Search Results

Search found 5044 results on 202 pages for 'clausal logic'.

Page 158/202 | < Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >

  • Dependency Property ListBox

    - by developer
    Hi All, I want to use a dependency property, so that my label displays values selected in the listbox. This is just to more clearly understand the working of a dependency property. <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:WPFToolkit="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Controls;assembly=WPFToolkit" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" x:Name="MyWindow" Height="200" Width="300" > <StackPanel> <ListBox x:Name="lbColor" Width="248" Height="56" ItemsSource="{Binding TestColor}"/> <StackPanel> <Label Content="{Binding Path=Test, ElementName=lbColor}" /> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </Window> Code Behind, namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public ObservableCollection<string> TestColor { get; set; } public String Test { get { return (String)GetValue(TestProperty); } set { SetValue(TestProperty, value); } } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for Title. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty TestProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("Test", typeof(String), typeof(ListBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("Test1")); public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); TestColor = new ObservableCollection<string>(); DataContext = this; TestColor.Add("Red"); TestColor.Add("Orange"); TestColor.Add("Yellow"); TestColor.Add("Green"); TestColor.Add("Blue"); } } } Can anyone explain me how will I accompalish this using a dependency property. Somehow I am very confused with the Dependency Property concept, and I just wanted to see a working example for that.

    Read the article

  • On-Demand thumbnail creation with django and nginx

    - by sharjeel
    I want to generate thumbnails of images on the fly. My site is built with django and deployed using nginx which serves all the static content and communicates with django/apache using reverse proxy. Right now, for every image in my site, I generate all required sizes of thumbnails on-hand and deliver them when required. The problem is that whenever I change the size of a thumbnail, I have to regenerate all of them (and they are tons). However now I'd like to generate the thumbnail the first time it is accessed and later on nginx would deliver the same file over n over. If I delete that thumbnail file because of lesser accesses, it should get generated automatically the next time. Thumbnails in my case also have watermarks which require some computation logic of my application so a webserver thumbnail module might not work very well. The size of the thumbnail can be embedded in the URL. So http://www.example.com/thumbnail/abc_320x240.jpg gets the 320x240 size of the thumbnail. The approach I'm looking right now is to let nginx lookup the file and if it doesn't exist, forward the query to my django application which would create the thumbnail and send either the response or a redirect string. However I'm not sure about the concurrency issues and any other issues which might pop up later. What is the appropriate way to achieve this?

    Read the article

  • "hour" int taken from NSDate not behaving as expected at midnight??

    - by Eric
    I feel like I've lost my mind. Can someone tell me what's going on here? Also, I'm sure there is a better way to do what I'm trying to do, but I'm not interested in that now. I'd just like to solve the mystery of why my ints are not responding to logic as expected. // Set "At: " field close to current time NSDateFormatter *dateFormatter = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"HH"]; int hour = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; [dateFormatter setDateFormat:@"mm"]; int minute = [[dateFormatter stringFromDate:[NSDate date]] intValue]; NSLog(@"currently %i:%i",hour, minute); if(hour >= 12){ // convert to AM/PM selectedMeridiem = 1; if(hour != 12){ hour = hour - 12; } } else{ selectedMeridiem = 0; } selectedHour = hour - 1; if(selectedHour <= 0){ selectedHour = 11; } When I debug the above code with my clock set to 12:XX AM, the integer "hour" returned is 0. But then any if statements with the condition if(hour == 0) are not evaluated. Likewise, this would not be evaluated either: if(hour < 1). The code above puts the hour int into another int, selectedHour (don't worry about why I'm doing this for now), but selectedHour suffers from the same weird behavior; the if(selectedHour <= 0) line is never evaluated. Am I going crazy, or am I just an idiot? Maybe there's some behavior of 0 integers that I'm not aware of. All of my code runs fine as long as it's not 12:XX AM.

    Read the article

  • Understanding sql queries formulation methodoloy. How do you think while formulating Sql Queries

    - by Shantanu Gupta
    I have been working on sql server and front end coding and have usually faced problem formulating queries. I do understand most of the concepts of sql that are needed in formulating queries but whenever some new functionality comes into the picture that can be dont using sql query, i do usually fails resolving them. I am very comfortable with select queries using joins and all such things but when it comes to DML operation i usually fails For every query that i never done before I usually finds uncomfortable with that while creating them. Whenever I goes for an interview I usually faces this problem. Is it their some concept behind approaching on formulating sql queries. Eg. I need to create an sql query such that A table contain single column having duplicate record. I need to remove duplicate records. I know i can find the solution to this query very easily on Googling, but I want to know how everyone comes to the desired result. Is it something like Practice Makes Man Perfect i.e. once you did it, next time you will be able to formulate or their is some logic or concept behind.

    Read the article

  • Calling services from the Orchestrating layer in SOA?

    - by Martin Lee
    The Service Oriented Architecture Principles site says that Service Composition is an important thing in SOA. But Service Loose Coupling is important as well. Does that mean that the "Orchestrating layer" should be the only one that is allowed to make calls to services in the system? As I understand SOA, the "Orchestrating layer" 'glues' all the services together into one software application. I tried to depict that on Fig.A and Fig.B. The difference between the two is that on Fig.A the application is composed of services and all the logic is done in the "Orchestrating layer" (all calls to services are done from the "Orchestrating layer" only). On Fig.B the application is composed from services, but one service calls another service. Does the architecture on Fig.B violate the "Service Loose Coupling" principle of SOA? Can a service call another service in SOA? And more generally, can the architecture on Fig.A be considered superior to the one on Fig.B in terms of service loose coupling, abstraction, reusability, autonomy, etc.? My guess is that the A architecture is much more universal, but it can add some unnecessary data transfers between the "Orchestrating layer" and all the called services.

    Read the article

  • Returning true or error message in Ruby

    - by seaneshbaugh
    I'm wondering if writing functions like this is considered good or bad form. def test(x) if x == 1 return true else return "Error: x is not equal to one." end end And then to use it we do something like this: result = test(1) if result != true puts result end result = test(2) if result != true puts result end Which just displays the error message for the second call to test. I'm considering doing this because in a rails project I'm working on inside my controller code I make calls to a model's instance methods and if something goes wrong I want the model to return the error message to the controller and the controller takes that error message and puts it in the flash and redirects. Kinda like this def create @item = Item.new(params[:item]) if [email protected]? result = @item.save_image(params[:attachment][:file]) if result != true flash[:notice] = result redirect_to(new_item_url) and return end #and so on... That way I'm not constructing the error messages in the controller, merely passing them along, because I really don't want the controller to be concerned with what the save_image method itself does just whether or not it worked. It makes sense to me, but I'm curious as to whether or not this is considered a good or bad way of writing methods. Keep in mind I'm asking this in the most general sense pertaining mostly to ruby, it just happens that I'm doing this in a rails project, the actual logic of the controller really isn't my concern.

    Read the article

  • Managing logs/warnings in Python extensions

    - by Dimitri Tcaciuc
    TL;DR version: What do you use for configurable (and preferably captured) logging inside your C++ bits in a Python project? Details follow. Say you have a a few compiled .so modules that may need to do some error checking and warn user of (partially) incorrect data. Currently I'm having a pretty simplistic setup where I'm using logging framework from Python code and log4cxx library from C/C++. log4cxx log level is defined in a file (log4cxx.properties) and is currently fixed and I'm thinking how to make it more flexible. Couple of choices that I see: One way to control it would be to have a module-wide configuration call. # foo/__init__.py import sys from _foo import import bar, baz, configure_log configure_log(sys.stdout, WARNING) # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): # Maybe a custom context to change the logfile for # the module and restore it at the end. with CaptureLog(foo) as log: assert foo.bar() == 5 assert log.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Have every compiled function that does logging accept optional log parameters. # foo.c int bar(PyObject* x, PyObject* logfile, PyObject* loglevel) { LoggerPtr logger = default_logger("foo"); if (logfile != Py_None) logger = file_logger(logfile, loglevel); ... } # tests/test_foo.py def test_foo(): with TemporaryFile() as logfile: assert foo.bar(logfile=logfile, loglevel=DEBUG) == 5 assert logfile.read() == "124.24 - foo - INFO - Bar returning 5" Some other way? Second one seems to be somewhat cleaner, but it requires function signature alteration (or using kwargs and parsing them). First one is.. probably somewhat awkward but sets up entire module in one go and removes logic from each individual function. What are your thoughts on this? I'm all ears to alternative solutions as well. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Creating a Multiwindowed Cocoa Program - Launching Procedure Suggestions?

    - by Jeffrey Kern
    I'm porting an application I developed in Visual Studio 2008 over to Cocoa. I'm currently doing a 'learn-as-you-go' approach to Cocoa, so I can experiment with different ideas and techniques in smaller, simpler projects and eventually combine them into one big application. My program logic is as follows (in a dumbed-down sense). Items in the list are mandated by my boss. Application is started 1a. Verify CD program is in drive. Verify license. If found and is valid, skip to step 7 Display license agreement. Display serial number prompt. Verify and save serial number. Hide all prior windows. Load main application window Intercept requests and commands from main application window, including making a duplicate main application window Exit program when requested by user What would the best bet be for this type of application? From another question I asked, I found out that I should keep the 'main application' window in a separate XIB file from the rest, because I might need to clone and interact with it. I know that since Cocoa and Objective-C is based off of C, there is a Main method somewhere. But what would you all suggest as a starting place for an application like this?

    Read the article

  • flash creates more than one http request

    - by MilanAleksic
    We are facing one issue directly connected with our Flash API we've given to a 3rd party flash vendor. To make a long story short, our API basically wraps domain logic on client and creates a single POST request towards the server in JSON format. All will be ok except in combination MacOS + Safari we receive double requests on server (?). Even more interesting, we are receiving different agent names - one is expected name/decriptor of the browser and system, other is "CFNetwork". POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 Mozilla/5.0+(Macintosh;+U;+Intel+Mac+OS+X+10_4_11;+fr)+AppleWebKit/531.22.7+(KHTML,+like+Gecko)+Version/4.0.5+Safari/531.22.7 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 POST /RuntimeDelegate.ashx - 80 CFNetwork/129.24 200 0 0 Has anyone encounter anything like this before?

    Read the article

  • Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

    - by Paul
    I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

    Read the article

  • Cookie not working after mod rewrite rule

    - by moonwalker
    Hi all, I have a simple Cookie to set the chosen language: $lang = $_GET['lang']; $myLang = $_COOKIE["myLang"]; if (!isset($_COOKIE["myLang"])){ setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire); include "languages/en.php"; $myLang = "en"; }else{ include "languages/$myLang.php"; } // One year to expire $expire = time()+60*60*24*30*365; // Put $languages in a common header file. $languages = array('en' => 1, 'fr' => 2, 'nl' => 3); if (array_key_exists($lang, $languages)) { include "languages/{$lang}.php"; setcookie("myLang", $lang, $expire); $myLang = $lang; } After using some rewrite rules, it just doesn't work anymore. I tried the following: setcookie("myLang", "en", $expire, "/" , false); No luck at all. This is my .htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> Options +FollowSymLinks Options +Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^sort/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/sort.php?mode=$1&cat=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1 [L] RewriteRule ^category/([^/]*)/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/category.php?cat=$1&lang=$2 [L] RewriteRule ^search/([^/]*)$ /3arsi2/search.php?mode=$1 [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^u/([^/]+)/(images|videos|music)/?$ 3arsi2/user.php?user=$1&page=$2 [NC,L] RewriteRule ^([^\.]+)$ 3arsi2/$1.php [NC,L] </IfModule> Any idea how to solve this? I'm still new to the mod rewrite thing, so I still don't really understand the logic behind it all. Thanks for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • Passing filtering functions to Where() in LINQ-to-SQL

    - by Daniel
    I'm trying to write a set of filtering functions that can be chained together to progressively filter a data set. What's tricky about this is that I want to be able to define the filters in a different context from that in which they'll be used. I've gotten as far as being able to pass a very basic function to the Where() clause in a LINQ statement: filters file: Func<item, bool> returnTrue = (i) => true; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItems() { return DataContext.Items.Where(returnTrue); } This works. However, as soon as I try to use more complicated logic, the trouble begins: filters file: Func<item, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i) => i.assignedUserId == userId; repository file: public IQueryable<item> getItemsAssignedToUser(int userId) { return DataContext.Items.Where(isAssignedToUser); } This won't even build because userId isn't in the same scope as isAssignedToUser(). I've also tried declaring a function that takes the userId as a parameter: Func<item, int, bool> isAssignedToUser = (i, userId) => i.assignedUserId == userId; The problem with this is that it doesn't fit the function signature that Where() is expecting: Func<item, bool> There must be a way to do this, but I'm at a loss for how. I don't feel like I'm explaining this very well, but hopefully you get the gist. Thanks, Daniel

    Read the article

  • javascript equivalent of ASP preInit event

    - by Pankaj Kumar
    Hi guys, searching for this has yielded no resuts.. i have a middle page that has an iframe and all the pages open in that iframe...i have to implement a chat system just like in Google and so to ensure that the chat windows did not close whwn the page would postback i am opening all pages in iframe.... this is a social networking site and user can have themes which have background images per theme now when i visit a friends profile the backgrounf image of the middle page should change... i have this code to find parent of iframe and change background image $(document).ready(function(){ var theme=document.getElementById("ctl00_decideFooterH").value; var t= parent.document.getElementsByTagName("body"); if(theme=='basicTheme'){ t[0].className="basic"; } else if(theme=='Tranquility') { t[0].className="Tranquility"; } else if(theme=='AbstractPink') { t[0].className="abstractPink"; } }); and this code is the master page that all child pages that would open in iframe would access..the trouble is that there is a lag between the theme application on server side(which happens at PreInit) and the background image change which is done by this document.ready that gets executed after the iframe has loaded.. so essentially i need a javascript function that would either execute parallel to PreInit or some other logic....so guys plz help its urgent

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Data Annotations on ViewModels or Domain Objects

    - by Ahmad
    Where would data annotations be more suitable: ViewModels or Domain Objects or Both I am struggling to decide where these will be more suited. I have not as yet fully utilized them but this question came to mind. From most of the examples I have seen, they are generally placed on Models and simply use the required attributes for validation using ModelState.IsValid. I have also seen another question on SO where the use of data annotations alone is not sufficient and advocate. Option 1 - I will still need to validate again in my service layer. ( I think that my service layer should be complete and this include validation, since its planned to be used elsewhere) Option 2 - How will I then get the benefits of the built in validation both client and server side. Option 3 - there will be a repetition of validation logic, however I was wondering if one could use a MetaData class approach that can be used for both ViewModels and Domain Objects. ( This is completely of the top of my head, so it may be nonsensical) I wonder if this question even makes sense. If not, can someone please help in understanding this better. Have I completely misunderstood the use of data annotations?

    Read the article

  • Problem in filtering records using Dataview (C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    I have a data table . The data table is basically getting populated from excel sheet. And there are many excel sheets. Henceforth, I have written a utility method for accomplishing the same. Now in some of the excel sheets, there are date columns and in some it is not(only text/string). My function is populating the values properly into the datatable from the excell sheet. But there are many blank rows in the excel sheets some are filled with NULL , some with " ". So I need to filter those records (which are NULL or " " ) first before further processing. What I am after is to use a dataview and apply the filter over there. DataView dv = dataTable.DefaultView; dv.RowFilter = ColumnName + " <> ''"; Well by using metedata (GetOleDbSchemaTable(OleDbSchemaGuid.Columns, restrection)) I was able to get the column names from the excel sheet , so getting the column names is not an issue. But the problem is as I said in some Excel sheet there are date fileds some are not. So the Filter condition of the Dataview needs to be proper. If I apply the above logic, and if it encounters a Datafield, it is throwing error Cannot perform '<' operation on System.DateTime and System.String. Could you people please help me out? I need to filter columns(not known at compile time + their data types) which can have NULL and " " I am using C#3.0 Thanks

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework in layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

    Read the article

  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

    Read the article

  • How to load entities into readonly collections using the entity framework

    - by Anton P
    I have a POCO domain model which is wired up to the entity framework using the new ObjectContext class. public class Product { private ICollection<Photo> _photos; public Product() { _photos = new Collection<Photo>(); } public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Photo> Photos { get { return _photos; } } public void AddPhoto(Photo photo) { //Some biz logic //... _photos.Add(photo); } } In the above example i have set the Photos collection type to IEnumerable as this will make it read only. The only way to add/remove photos is through the public methods. The problem with this is that the Entity Framework cannot load the Photo entities into the IEnumerable collection as it's not of type ICollection. By changing the type to ICollection will allow callers to call the Add mentod on the collection itself which is not good. What are my options?

    Read the article

  • Strategy for animating a lot of "LED's" - thread?, UIView animations? NSOperation? (iPhone)

    - by RickiG
    Hi I have to do some different views containing 72 LED lights. I built an LED Class so I can loop through the LED's and set them to different colors (Green, Red, Orange, Blue None etc.). The LED then loads the appropriate .png. This works fine, I loop over the LED's and set them. Now I know that at some time they will need to not just turn on/off change color, but will have to turn on with a small delay. Like an equalizer. I have a 5-10 views containing the 72 LED's and I would like to achieve the above with the minimum amount of memory/CPU strain. for(LED *l in self.ledArray) { [l display:Green]; } I simply loop as shown above and inside the LED is a switch case that does the correct logic. If this were actual LED's and a microController I would use sleep(100) or similar in the loop, but I would really like to avoid stuff like that for obvious reasons. I was thinking that doing a performOnThread withDelay would really be consuming, so would UIView animation changing the alpha and NSOperation would also be a lot of lifting for a small feature. Is there a both efficient and clever way to go around this? Thanks for any inspiration given:)

    Read the article

  • Extending the .NET type system so the compiler enforces semantic meaning of primitive values in cert

    - by Drew Noakes
    I'm working with geometry a bit at the moment and am converting a lot between degrees and radians. Unfortunately, both of these are represented by double, so there's compile time warning/error if I try to pass a value in degrees where radians are expected. I believe F# has a compile-time solution for this (called units of measure.) I'd like to do something similar in C#. As another example, imagine a SQL library that accepts various query parameters as strings. It'd be good to have a way of enforcing that only clean strings were allowed to be passed in at runtime, and the only way to get a clean string was to pass through some SQL injection attack preventing logic. The obvious solution is to wrap the double/string/whatever in a new type to give it the type information the compiler needs. I'm curious if anyone has an alternative solution. If you do think wrapping is the only/best way, then please go into some of the downsides of the pattern (and any upsides I haven't mentioned too.) I'm especially concerned about the performance of abstracted primitive numeric types on my calculations at runtime.

    Read the article

  • C# delegate or Func for 'all methods'?

    - by Michel
    Hi, i've read something about Func's and delegates and that they can help you to pass a method as a parameter. Now i have a cachingservice, and it has this declaration: public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId) where T : class public static T GetFromCache<T>(string cacheId) where T : class So in a place where i want to cache some data, i check if it exists in the cache (with GetFromCache) and if not, get the data from somewhere, and the add it to the cache (with AddToCache) Now i want to extend the AddToCache method with a parameter, which is the class+method to call to get the data Then the declaration would be like this public static void AddToCache<T>(T model, double millisecs, string cacheId, Func/Delegate methode) where T : class Then this method could check wether the cache has data or not, and if not, get the data itself via the method it got provided. Then in the calling code i could say: AddToCache<Person>(p, 10000, "Person", new PersonService().GetPersonById(1)); AddToCache<Advert>(a, 100000, "Advert", new AdvertService().GetAdverts(3)); What i want to achieve is that the 'if cache is empty get data and add to cache' logic is placed on only one place. I hope this makes sense :) Oh, by the way, the question is: is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Using SQL dB column as a lock for concurrent operations in Entity Framework

    - by Sid
    We have a long running user operation that is handled by a pool of worker processes. Data input and output is from Azure SQL. The master Azure SQL table structure columns are approximated to [UserId, col1, col2, ... , col N, beingProcessed, lastTimeProcessed ] beingProcessed is boolean and lastTimeProcessed is DateTime. The logic in every worker role is: public void WorkerRoleMain() { while(true) { try { dbContext db = new dbContext(); // Read foreach (UserProfile user in db.UserProfile .Where(u => DateTime.UtcNow.Subtract(u.lastTimeProcessed) > TimeSpan.FromHours(24) & u.beingProcessed == false)) { user.beingProcessed = true; // Modify db.SaveChanges(); // Write // Do some long drawn processing here ... ... ... user.lastTimeProcessed = DateTime.UtcNow; user.beingProcessed = false; db.SaveChanges(); } } catch(Exception ex) { LogException(ex); Sleep(TimeSpan.FromMinutes(5)); } } // while () } With multiple workers processing as above (each with their own Entity Framework layer), in essence beingProcessed is being used a lock for MutEx purposes Question: How can I deal with concurrency issues on the beingProcessed "lock" itself based on the above load? I think read-modify-write operation on the beingProcessed needs to be atomic but I'm open to other strategies. Open to other code refinements too.

    Read the article

  • SharePoint Item Event Receivers and Site Creation

    - by Michael Edwards
    I have created an Item Event Receiver for a document library and I have test that the logic works correctly and it all does. The next thing I wanted to do is automatically create the list when a site is created so I added the list to the ONET.xml file for the site: <Lists> <List Title="Documents" Description="Documents " url="MyDocumentLibrary" Type="10002" FeatureId="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" QuickLaunchUrl="Docs/AllItems.aspx" /> </Lists> And I ensure that the feature for this list is also activated be adding the feature to the <WebFeatures> <Feature ID="CFD8504D-70EB-4ba2-9CCB-52E38DB39E60" /> </WebFeatures> The problem occurs after I create the site, when I add a document to the list the Item Event Receiver does not run. However if I manually for to the web site features and deactivate and then reactivate the feature the Item Event Receiver does run. It seems that when creating a list through the ONET.xml and activating the feature it does not bind the Item Event Receiver to the list. What is the work around for this? Is this a bug?

    Read the article

  • Modularizing web applications

    - by Matt
    Hey all, I was wondering how big companies tend to modularize components on their page. Facebook is a good example: There's a team working on Search that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc.. There's a team working on the news feed that has its own CSS, javascript, html, etc... ... And the list goes on They cannot all be aware of what everyone is naming their div tags and whatnot, so what's the controller(?) doing to hook all these components in on the final page?? Note: This doesn't just apply to facebook - any company that has separate teams working on separate components has some logic that helps them out. EDIT: Thanks all for the responses, unfortunately I still haven't really found what I'm looking for - when you check out the source code (granted its minified), the divs have UIDs, my guess is that there is a compilation process that runs through and makes each of the components unique, renaming divs and css rules.. any ideas? EDIT 2: Thanks all for contributing your thoughts - the bounty went to the highest upvoted answer. The question was designed to be vague- I think it led to a really interesting discussion. As I improve my build process, I will contribute my own thoughts and experiences. Thanks all! Matt Mueller

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165  | Next Page >