Search Results

Search found 4685 results on 188 pages for 'proper'.

Page 156/188 | < Previous Page | 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163  | Next Page >

  • Determine whether app is communicating with APNS sandbox or production environment

    - by goldierox
    I have push notifications set up in my app. I'm trying to determine whether the device token I've received from APNS in the application:didRegisterForRemoteNotificationsWithDeviceToken: method came from the sandbox or development environment. If I can distinguish which environment initialized the token, I'll be able to tell my server to which environment to send the push notification. I've tried using the DEBUG macro to determine this, but I've seen some strange behavior with this and don't trust it to be 100% correct. #ifdef DEBUG BOOL isProd = YES; #else BOOL isProd = NO; #endif Ideally, I'd be able to examine the aps-environment entitlement (value is Development or Production) in code, but I'm not sure if this is even possible. What's the proper way to determine whether your app is communicating with the APNS sandbox or production environments? I'm assuming that the server needs to know this in the first place. Please correct me if this is assumption is incorrect. Edited: Apple's documentation on Provider Communication with APNS details the difference between communicating with the sandbox and production. However, the documentation doesn't give information on how to be consistent with registering the token (from the iOS client app) and communicating with the server.

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter and SimpleTest -- How to make my first test?

    - by Smandoli
    I'm used to web development using LAMP, PHP5, MySQL plus NetBeans with Xdebug. Now I want to improve my development, by learning how to use (A) proper testing and (B) a framework. So I have set up CodeIgniter, SimpleTest and the easy Xdebug add-in for Firefox. This is great fun because maroonbytes provided me with clear instructions and a configured setup ready for download. I am standing on the shoulders of giants, and very grateful. I've used SimpleTest a bit in the past. Here is a the kind of thing I wrote: <?php require_once('../simpletest/unit_tester.php'); require_once('../simpletest/reporter.php'); class TestOfMysqlTransaction extends UnitTestCase { function testDB_ViewTable() { $this->assertEqual(1,1); // a pseudo-test } } $test = new TestOfMysqlTransaction(); $test->run(new HtmlReporter()) ?> So I hope I know what a test looks like. What I can't figure out is where and how to put a test in my new setup. I don't see any sample tests in the maroonbytes package, and Google so far has led me to posts that assume unit testing is already functionally available. What do I do?

    Read the article

  • Get Image from Byte Aarray.

    - by Arun Thakkar
    Hello Everyone!! Hope You all are fine and also in one of your best of moods!! Hope You all are Enjoying iPhone development. I herewith one issue that i am not able to solve, may be i don't know the depth concept of iPhone. So Its my humble requet to you to guide me or suggest or share your ideas. I do find an issue with getting an image from Bytes array. I am calling a webservice which returns an image in form of Bytes Array as response. I have Converted this bytes array in to form of NSData, Now i have NSData, But When i Try to get an image from this NSData, It shows nil. I Did lots of R&D and Find one suggestion to use base64 encoder, But unfortunately because of not proper guidance I was not able to Implement that. I was also suggested to use OPenSSL Library for base64 from url http://www.cocoadev.com/index.pl?BaseSixtyFour But again i was not able to include #include #include these two files. as in Newer Version of SDK 3.X family Apple has depreciated those (as i guess). So Now i need help from you guys. kindly help me if you have solution or if you know the steps to solve these. Looking Forwards. Regards, Arun Thakkar

    Read the article

  • Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

    - by Christopher MacKinnon
    I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Preprocessor "macro function" vs. function pointer - best practice?

    - by Dustin
    I recently started a small personal project (RGB value to BGR value conversion program) in C, and I realised that a function that converts from RGB to BGR can not only perform the conversion but also the inversion. Obviously that means I don't really need two functions rgb2bgr and bgr2rgb. However, does it matter whether I use a function pointer instead of a macro? For example: int rgb2bgr (const int rgb); /* * Should I do this because it allows the compiler to issue * appropriate error messages using the proper function name, * not to mention possible debugging benefits? */ int (*bgr2rgb) (const int bgr) = rgb2bgr; /* * Or should I do this since it is merely a convenience * and they're really the same function anyway? */ #define bgr2rgb(bgr) (rgb2bgr (bgr)) I'm not necessarily looking for a change in execution efficiency as it's more of a subjective question out of curiosity. I am well aware of the fact that type safety is neither lost nor gained using either method. Would the function pointer merely be a convenience or are there more practical benefits to be gained of which I am unaware?

    Read the article

  • Starting an STA thread, but with parameters to the final function

    - by DRapp
    I'm a bit weak on how some delegates behave, such as passing a method as the parameter to be invoked. While trying to do some NUnit test scripts, I have something that I need to run many test with. Each of these tests requires a GUI created and thus the need for an STA thread. So, I have something like public class MyTest { // the Delegate "ThreadStart" is part of the System.Threading namespace and is defined as // public delegate void ThreadStart(); protected void Start_STA_Thread(ThreadStart whichMethod) { Thread thread = new Thread(whichMethod); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA); //Set the thread to STA thread.Start(); thread.Join(); } [Test] public void Test101() { // Since the thread issues an INVOKE of a method, I'm having it call the // corresponding "FromSTAThread" method, such as Start_STA_Thread( Test101FromSTAThread ); } protected void Test101FromSTAThread() { MySTA_RequiredClass oTmp = new MySTA_RequiredClass(); Assert.IsTrue( oTmp.DoSomething() ); } } This part all works fine... Now the next step. I now have a different set of tests that ALSO require an STA thread. However, each "thing" I need to do requires two parameters... both strings (for this case). How do I go about declaring proper delegate so I can pass in the method I need to invoke, AND the two string parameters in one shot... I may have 20+ tests to run with in this pattern and may have future of other similar tests with different parameter counts and types of parameters too. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

    Read the article

  • Creating a Mysql view to SELECT coloumns from different tables

    - by user330429
    I need help in constructing a VIEW on 4 tables. The view should contain coloumns: ER.ID, ER.EMPID, ER.CUSTID, ER.STATUS, ER.DATEREPORTED, ER.REPORT, EB.NAME, CR.CUSTNAME, CR.LOCID, CL.LOCNAME, DI.DEPTNAME ALIASES EMP_REPORT ER , EMP_BIO EB, CUST_RECORD CR, CUST_LOC CL, DEPT_ID DI THE DATA MODELS ARE: describe EMP_REPORT; +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | id | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | empid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | custid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | status | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | datereported | bigint(20) | NO | | NULL | | | report | text | YES | | NULL | | +--------------+-------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe EMP_BIO; +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | empid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | name | varchar(56) | NO | | NULL | | | sex | char(1) | NO | | NULL | | | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | email | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | gtlk | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | skype | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | cvid | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +--------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe CUST_RECORD; +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | custid | int(11) | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | custname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | | address | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | | | contactp | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | | mobile | bigint(20) | YES | | NULL | | | locid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | remarks | text | YES | | NULL | | | date | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | | addedby | int(11) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+--------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ describe CUST_LOC; +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | locid | int(11) | NO | PRI | 0 | | | locname | varchar(32) | NO | | NULL | | +---------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ describe DEPT_ID; +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ | deptid | int(11) | NO | | NULL | | | deptname | varchar(32) | YES | | NULL | | +----------+-------------+------+-----+---------+-------+ The table EMP_REPORT contains reports submitted by employees, all the coloumns in it needs to be fetched. The empid in this table should be used to fetch corresponding name in EMP_BIO (employee biodata) table. The custid in EMP_REPORT should be used to fetch corresponding locid in CUST_RECORD(customer record) which is used to fetch locname in CUST_LOC(customer location) table. The empid in EMP_REPORT is used to fetch corresponding deptid in EMP_BIO table which is then used to fetch corresponding deptname from DEPT_ID(department id) table. I tried constructing view using union of different select queries, but dint get proper results. Please help me. Thanks in advance. PS: sorry for my poor english

    Read the article

  • efficient android rendering

    - by llll
    I've read quite a few tutorials on game programming on android, and all of them provide basically the same solution as to drawing the game, that is having a dedicated thread spinning like this: public void run() { while(true) { if(!surfaceHolder.getSurface().isValid()) continue; Canvas canvas = surfaceHolder.lockCanvas(); drawGame(canvas); /* do actual drawing here */ surfaceHolder.unlockCanvasAndPost(canvas); } } now I'm wondering, isn't this wasteful? Suppose I've a game with very simple graphics, so that the actual time in drawGame is little; then I'm going to draw the same things on and on, stealing cpu from the other threads; a possibility could be skipping the drawing and sleeping a bit if the game state hasn't changed, which I could check by having the state update thread mantaining a suitable status flag. But maybe there are other options. For example, couldn'it be possible to synchronize with rendering, so that I don't post updates too often? Or am I missing something and that is precisely what lockCanvas does, that is it blocks and burns no cpu until proper time? Thanks in advance L.

    Read the article

  • Is sending a hashed password over the wire a security hole?

    - by Ubiquitous Che
    I've come across a system that is in use by a company that we are considering partnering with on a medium-sized (for us, not them) project. They have a web service that we will need to integrate with. My current understanding of proper username/password management is that the username may be stored as plaintext in the database. Every user should have a unique pseudo-random salt, which may also be stored in plaintext. The text of their password must be concatenated with the salt and then this combined string may be hashed and stored in the database in an nvarchar field. So long as passwords are submitted to the website (or web service) over plaintext, everything should be just lovely. Feel free to rip into my understanding as summarized above if I'm wrong. Anyway, back to the subject at hand. The WebService run by this potential partner doesn't accept username and password, which I had anticipated. Instead, it accepts two string fields named 'Username' and 'PasswordHash'. The 'PasswordHash' value that I have been given does indeed look like a hash, and not just a value for a mis-named password field. This is raising a red flag for me. I'm not sure why, but I feel uncomfortable sending a hashed password over the wire for some reason. Off the top of my head I can't think of a reason why this would be a bad thing... Technically, the hash is available on the database anyway. But it's making me nervous, and I'm not sure if there's a reason for this or if I'm just being paranoid.

    Read the article

  • Process xml-like log file queue

    - by Zsolt Botykai
    Hi all, first of all: I'm not a programmer, never was, although had learn a lot during my professional carreer as a support consultant. Now my task is to process - and create some statistics about a constantly written and rapidly growing XML like log file. It's not valid XML, because it does not have a proper <root> element, e.g. the log looks like this: <log itemdate="somedate"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+1"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+n"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> E.g. I have to count all the items with field id=0. But most of the solutions I had found (e.g. using XPath) reports an error about the garbage after the first closing </log>. Most probably I can use python (2.6, although I can compile 3.x as well), or some really old perl version (5.6.x), and recently compiled xmlstarlet which really looks promising - I was able to create the statistics for a certain period after copying the file, and pre- & appending the opening and closing root element. But this is a huge file and copying takes time as well. Isn't there a better solution? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Uploading a file to imgur using PHP Imgurv3 API

    - by user434885
    I writing a webapp which uploads images to imgur directly. Since all older version of their APIs have been deprecated i am forced to use v3 of their APIs. Unfortunately I am unable to get the API to work. I am using curl to access the API. $pvars = array('image' => base64_encode($data)); $timeout = 30; $curl = curl_init(); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_URL, 'https://api.imgur.com/3/upload'); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, $timeout); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $pvars); curl_setopt($curl, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Authorization: Client-ID xxxxxxa61xxxxxx')); $xml = curl_exec($curl); $xmlsimple = new SimpleXMLElement($xml); print gettype($xml)."<hr>"; echo '<img height="180" src="'; echo $xmlsimple->links->original; echo '">'; curl_close ($curl); The "Xml" variable always return as "false", no server error is displayed. Can someone guide me to what I am doing wrong ? Unfortunately I am also unable to find any proper example in the documentation nor around to guide me.

    Read the article

  • one two-directed tcp socket OR two one-directed? (linux, high volume, low latency)

    - by osgx
    Hello I need to send (interchange) a high volume of data periodically with the lowest possible latency between 2 machines. The network is rather fast (e.g. 1Gbit or even 2G+). Os is linux. Is it be faster with using 1 tcp socket (for send and recv) or with using 2 uni-directed tcp sockets? The test for this task is very like NetPIPE network benchmark - measure latency and bandwidth for sizes from 2^1 up to 2^13 bytes, each size sent and received 3 times at least (in teal task the number of sends is greater. both processes will be sending and receiving, like ping-pong maybe). The benefit of 2 uni-directed connections come from linux: http://lxr.linux.no/linux+v2.6.18/net/ipv4/tcp_input.c#L3847 3847/* 3848 * TCP receive function for the ESTABLISHED state. 3849 * 3850 * It is split into a fast path and a slow path. The fast path is 3851 * disabled when: ... 3859 * - Data is sent in both directions. Fast path only supports pure senders 3860 * or pure receivers (this means either the sequence number or the ack 3861 * value must stay constant) ... 3863 * 3864 * When these conditions are not satisfied it drops into a standard 3865 * receive procedure patterned after RFC793 to handle all cases. 3866 * The first three cases are guaranteed by proper pred_flags setting, 3867 * the rest is checked inline. Fast processing is turned on in 3868 * tcp_data_queue when everything is OK. All other conditions for disabling fast path is false. And only not-unidirected socket stops kernel from fastpath in receive

    Read the article

  • C callback functions defined in an unnamed namespace?

    - by Johannes Schaub - litb
    Hi all. I have a C++ project that uses a C bison parser. The C parser uses a struct of function pointers to call functions that create proper AST nodes when productions are reduced by bison: typedef void Node; struct Actions { Node *(*newIntLit)(int val); Node *(*newAsgnExpr)(Node *left, Node *right); /* ... */ }; Now, in the C++ part of the project, i fill those pointers class AstNode { /* ... */ }; class IntLit : public AstNode { /* ... */ }; extern "C" { Node *newIntLit(int val) { return (Node*)new IntLit(val); } /* ... */ } Actions createActions() { Actions a; a.newIntLit = &newIntLit; /* ... */ return a; } Now the only reason i put them within extern "C" is because i want them to have C calling conventions. But optimally, i would like their names still be mangled. They are never called by-name from C code, so name mangling isn't an issue. Having them mangled will avoid name conflicts, since some actions are called like error, and the C++ callback function has ugly names like the following just to avoid name clashes with other modules. extern "C" { void uglyNameError(char const *str) { /* ... */ } /* ... */ } a.error = &uglyNameError; I wondered whether it could be possible by merely giving the function type C linkage extern "C" void fty(char const *str); namespace { fty error; /* Declared! But i can i define it with that type!? */ } Any ideas? I'm looking for Standard-C++ solutions.

    Read the article

  • Strict pointer aliasing: is access through a 'volatile' pointer/reference a solution?

    - by doublep
    On the heels of a specific problem, a self-answer and comments to it, I'd like to understand if it is a proper solution, workaround/hack or just plain wrong. Specifically, I rewrote code: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <int*> (&x) == 0) ... As: T x = ...; if (*reinterpret_cast <volatile int*> (&x) == 0) ... with a volatile qualifier to the pointer. Let's just assume that treating T as int in my situation makes sense. Does this accessing through a volatile reference solve pointer aliasing problem? For a reference, from specification: [ Note: volatile is a hint to the implementation to avoid aggressive optimization involving the object because the value of the object might be changed by means undetectable by an implementation. See 1.9 for detailed semantics. In general, the semantics of volatile are intended to be the same in C++ as they are in C. — end note ] EDIT: The above code did solve my problem at least on GCC 4.5.

    Read the article

  • How to create a generic list in this wierd case in c#

    - by Marc Bettex
    Hello, In my program, I have a class A which is extended by B, C and many more classes. I have a method GetInstance() which returns a instance of B or C (or of one of the other child), but I don't know which one, so the return type of the method is A. In the method CreateGenericList(), I have a variable v of type A, which is in fact either a B, a C or another child type and I want to create a generic list of the proper type, i.e. List<B> if v is a B or List<C> if v is a C, ... Currently I do it by using reflection, which works, but this is extremely slow. I wanted to know if there is another way to to it, which doesn't use reflection. Here is an example of the code of my problem: class A { } class B : A { } class C : A { } // More childs of A. class Program { static A GetInstance() { // returns an instance of B or C } static void CreateGenericList() { A v = Program.GetInstance(); IList genericList = // Here I want an instance of List<B> or List<C> or ... depending of the real type of v, not a List<A>. } } I tried the following hack. I call the following method, hoping the type inferencer will guess the type of model, but it doesn't work and return a List<A>. I believe that because c# is statically typed, T is resolved as A and not as the real type of model at runtime. static List<T> CreateGenericListFromModel<T>(T model) where T : A { return new List<T> (); } Does anybody have a solution to that problem that doesn't use reflection or that it is impossible to solve that problem without reflection? Thank you very much, Marc

    Read the article

  • Scripts fail when jQuery.js isn't cached. When cached, scripts run fine.

    - by Bob
    I have jQuery UI Tabs which load their content via AJAX. About once every 15 times when the entire page is loaded (not just XHR), things fail and I don't see the proper content in the tab. Fiddler showed me that when things fail I also see that jQuery.js and jQuery-ui.js are both sent to the browser in full (~100kB). Normally, a page load results in HTTP status code 304 for both of those files, they're not re-downloaded, and the page displays properly. When the status code is 200 and fresh copies of jQuery/UI are sent, things fail. I notice this most often in IE8, but that's because I use it for web development. I have seen it in Firefox, but for some reason I can't reproduce it now. Fiddler shows that the HTTP request asks for: GET /Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js?_=1255309685187 HTTP/1.1 I can't figure out what the ?_=1255309685187 is for, but I'm guessing it's a token to indicate for how long the file should be cached. Since I can't reproduce the problem in Firefox right now, I don't know what Firebug says. Any insight would be appreciated. EDIT: This is with Visual Studio's development webserver.

    Read the article

  • Flash CS5 screwed up all my textfields - how can I correct this?

    - by WillyCornbread
    Hi - I have an Actionscript project that I was building using Flash CS4. I embedded a font using the follow: [Embed(source="/bin/assets/fonts/MyriadPro-Regular.otf", fontWeight="normal", fontFamily="Myriad Pro")] Then throughout my application in my TextFields I would set embedFonts to true antialiastype to advanced and set the thickness property of the text field. And setting the font-family from a stylesheet. This was all working exactly as I expected it would with no issues whatsoever and months of development. I just upgraded to CS5 and published and none of my text is rendered at all. I was able to resolve this by removing the embedFonts = true from the textfields, but this leaves me with no control over the thickness at all. I searched everywhere, does anyone know what the proper way to do this in CS5 is now? I've tried embedding my font directly within the CS5 IDE but still no thickness control. Thanks in advance for any help - I've got tons of textfields throughout my app that are all ganked right now. Thanks Adobe. b

    Read the article

  • Question about the benefit of using an ORM

    - by johnny
    I want to use an ORM for learning purposes and am try nhibernate. I am using the tutorial and then I have a real project. I can go the "old way" or use an ORM. I'm not sure I totally understand the benefit. On the one hand I can create my abstractions in code such that I can change my databases and be database independent. On the other it seems that if I actually change the database columns I have to change all my code. Why wouldn't I have my application without the ORM, change my database and change my code, instead of changing my database, orm, and code? Is it that they database structure doesn't change that much? I believe there are real benefits because ORMs are used by so many. I'm just not sure I get it yet. Thank you. EDIT: In the tutorial they have many files that are used to make the ORM work http://www.hibernate.org/362.html In the event of an application change, it seems like a lot of extra work just to say that I have "proper" abstraction layers. Because I'm new at it it doesn't look that easy to maintain and again seems like extra work, not less.

    Read the article

  • PHP: MySQL query duplicating update for no reason

    - by ThinkingInBits
    The code below is first the client code, then the class file. For some reason the 'deductTokens()' method is calling twice, thus charging an account double. I've been programming all night, so I may just need a second pair of eyes: if ($action == 'place_order') { if ($_REQUEST['unlimited'] == 200) { $license = 'extended'; } else { $license = 'standard'; } if ($photograph->isValidPhotographSize($photograph_id, $_REQUEST['size_radio'])) { $token_cost = $photograph->getTokenCost($_REQUEST['size_radio'], $_REQUEST['unlimited']); $order = new ImageOrder($_SESSION['user']['id'], $_REQUEST['size_radio'], $license, $token_cost); $order->saveOrder(); $order->deductTokens(); header('location: account.php'); } else { die("Please go back and select a valid photograph size"); } } ######CLASS CODE####### <?php include_once('database_classes.php'); class Order { protected $account_id; protected $cost; protected $license; public function __construct($account_id, $license, $cost) { $this->account_id = $account_id; $this->cost = $cost; $this->license = $license; } } class ImageOrder extends Order { protected $size; public function __construct($account_id, $size, $license, $cost) { $this->size = $size; parent::__construct($account_id, $license, $cost); } public function saveOrder() { //$db = Connect::connect(); //$account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); //$size = $db->real_escape_string($this->size); //$license = $db->real_escape_string($this->license); //$cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); } public function deductTokens() { $db = Connect::connect(); $account_id = $db->real_escape_string($this->account_id); $cost = $db->real_escape_string($this->cost); $query = "UPDATE accounts set tokens=tokens-$cost WHERE id=$account_id"; $result = $db->query($query); } } ?> When I die("$query"); directly after the query, it's printing the proper statement, and when I run that query within MySQL it works perfectly.

    Read the article

  • Find and Replace with Notepad++

    - by Levi
    I have a document that was converted from PDF to HTML for use on a company website to be referenced and indexed for search. I'm attempting to format the converted document to meet my needs and in doing so I am attempting to clean up some of the junk that was pulled over from when it was a PDF such as page numbers, headers, and footers. luckily all of these lines that need to be removed are in blocks of 4 lines unfortunately they are not exactly the same therefore cannot be removed with a simple literal replace. The lines contain numbers which are incremental as they correlate with the pages. How can I remove the following example from my html file. Title<br> 10<br> <hr> <A name=11></a>Footer<br> I've tried many different regular expression attempts but as my skill in that area is limited I can't find the proper syntax. I'm sure i'm missing something fairly easy as it would seem all I need is a wildcard replace for the two numbers in the code and the rest is literal. any help is apprciated

    Read the article

  • changing the serialization procedure for a graph of objects (.net framework)

    - by pierusch
    Hello I'm developing a scientific application using .net framework. The application depends heavily upon a large data structure (a tree like structure) that has been serialized using a standard binaryformatter object. The graph structure looks like this: <serializable()>Public class BigObjet inherits list(of smallObject) end class <serializable()>public class smallObject inherits list(of otherSmallerObjects) end class ... The binaryFormatter object does a nice job but it's not optimized at all and the entire data structure reaches around 100Mb on my filesystem. Deserialization works too but it's pretty slow (around 30seconds on my quad core). I've found a nice .dll on codeproject (see "optimizing serialization...") so I wrote a modified version of the classes above overriding the default serialization/deserialization procedure reaching very good results. The problem is this: I can't lose the data previosly serialized with the old version and I'd like to be able to use the new serialization/deserialization method. I have some ideas but I'm pretty sure someone will be able to give me a proper and better advice ! use an "helper" graph of objects who takes care of the entire serialization/deserialization procedure reading data from the old format and converting them into the classes I nedd. This could work but the binaryformatter "needs" to know the types being serialized so........ :( modify the "old" graph to include a modified version of serialization procedure...so I'll be able to deserialize old file and save them with the new format......this doesn't sound too good imho. well any help will be higly highly appreciated :)

    Read the article

  • Error in bisection method code in Matlab

    - by Amanda Collins
    I need to write a proper implementation of the bisection method, which means I must address all possible user input errors. Here is my code: function [x_sol, f_at_x_sol, N_iterations] = bisection(f, xn, xp, eps_f, eps_x) % solving f(x)=0 with bisection method % f is the function handle to the desired function, % xn and xp are borders of search, % f(xn)<0 and f(xp)>0 required, % eps_f defines how close f(x) should be to zero, % eps_x defines uncertainty of solution x if(f(xp) < 0) error('xp must be positive') end; if(f(xn)>0) error('xn must be negative') end; if (xn >= xp) error ('xn must be less than xp') end; xg=(xp+xn)/2; %initial guess fg=f(xg); % initial function evaluation N_iterations=1; while ( (abs(fg) > eps_f) & (abs(xg-xp) > eps_x) ) if (fg>0) xp=xg; else xn=xg; end xg=(xp+xn)/2; %update guess fg=f(xg); %update function evaluation N_iterations=N_iterations+1; end x_sol=xg; %solution is ready f_at_x_sol=fg; if (f_at_x_sol > eps_f) error('No convergence') end and here is the error message I receive when I try to test this in Matlab: >> bisection(x.^2, 2, -1, 1e-8, 1e-10) Attempted to access f(-1); index must be a positive integer or logical. Error in bisection (line 9) if(f(xp)<0) I was attempting to see if my error codes worked, but it doesn't look like they do. I get the same error when I try to test it on a function that should work.

    Read the article

  • Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

    - by kujawk
    Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

    Read the article

  • What's the SQL function for timestamp manipulation?

    - by Eric Leroy
    I'm new to SQL and the time functions are different than mySQL so I'm having a terrible time finding a good site reference with USEFUL timestamp queries. I'm not able to locate the correct way of doing this query in SQL: Id Timestamp ----------------------------------- 1145744 2012-10-10 18:15:11.500 1145743 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145742 2012-10-10 18:15:11.313 1145741 2012-10-10 18:15:11.253 1145740 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145739 2012-10-10 18:15:11.190 1145738 2012-10-10 18:15:11.127 1145737 2012-10-10 18:15:11.067 1145736 2012-10-10 18:15:11.063 1145735 2012-10-10 18:15:10.940 1145734 2012-10-10 18:15:10.817 SELECT * from table WHERE Timestamp ... RANGE I need the range of 2 timestamps so I can select rows by the following parameters: second range minute range hour range day range week range month range year range Is there one function to put in 2 timestamps and get the range? or is this a mix of functions I need? Any good site references would be greatly appriceated. MSDN site isn't helping me isolate the proper way of doing this. I've been searching for about an hour trying to get the last day from 1:30PM to 1:30PM today.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163  | Next Page >