to handle Image based text-input (e.g. image based names). a. the code is binary locked inside a GUI widget4 b. there other views besides this one, i'm not going to impose a particular view onto the controller c. i just don't wanna. If i have to change things outside of this UI improvement, then i'll just leave the UI unimproved5 So what's the thinking on having different views for the same Model and Controller? Nitpicker's Corner 1 contrived hypothetical example 2 e.g. bar code, g-mask, ocr 3 contrived hypothetical reasons 4 or hardware of a USB bar-code scanner 5 forcing the user to continue to use a DateTimePicker rather than a TextBox

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  • How to determine the width of content or size a container to content

    - by ISVK
    My goal is to display the entire contents of a FlowDocument (that is, without paginating) in a column layout. It would have a fixed height, but the width would depend on the contents of the FlowDocument. My problem is: FlowDocumentReader does not automatically resize to the contents of the FlowDocument. As you see in my XAML below, FlowDocumentReader.Width is 5000 units (just a large number that can accommodate most documents) -- when I make it Auto, it just clips to the width of the ScrollViewer and paginates my stuff! Is there a proper way of solving this problem? I also made a screenshot of what this looks like now, but the ScrollViewer scrolls past the end of the document in most cases: http://i.imgur.com/3FSRl.png <ScrollViewer x:Name="scrollViewer" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" > <FlowDocumentReader x:Name="flowDocReader" ClipToBounds="False" Width="5000" > <FlowDocument x:Name="flowDoc" Foreground="#FF404040" ColumnRuleWidth="2" ColumnGap="40" ColumnRuleBrush="#FF404040" IsHyphenationEnabled="True" IsOptimalParagraphEnabled="True" ColumnWidth="150"> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> <Paragraph> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, ...etc... </Paragraph> </FlowDocument> </FlowDocumentReader> </ScrollViewer>

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  • Does XAML work with file links in Visual Studio?

    - by Tim
    I'm adding a new WPF project to an existing Visual Studio solution and would like to reuse a bunch of code (C# and xaml) from an existing project within the solution. I've created the new project and added existing files as follows: Right click project Add - Add Existing Item Find the file to reuse, use the arrow next to "Add" and "Add as Link" I now have a nice project set up with all the proper links. However, XAML chokes on these links. For example: <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml" /> <ResourceDictionary Source="Resources\Elements\TextBox\TextBox.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> The files "Buttons.xaml" and "TextBox.xaml" exist as links in my new project. The project builds, but when I run, I get the following XamlParseException: 'Resources\Elements\Buttons\Buttons.xaml' value cannot be assigned to property 'Source' of object 'System.Windows.ResourceDictionary'. Cannot locate resource 'resources/elements/buttons/buttons.xaml'. It seems like the XAML parser is requiring an actual copy of these XAML files to exist in my new project, instead of links. This is exactly what I'm trying to avoid. I want my project to share these files so that any changes get transferred to the other project without hunting and copying. Any insight is appreciated!

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  • Explanation of `self` usage during dealloc?

    - by Greg
    I'm trying to lock down my understanding of proper memory management within Objective-C. I've gotten into the habit of explicitly declaring self.myProperty rather than just myProperty because I was encountering occasional scenarios where a property would not be set to the reference that I intended. Now, I'm reading Apple documentation on releasing IBOutlets, and they say that all outlets should be set to nil during dealloc. So, I put this in place as follows and experienced crashes as a result: - (void)dealloc { [self.dataModel close]; [self.dataModel release], self.dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } So, I tried taking out the "self" references, like so: - (void)dealloc { [dataModel close]; [dataModel release], dataModel = nil; [super dealloc]; } This second system seems to work as expected. However, it has me a bit confused. Why would self cause a crash in that case, when I thought self was a fairly benign reference more used as a formality than anything else? Also, if self is not appropriate in this case, then I have to ask: when should you include self references, and when should you not?

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  • changing asp .net web service namespace when already in productive state

    - by eloQ
    by some unfortunate events we published a web service with the tempuri-namespace a couple of months ago and no one did notice (not in our company, not the companies connecting to the web service) even though it's live since that time and lots of companies (~25 i guess) already access this web service. now i'm thinking of correcting that mistake and have the namespace fixed to a proper value. the only problem is: as soon as we would do it, all the programs and services connected to this web service would stop working. i can't really allow that to happen. is there any way to fix the namespace for future purpose or to have the web service operate under two namespaces as one web service? any tip at all what i could do to get rid of the tempuri-namespace and have it fixed without needing to synchronize the change with all the external companies? i'm all out of ideas, so any help would be much appreciated! thanks! I hope this question is alright here, first time user, found this through using search engines on my research and found tempuri.org related posts, just not the right one..

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  • Scripts fail when jQuery.js isn't cached. When cached, scripts run fine.

    - by Bob
    I have jQuery UI Tabs which load their content via AJAX. About once every 15 times when the entire page is loaded (not just XHR), things fail and I don't see the proper content in the tab. Fiddler showed me that when things fail I also see that jQuery.js and jQuery-ui.js are both sent to the browser in full (~100kB). Normally, a page load results in HTTP status code 304 for both of those files, they're not re-downloaded, and the page displays properly. When the status code is 200 and fresh copies of jQuery/UI are sent, things fail. I notice this most often in IE8, but that's because I use it for web development. I have seen it in Firefox, but for some reason I can't reproduce it now. Fiddler shows that the HTTP request asks for: GET /Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js?_=1255309685187 HTTP/1.1 I can't figure out what the ?_=1255309685187 is for, but I'm guessing it's a token to indicate for how long the file should be cached. Since I can't reproduce the problem in Firefox right now, I don't know what Firebug says. Any insight would be appreciated. EDIT: This is with Visual Studio's development webserver.

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  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

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