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• Change workarea size of Linux desktop

  - by nonoitall

  I'm trying to write a taskbar/panel for Linux (like fbpanel or pypanel) using GTK# and am a little hung up. I've created a Gtk.Window to act as the panel and positioned/resized it appropriately. I've also set its WindowTypeHint to Dock so that it remains on top of other windows. So far it 'looks' like a panel. However, if the panel is running and I maximize another window, that window fills the whole desktop - meaning the bottom portion of the window is covered up by my panel. I've gathered that I probably need to change the desktop's workarea. How can I go about doing this in C#? (Preferably using GTK#, but I don't mind using interop if it's necessary.) As a bit of a side point, I'm curious if anyone knows how I would go about 'informing' the window manager about where applications' taskbar buttons are. (For example, if the window manager wants to animate the minimize action so that the window shrinks down to its button on the taskbar, how do I let the window manager know where that button is on the taskbar?)

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• Optimized 2D Tile Scrolling in OpenGL

  - by silicus

  Hello, I'm developing a 2D sidescrolling game and I need to optimize my tiling code to get a better frame rate. As of right now I'm using a texture atlas and 16x16 tiles for 480x320 screen resolution. The level scrolls in both directions, and is significantly larger than 1 screen (thousands of pixels). I use glTranslate for the actual scrolling. So far I've tried: Drawing only the on-screen tiles using glTriangles, 2 per square tile (too much overhead) Drawing the entire map as a Display List (great on a small level, way to slow on a large one) Partitioning the map into Display Lists half the size of the screen, then culling display lists (still slows down for 2-directional scrolling, overdraw is not efficient) Any advice is appreciated, but in particular I'm wondering: I've seen Vertex Arrays/VBOs suggested for this because they're dynamic. What's the best way to take advantage of this? If I simply keep 1 screen of vertices plus a bit of overdraw, I'd have to recopy the array every few frames to account for the change in relative coordinates (shift everything over and add the new rows/columns). If I use more overdraw this doesn't seem like a big win; it's like the half-screen display list idea. Does glScissor give any gain if used on a bunch of small tiles like this, be it a display list or a vertex array/VBO Would it be better just to build the level out of large textures and then use glScissor? Would losing the memory saving of tiling be an issue for mobile development if I do this (just curious, I'm currently on a PC)? This approach was mentioned here Thanks :)

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• auto_complete plugin error: Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name

  - by bgadoci

  I have successfully set up this plugin before so I am curious as to what I am doing wrong here. I have built the ability for users to add tags to questions. I am not using tagging plugin here but that shouldn't matter for this. With respect to the auto complete, I am trying to have the form located in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file access the Tags table and display entries in the tags.tags_name column. When I begin to type in the field I get the following error message: Processing QuestionsController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-31 15:22:20) [GET] Parameters: {"tag"=>{"tag_name"=>"a"}, "id"=>"auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name"} Question Load (0.1ms) SELECT * FROM "questions" WHERE ("questions"."id" = 0) ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound (Couldn't find Question with ID=auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name): app/controllers/application_controller.rb:15:in `init_data' For some reason I am actually passing the field name as the Question.id. The plugin set up is fairly simple as you add the following line to your controller: auto_complete_for :tag, :tag_name and the following line in your routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have added the controller line to both my tags and questions controller and also mapped resources for both tags and questions in my routes.rb file: map.resources :tags, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } map.resources :questions, :collection => {:auto_complete_for_tag_tag_name => :get } I have played around with removing either or of the above but can't seem to fix it. Any ideas what I am doing wrong here?

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• Why "Content-Length: 0" in POST requests?

  - by stesch

  A customer sometimes sends POST requests with Content-Length: 0 when submitting a form (10 to over 40 fields). We tested it with different browsers and from different locations but couldn't reproduce the error. The customer is using Internet Explorer 7 and a proxy. We asked them to let their system administrator see into the problem from their side. Running some tests without the proxy, etc.. In the meantime (half a year later and still no answer) I'm curious if somebody else knows of similar problems with a Content-Length: 0 request. Maybe from inside some Windows network with a special proxy for big companies. Is there a known problem with Internet Explorer 7? With a proxy system? The Windows network itself? Google only showed something in the context of NTLM (and such) authentication, but we aren't using this in the web application. Maybe it's in the way the proxy operates in the customer's network with Windows logins? (I'm no Windows expert. Just guessing.) I have no further information about the infrastructure.

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• What's the "correct way" to organize this project?

  - by user571747

  I'm working on a project that allows multiple users to submit large data files and perform operations on them. The "backend" which performs these operations is written in Perl while the "frontend" uses PHP to load HTML template files and determines which content to deliver. Data is stored in a database (MySQL, SQLite, Oracle) and while there is data which has not yet been acted upon, Perl adds it to a running queue which delivers data to other threads based on system load. In addition, there may be pre- and post-processing of the data before and after the main Perl script operates (the specifications are unclear) so I may want to allow these processors to be user-selectable plugins. I had been writing this project in a more procedural fashion but I am quickly realizing the benefit of separating concerns as to limit the scope one change has on the rest of the project. I'm quite unexperienced with design patterns and am curious what the best way to proceed is. I've heard MVC thrown around quite a bit but I am unsure of how to apply it. Specifically, what are some good options to structure this code (in terms of design patterns and folder hierarchy)? How can I achieve this with both PHP and Perl while minimizing duplicated code between languages? Should I keep my PHP files in the top level so I don't have ugly paths in the URL? Also, if I want to provide interchangeable databases, does each table need its own DAO implementation?

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• Is it possible to have a mysql table accept a null value for a primary_key column referencing a diff

  - by Dr.Dredel

  I have a table that has a column which holds the id of a row in another table. However, when table A is being populated, table B may or may not have a row ready for table A. My question is, is it possible to have mysql prevent an invalid value from being entered but be ok with a NULL? or does a foreign key necessitate a valid related value? So... what I'm looking for (in pseudo code) is this: Table "person" id | name Table "people" id | group_name | person_id (foreign key id from table person) insert into person (1, 'joe'); insert into people (1, 'foo', 1)//kosher insert into people (1, 'foo', NULL)//also kosher insert into people(1, 'foo', 7)// should fail since there is no id 7 in the person table. The reason I need this is that I'm having a chicken and egg issue where it makes perfect sense for the rows in the people table to be created before hand (in this example, I'm creating the groups and would like them to pre-exist the people who join them). And I realize that THIS example is silly and I would just put the group id in the person table rather than vice-versa, but in my real-world problem that is not workable. Just curious if I need to allow any and all values in order to make this work, or if there's some way to allow for null.

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• Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

  - by DanM

  In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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• Approach for parsing file and creating dynamic data structure for use by another program

  - by user275633

  All, Background: I have a customer who has some build scripts for their datacenter based on python that I've inherited. I did not work on the original design so I'm sort of limited to some degree on what I can and can't change. That said, my customer has a properties file that they use in their datacenter. Some of the values are used to build their servers and unfortunately they have other applications that also use these values so I cannot change them to make it easier for me. What I want to do is make the scripts more dynamic to distribute more hosts so that I don't have to keep updating the scripts in the future and can just add more hosts to the property file. Unfortunately I can't change the current property file and have to work with it. The property file looks something like this: projectName.ClusterNameServer1.sslport=443 projectName.ClusterNameServer1.port=80 projectName.ClusterNameServer1.host=myHostA projectName.ClusterNameServer2.sslport=443 projectName.ClusterNameServer2.port=80 projectName.ClusterNameServer2.host=myHostB In their deployment scripts they basically have alot of if projectName.ClusterNameServerX where X is some number of entries defined and then do something, e.g.: if projectName.ClusterNameServer1.host != "" do X if projectName.ClusterNameServer2.host != "" do X if projectName.ClusterNameServer3.host != "" do X Then when they add another host (say Serve4) they've added another if statement. Question: What I would like to do is make the scripts more dynamic and parse the properties file and put what I need into some data structure to pass to the deployment scripts and then just iterate over the structure and do my deployment that way so I don't have to constantly add a bunch of if some host# do something. I'm just curious to feed some suggestions as to what others would do to parse the file and what sort of data structure would they use and how they would group things together by ClusterNameServer# or something else. Thanks

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• C++ - Distributing different headers than development

  - by Ben

  I was curious about doing this in C++: Lets say I have a small library that I distribute to my users. I give my clients both the binary and the associated header files that they need. For example, lets assume the following header is used in development: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); private: std::string str; }; Now for my question. For deployment, is there anything fundamentally wrong with me giving a 'reduced' header to my clients? For example, could I strip off the private section and simply give them this: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); }; My gut instinct says "yes, this is possible, but there are gotchas", so that is why I am asking this question here. If this is possible and also safe, it looks like a great way to hide private variables, and thus even avoid forward declaration in some cases. I am aware that the symbols will still be there in the binary itself, and that this is just a visibility thing at the source code level. Thanks!

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• Is this method of static file serving safe in node.js? (potential security hole?)

  - by MikeC8

  I want to create the simplest node.js server to serve static files. Here's what I came up with: fs = require('fs'); server = require('http').createServer(function(req, res) { res.end(fs.readFileSync(__dirname + '/public/' + req.url)); }); server.listen(8080); Clearly this would map http://localhost:8080/index.html to project_dir/public/index.html, and similarly so for all other files. My one concern is that someone could abuse this to access files outside of project_dir/public. Something like this, for example: http://localhost:8080/../../sensitive_file.txt I tried this a little bit, and it wasn't working. But, it seems like my browser was removing the ".." itself. Which leads me to believe that someone could abuse my poor little node.js server. I know there are npm packages that do static file serving. But I'm actually curious to write my own here. So my questions are: Is this safe? If so, why? If not, why not? And, if further, if not, what is the "right" way to do this? My one constraint is I don't want to have to have an if clause for each possible file, I want the server to serve whatever files I throw in a directory.

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• The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

  - by Jed

  I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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• What does an object look like in memory?

  - by NeilMonday

  This is probably a really dumb question, but I will ask anyway. I am curious what an object looks like in memory. Obviously it would have to have all of its member data in it. I assume that functions for an object would not be duplicated in memory (or maybe I am wrong?). It would seem wasteful to have 999 objects in memory all with the same function defined over and over. If there is only 1 function in memory for all 999 objects, then how does each function know who's member data to modify (I specifically want to know at the low level). Is there an object pointer that gets sent to the function behind the scenes? Perhaps it is different for every compiler? Also, how does the static keyword affect this? With static member data, I would think that all 999 objects would use the exact same memory location for their static member data. Where does this get stored? Static functions I guess would also just be one place in memory, and would not have to interact with instantiated objects, which I think I understand.

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• Is there a better way to do updates in LinqToSQL?

  - by Vaccano

  I have a list (that comes to my middleware app from the client) that I need to put in my database. Some items in the list may already be in the db (just need an update). Others are new inserts. This turns out to be much harder than I thought I would be. Here is my code to do that. I am hoping there is a better way: public void InsertClients(List<Client> clients) { var comparer = new LambdaComparer<Client>((x, y) => x.Id == y.Id); // Get a listing of all the ones we will be updating var alreadyInDB = ctx.Clients .Where(client => clients.Contains(client, comparer)); // Update the changes for those already in the db foreach (Client clientDB in alreadyInDB) { var clientDBClosure = clientDB; Client clientParam = clients.Find(x => x.Id == clientDBClosure.Id); clientDB.ArrivalTime = clientParam.ArrivalTime; clientDB.ClientId = clientParam.ClientId; clientDB.ClientName = clientParam.ClientName; clientDB.ClientEventTime = clientParam.ClientEventTime; clientDB.EmployeeCount = clientParam.EmployeeCount; clientDB.ManagerId = clientParam.ManagerId; } // Get a list of all clients that are not in my the database. var notInDB = clients.Where(x => alreadyInDB.Contains(x, comparer) == false); ctx.Clients.InsertAllOnSubmit(notInDB); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } This seems like a lot of work to do a simple update. But maybe I am just spoiled. Anyway, if there is a easier way to do this please let me know. Note: If you are curious the code to the LambdaComparer is here: http://gist.github.com/335780#file_lambda_comparer.cs

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• What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

  - by Joe

  I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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• Jquery change name attribute

  - by kevin

  Hi thereive got a jquery function that attempts to change the id, name and class of an elements the id and class change seems to work but for some curious reason, trying to change the name of the element never works, the code is below, any clues would be helpful $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); // this never works var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); } }); } }); });

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• JavaScript for loop index strangeness

  - by pythonBOI

  I'm relatively new to JS so this may be a common problem, but I noticed something strange when dealing with for loops and the onclick function. I was able to replicate the problem with this code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> window.onload = function () { var buttons = document.getElementsByTagName('a'); for (var i=0; i<2; i++) { buttons[i].onclick = function () { alert(i); return false; } } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="">hi</a> <br /> <a href="">bye</a> </body> </html> When clicking the links I would expect to get '0' and '1', but instead I get '2' for both of them. Why is this? BTW, I managed to solve my particular problem by using the 'this' keyword, but I'm still curious as to what is behind this behavior.

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• RichTextBox text is not shown C#

  - by user271077

  using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

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• Criteria for triggering garbage collection in .Net

  - by Kennet Belenky

  I've come across some curious behavior with regard to garbage collection in .Net. The following program will throw an OutOfMemoryException very quickly (after less than a second on a 32-bit, 2GB machine). The Foo finalizer is never called. class Foo { static Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference> allFoos = new Dictionary<Guid, WeakReference>(); Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); byte[] buffer = new byte[1000000]; static Random rand = new Random(); public Foo() { // Uncomment the following line and the program will run forever. // rand.NextBytes(buffer); allFoos[guid] = new WeakReference(this); } ~Foo() { allFoos.Remove(guid); } static public void Main(string args[]) { for (; ; ) { new Foo(); } } } If the rand.nextBytes line is uncommented, it will run ad infinitum, and the Foo finalizer is regularly invoked. Why is that? My best guess is that in the former case, either the CLR or the Windows VMM is lazy about allocating physical memory. The buffer never gets written to, so the physical memory is never used. When the address space runs out, the system crashes. In the latter case, the system runs out of physical memory before it runs out of address space, the GC is triggered and the objects are collected. However, here's the part I don't get. Assuming my theory is correct, why doesn't the GC trigger when the address space runs low? If my theory is incorrect, then what's the real explanation?

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• Implementing a Version check between an Abstract class and it's implementation

  - by Michael Stum

  I have this abstract class and concrete implementation (they are in different assemblies): public abstract class MyAbstractClass { private static readonly int MyAbstractClassVersion = 1; public abstract int ImplementedVersion { get; } protected MyAbstractClass() { CheckVersion(); } private void CheckVersion() { var message = string.Format( "MyAbstractClass implements Version {0}, concrete is Version {1}", RepositoryVersion, ImplementedVersion); if (!MyAbstractClassVersion.Equals(ImplementedVersion)) throw new InvalidOperationException(message); } } public class ConcreteClass : MyAbstractClass { public ConcreteClass() : base() { // ConcreteClass is guaranteed to have // a constructor that calls the base constructor // I just simplified the example } public override int ImplementedVersion { get { return 2; } } } As you see, I call CheckVersion() from the abstract constructor, to get rid of the "virtual member call in base constructor" message, but I am not sure if that's really the way to do it. Sure, it works, but that doesn't mean it will always work, will it? Also, I wonder if I can get the name of the Concrete Type from the CheckVersion() function? I know that adding new abstract members will force an error anyway (System.TypeLoadException) and I'm not sure if I want this type of strict Versioning, but I'm just curious how it would be done properly given only the abstract class and an implementation (I know I could do it by using interfaces and/or a Factory pattern).

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• Visual Studio 2010 compile error with std::string?

  - by AJG85

  So this is possibly the strangest thing I've seen recently and was curious how this could happen. The compiler gave me an error saying that std::string is undefined when used as a return type but not when used as a parameter in methods of a class! #pragma once #include <string> #include <vector> // forward declarations class CLocalReference; class CResultSetHandle; class MyClass { public: MyClass() {} ~MyClass {} void Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh, std::string& item); // this is fine const std::string Retrieve(const CLocalReference& id, CResultSetHandle& rsh); // this fails with std::string is undefined?!?! }; Doing a Rebuild All it still happened I had to choose clean solution and then Rebuild All again after for the universe to realign. While it's resolved for the moment I'd still like to know what could have caused this because I'm at a loss as to why when there should be no conflicts especially when I always use fully qualified names for STL.

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• Why can a public class not inherit from a less visible one?

  - by Dan Tao

  I apologize if this question has been asked before. I've searched SO somewhat and wasn't able to find it. I'm just curious what the rationale behind this design was/is. Obviously I understand that private/internal members of a base type cannot, nor should they, be exposed through a derived public type. But it seems to my naive thinking that the "hidden" parts could easily remain hidden while some base functionality is still shared and a new interface is exposed publicly. I'm thinking of something along these lines: Assembly X internal class InternalClass { protected virtual void DoSomethingProtected() { // Let's say this method provides some useful functionality. // Its visibility is quite limited (only to derived types in // the same assembly), but at least it's there. } } public class PublicClass : InternalClass { public void DoSomethingPublic() { // Now let's say this method is useful enough that this type // should be public. What's keeping us from leveraging the // base functionality laid out in InternalClass's implementation, // without exposing anything that shouldn't be exposed? } } Assembly Y public class OtherPublicClass : PublicClass { // It seems (again, to my naive mind) that this could work. This class // simply wouldn't be able to "see" any of the methods of InternalClass // from AssemblyX directly. But it could still access the public and // protected members of PublicClass that weren't inherited from // InternalClass. Does this make sense? What am I missing? }

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• DCI: How to implement Context with Dependency Injection?

  - by ciscoheat

  Most examples of a DCI Context are implemented as a Command pattern. When using Dependency Injection though, it's useful to have the dependencies injected in the constructor and send the parameters into the executing method. Compare the Command pattern class: public class SomeContext { private readonly SomeRole _someRole; private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Everything goes into the constructor for a true encapsuled command. public SomeContext(SomeRole someRole, IRepository<User> userRepository) { _someRole = someRole; _userRepository = userRepository; } public void Execute() { _someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } With the Dependency injected class: public class SomeContext { private readonly IRepository<User> _userRepository; // Only what can be injected using the DI provider. public SomeContext(IRepository<User> userRepository) { _userRepository = userRepository; } // Parameters from the executing method public void Execute(SomeRole someRole) { someRole.DoStuff(_userRepository); } } The last one seems a bit nicer, but I've never seen it implemented like this so I'm curious if there are any things to consider.

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• Using multiple Qt (SQL) Models

  - by radix07

  I have a near real-time application that I am using Qt and an SQLite database to run. I am curious if it is safe to have two separate models access a database at once. I know 2 separate views can access a model just fine, but I can't find any document addressing this. I also realize that SQLite is thread safe for reading, so I don't see a real issue to doing this from the SQLite part of things... Basically I want to use a QSqlTableModel to do the real-time read and write in the background and at the same time use a QSqlQueryModel to give the user desired data. Since I may be doing lots of filtering in the background using the table model I can't use it as the main view as well. I have gotten this to work for the most part, but am not sure if this is the best way to do this. If the models act like multiple SQL queries I don't believe this should be an issue, but I would like to know from someone I bit more knowledgeable about this stuff since this is pretty new to me. Thanks

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• How to Store and Retrieve Images Using SQL Server (Server Management Studio)

  - by Joe Majewski

  I am having difficulties when trying to insert files into a SQL Server database. I'll try to break this down as best as I can: What data type should I be using to store image files (jpeg/png/gif/etc)? Right now my table is using the image data type, but I am curious if varbinary would be a better option. How would I go about inserting the image into the database? Does Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio have any built in functions that allow insertions of files into tables? If so, how is that done? Also, how could this be done through the use of an HTML form with PHP handling the input data and placing it into the table? How would I fetch the image from the table and display it on the page? I understand how to SELECT the cell's contents, but how would I go about translating that into a picture. Would I have to have a header(Content type: image/jpeg)? I have no problem doing any of these things with MySQL, but the SQL Server environment is still new to me, and I am working on a project for my job that requires the use of stored procedures to grab various data. Any and all help is appreciated.

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• What happens if I just add a second IP to a domain?

  - by tntu

  We have two servers that are in constant sync. We have two applications that connect to them. Each app to different server. We devised a new version of those apps that will read a dns entry and get a list of IP addresses and try them in order. Now problem is old apps. We have noticed that some ppl still use the old ones even if we have released the new. If we were to add two IP's to each domain would they receive the IP's in the order we set them or random? Either way it will still work for us but I'm just curious. If first server goes offline will the client application try the other? To be noted for old version: Interruption does not affect in any way the continuation once connection is reestablished. Each communication is independent of previous ones. Applications connect at set intervals of time anywhere between 5 seconds to 1 hour. Connection is done simply using an http post to the URL in question.

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