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• SQL Server 2012 and SQLMail - will it still work?

  - by Kharlos Dominguez

  We are considering upgrading our SQL Server, which is currently running 2005. We use SQLMail heavily in the organization, both to send e-mails and to import some into a database. I've read on various places that SQLMail was deprecated and superseded by "Database Mail". I'm confused because this MS page: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb402904.aspx seems to imply that it would still work? I understand the dangers of SQLMail but we do not have the resources to rewrite the scripts right now and would prefer to do it later on. Does SQLMail still work in 2012, and if not, how easy is it to replace with Database Mail, both for reading and sending e-mails?

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• Setting up an SVN repository on a windows server to work with XCode.

  - by Tejaswi Yerukalapudi

  Hi, I need to setup an SVN repository for an iPhone / iPad app that I'm working on. It needs to be setup on a Windows server 2003 instance. We run VSS on it, but it doesn't really work all that well with XCode, so I'd like to migrate ASAP. The problem is, I'm a new graduate and this is the first time I'll be using a souce control software, so any tutorials on how to set one up, configure it to work correctly with Macs using XCode are greatly appreciated! Though it's not a priority, I'd also like to try to get my company to ditch VSS for SVN (Been reading this article yesterday - http://www.codinghorror.com/blog/2006/08/source-control-anything-but-sourcesafe.html). How hard is it to migrate existing builds in VSS into something like SVN? Thanks, Teja

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• How do I convert a .vhd disk image to work with VMWare Fusion 2?

  - by Paul D. Waite

  I’ve just installed VMWare Fusion 2 on my Mac. Microsoft makes available some Virtual PC disk images containing different versions of IE, so that us humble web developers can test our code on them: http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/details.aspx?FamilyId=21EABB90-958F-4B64-B5F1-73D0A413C8EF&displaylang=en I want to convert these .vhd files to work with VMWare Fusion 2. Note: VMWare Fusion 3 can import .vhd files natively (File Import). This works just fine on the Microsoft IE compatibility VMs. I’ve tried VMWare Converter Standalone on Windows, but it doesn’t work with .vhd files (as of the current version, 4.0.1). Any ideas? VMWare’s website is confused corporate hell.

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• Why does Windows 7 x64 work faster than an x86 edition on my PC?

  - by Jasper

  Why does Windows 7 x64 work faster than an x86 edition on my PC even though I mostly use x86 things in it? What's wrong with me, and what am I missing? Majority of the things I use is x86 (e.g. DAWs, games, media players). A considerable amount of them, however, are x64 (although their x86 counterparts work just fine). I've tried using the same things on the same system but always ended up finding Windows 7 x64 working slightly faster than x86. I'm very observant. I even notice the tiniest window animations. System: Windows 7 Ultimate x64 CPU: Intel Core 2 Duo E7500 @ 2.93 GHz RAM: 2 GB x 2 = 4 GB DDR2 @ 332 MHz Motherboard: Intel D945GCNL Graphics: ATI Radeon HD 4350 @ 1 GB Dedicated Audio: M-Audio FastTrack Pro HDD: Samsung HD753LJ 733 GB & Samsung HD160JJ 156 GB As you can see, my system is old.

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• will a virtual box file on windows work on a mac?

  - by sososo

  if I move a vm form a windows machine to a mac machine, will it work?

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• How to configure apache's mod_proxy_html to work as an ajax proxy?

  - by dcerecedo

  I'm trying to build a web site that let's you view and manipulate data from any page in any other website. To do that, I have to bypass 'Allow Origin' problems: i'm loading the other domain's content in an iframe and i have to manipulate its content with javascript downloaded from my domain. My first attempt was to write a simple proxy myself, requesting the other domains page through a server proxy coded in Java that not only serves the content but rebuilds links (src's and href's) in the content so that the content referenced by these links alse get downloaded through my handmade proxy. The result is not bad but has problems with url's in css and scripts. It's then that i realized that mod_proxy_html is supposed to do exactly all this job. The problem is that i cannot figure out how to make it work as expected. Let's suppose my server runs in my-domain.com and to proxy and transform content from another domain i'd make a request like this: my-domain.com/proxy?url=http://another-domain.com/some/content I'd want mod_proxy_html to serve the content and rewrite following URLs in http://another-domain.com/some/content in the following ways: Absolute URLs not from another-domain.com: no rewritting Relative from root urls:/other/content - /proxy?url=http://another-domain.com/other/content Relative urls: other/content - /proxy?url=http://another-domain.com/some/content/other/content Relative to parent urls: ../other/content - /proxy?url=http://another-domain.com/some/other/content The url should be specified at runtime, not configuration time. Can this be achieved with mod_proxy_html? Could anyone provide a simple working configuration to start with? EDIT 1-First approach The following site config will work fine with sites that use absolute url's everywhere like http://www.huffingtonpost.es/. Youc could try on this config on localhost: http://localhost/asset/http://www.huffingtonpost.es/ <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName localhost LogLevel debug ProxyRequests off RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^/asset/(.*) $1 [P] ProxyHTMLURLMap $1 /asset/ <Location /asset/> ProxyPassReverse / ProxyHTMLURLMap / /asset/ </Location> </VirtualHost> But as explained in the documentation, if I hit a site using relative url's, I'd like to have these rewritten on the html via mod_proxy_html. So I shoud change the Location block as follows: <Location /asset/> ProxyPassReverse / #Depending on your system use one line or the other #Ubuntu: #SetOutputFilter proxy-html #any other system: ProxyHTMLEnable On ProxyHTMLURLMap / /asset/ </Location> ...which doesn't seem to work. Comments, hints and ideas welcome!

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• why vim script change inside visual area not work?

  - by avalan_che

  Say a webpage like this: ... <div class="block"> <p>...</p> <p>...</p> </div> <p>...</p> ... I tried to add class="cls" to <p>s inside <div class="block">, so I did: while search('div class="block"','W') 0 normal vat '<,'>s@<p@<p class="cls"@gec endw but this wouldn't work as expected: those <ps outside <div class="block" got changed too. In command window these lines totally work, why not putting together?

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• Why does 'dd' not work for creating bootable USB?

  - by jdowner

  Recently I wanted to create a bootable USB of Linux mint. I found that there was a lot of conflicting advice/experience about whether the 'dd' command could be used to create a bootable USB. I decided to download an ISO and try. While dd definitely put the image on the USB stick it was not bootable. So my question is what is the magic ingredient that will make this work or why has this approach persisted if it does not work? This is the command I used, dd if=/mint/iso/image of=/dev/sdb1 oflag=direct

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• Low end dedicated GPU vs. integrated Intel graphics (for light CAD work)

  - by PaulJ

  I have been asked to spec a PC for an interior design business. They are going to do some AutoCAD work (but they won't be using massive datasets or anything), and also use Kitchen Draw, a program that has 3D visualization features and says, in its requirements, that "a recent NVidia or ATI card might be enough". Since they are very limited budget-wise, I had originally picked a GeForce GT 610 card, but this card is so low end that I'm left wondering whether it will be an improvement at all over the dedicated Intel HD2500 graphics chip that comes with the CPU (I will be using an Ivy-Bridge Intel i5). Most of the information I see around is for gaming, which isn't really relevant in my case. Basically, for the use case I've described (light 3D work), can one get away with a current Intel HD graphics chipset? And will a low end GPU like the GT 610 provide a noticeable improvement?

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• .NET Declarative Security: Why is SecurityAction.Deny impossible to work with?

  - by rally25rs

  I've been messing with this for about a day and a half now sifting through .NET reflector and MSDN docs, and can't figure anything out... As it stands in the .NET framework, you can demand that the current Principal belong to a role to be able to execute a method by marking a method like this: [PrincipalPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "CanEdit")] public void Save() { ... } I am working with an existing security model that already has a "ReadOnly" role defined, so I need to do exactly the opposite of above... block the Save() method if a user is in the "ReadOnly" role. No problem, right? just flip the SecurityAction to .Deny: [PrincipalPermission(SecurityAction.Deny, Role = "ReadOnly")] public void Save() { ... } Well, it turns out that this does nothing at all. The method still runs fine. It seems that the PrincipalPermissionAttribute defines: public override IPermission CreatePermission() But when the attribute is set to SecurityAction.Deny, this method is never called, so no IPermission object is ever created. Does anyone know of a way to get .Deny to work? I've been trying to make a custom secutiry attribute, but even that doesn't work. I tried to get tricky and do: public class MyPermissionAttribute : CodeAccessSecurityAttribute { private SecurityAction securityAction; public MyPermissionAttribute(SecurityAction action) : base(SecurityAction.Demand) { if (action != SecurityAction.Demand && action != SecurityAction.Deny) throw new ArgumentException("Unsupported SecurityAction. Only Demand and Deny are supported."); this.securityAction = action; } public override IPermission CreatePermission() { // do something based on the SecurityAction... } } Notice my attribute constructor always passes SecurityAction.Demand, which is the one action that would work previously. However, even in this case, the CreatePermission() method is still only called when the attribute is set to .Demand, and not .Deny! Maybe the runtime is actually checking the attribute instead of the SecurityAction passed to the CodeAccessSecurityAttribute constructor? I'm not sure what else to try here... anyone have any ideas? You wouldn't think it would be that hard to deny method access based on a role, instead of only demanding it. It really disturbed me that the default PrincipalPermission appears from within an IDE like it would be just fine doing a .Deny, and there is like a 1-liner in the MSDN docs that hint that it won't work. You would think the PrincipalPermissionAttribute constructor would throw an exception immediately if anything other that .Demand is specified, since that could create a big security hole! I never would have realized that .Deny does nothing at all if I hadn't been unit testing! Again, all this stems from having to deal with an existing security model that has a "ReadOnly" role that needs to be denied access, instead of doing it the other way around, where I cna just grant access to a role. Thanks for any help! Quick followup: I can actually make my custom attribute work by doing this: public class MyPermissionAttribute : CodeAccessSecurityAttribute { public SecurityAction SecurityAction { get; set; } public MyPermissionAttribute(SecurityAction action) : base(action) { } public override IPermission CreatePermission() { switch(this.SecurityAction) { ... } // check Demand or Deny } } And decorating the method: [MyPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, SecurityAction = SecurityAction.Deny, Role = "ReadOnly")] public void Save() { ... } But that is terribly ugly, since I'm specifying both Demand and Deny in the same attribute. But it does work... Another interesting note: My custom class extends CodeAccessSecurityAttribute, which in turn only extends SecurityAttribute. If I cnage my custom class to directly extend SecurityAttribute, then nothing at all works. So it seems the runtime is definately looking for only CodeAccessSecurityAttribute instances in the metadata, and does something funny with the SecurityAction specified, even if a custom constructor overrides it.

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• Evidence-Based-Scheduling - are estimations only as accurate as the work-plan they're based on?

  - by Assaf Lavie

  I've been using FogBugz's Evidence Based Scheduling (for the uninitiated, Joel explains) for a while now and there's an inherent problem I can't seem to work around. The system is good at telling me the probability that a given project will be delivered at some date, given the detailed list of tasks that comprise the project. However, it does not take into account the fact that during development additional tasks always pop up. Now, there's the garbage-can approach of creating a generic task/scheduled-item for "last minute hacks" or "integration tasks", or what have you, but that clearly goes against the idea of aggregating the estimates of many small cases. It's often the case that during the development stage of a project you realize that there's a whole area your planning didn't cover, because, well, that's the nature of developing stuff that hasn't been developed before. So now your ~3 month project may very well turn into a 6 month project, but not because your estimations were off (you could be the best estimator in the world, for those task the comprised your initial work plan); rather because you ended up adding a whole bunch of new tasks that weren't there to begin with. EBS doesn't help you with that. It could, theoretically (I guess). It could, perhaps, measure the amount of work you add to a project over time and take that into consideration when estimating the time remaining on a given project. Just a thought. In other words, EBS works on a task basis, but not on a project/release basis - but the latter is what's important. It's what your boss typically cares about - delivery date, not the time it takes to finish each task along the way, and not the time it would have taken, if your planning was perfect. So the question is (yes, there's a question here, don't close it): What's your methodology when it comes to using EBS in FogBugz and how do you solve the problem above, which seems to be a main cause of schedule delays and mispredictions? Edit Some more thoughts after reading a few answers: If it comes down to having to choose which delivery date you're comfortable presenting to your higher-ups by squinting at the delivery-probability graph and choosing 80%, or 95%, or 60% (based on what, exactly?) then we've resorted to plain old buffering/factoring of our estimates. In which case, couldn't we have skipped the meticulous case by case hour-sized estimation effort step? By forcing ourselves to break down tasks that take more than a day into smaller chunks of work haven't we just deluded ourselves into thinking our planning is as tight and thorough as it could be? People may be consistently bad estimators that do not even learn from their past mistakes. In that respect, having an EBS system is certainly better than not having one. But what can we do about the fact that we're not that good in planning as well? I'm not sure it's a problem that can be solved by a similar system. Our estimates are wrong because of tendencies to be overly optimistic/pessimistic about certain tasks, and because of neglect to account for systematic delays (e.g. sick days, major bug crisis) - and usually not because we lack knowledge about the work that needs to be done. Our planning, on the other hand, is often incomplete because we simply don't have enough knowledge in this early stage; and I don't see how an EBS-like system could fill that gap. So we're back to methodology. We need to find a way to accommodate bad or incomplete work plans that's better than voodoo-multiplication.

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• Don Knuth and MMIXAL vs. Chuck Moore and Forth -- Algorithms and Ideal Machines -- was there cross-pollination / influence in their ideas / work?

  - by AKE

  Question: To what extent is it known (or believed) that Chuck Moore and Don Knuth had influence on each other's thoughts on ideal machines, or their work on algorithms? I'm interested in citations, interviews, articles, links, or any other sort of evidence. It could also be evidence of the form of A and B here suggest that Moore might have borrowed or influenced C and D from Knuth here, or vice versa. (Opinions are of course welcome, but references / links would be better!) Context: Until fairly recently, I have been primarily familiar with Knuth's work on algorithms and computing models, mostly through TAOCP but also through his interviews and other writings. However, the more I have been using Forth, the more I am struck by both the power of a stack-based machine model, and the way in which the spareness of the model makes fundamental algorithmic improvements more readily apparent. A lot of what Knuth has done in fundamental analysis of algorithms has, it seems to me, a very similar flavour, and I can easily imagine that in a parallel universe, Knuth might perhaps have chosen Forth as his computing model. That's the software / algorithms / programming side of things. When it comes to "ideal computing machines", Knuth in the 70s came up with the MIX computer model, and then, collaborating with designers of state-of-the-art RISC chips through the 90s, updated this with the modern MMIX model and its attendant assembly language MMIXAL. Meanwhile, Moore, having been using and refining Forth as a language, but using it on top of whatever processor happened to be in the computer he was programming, began to imagine a world in which the efficiency and value of stack-based programming were reflected in hardware. So he went on in the 80s to develop his own stack-based hardware chips, defining the term MISC (Minimal Instruction Set Computers) along the way, and ending up eventually with the first Forth chip, the MuP21. Both are brilliant men with keen insight into the art of programming and algorithms, and both work at the intersection between algorithms, programs, and bare metal hardware (i.e. hardware without the clutter of operating systems). Which leads me to the headlined question... Question:To what extent is it known (or believed) that Chuck Moore and Don Knuth had influence on each other's thoughts on ideal machines, or their work on algorithms?

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• What do I need to do to make a WPF Browser Application (XBAP) that requires Full Trust work on Windo

  - by Benoit J. Girard

  So this is a Visual Studio 2008, .NET, WPF, XBAP, Windows 7 question, regarding .NET trust policies. At work, we have several Web Browser Applications (.XBAP files) developed with Visual Studio 2008 (so .NET 3.5) that we deployed internally. These required a .NET FullTrust policy, we found a way to make a .MSI that adjusted the policy on individual stations, everything worked great. Users love in-browser apps. This was last year and on Windows XP. This year our company started upgrading users to Windows 7, and now none of our Web Browser Applications work. The error message is "Trust Not Granted", as if the policy-changing .MSI had not been run. Other details: I can confirm that our apps work on Windows XP for Internet Explorer 7 and Firefox, and do not work on Windows 7 for Internet Explorer 8 nor Firefox. I must admit that .NET security policies mystify me. Still, I could not find any mention of this problem on the Net at large or on this site. Did anybody else encounter this problem? Any and all help welcome.

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• Producer-consumer pattern with consumer restrictions

  - by Dan

  I have a processing problem that I am thinking is a classic producer-consumer problem with the two added wrinkles that there may be a variable number of producers and there is the restriction that no more than one item per producer may be consumed at any one time. I will generally have 50-100 producers and as many consumers as CPU cores on the server. I want to maximize the throughput of the consumers while ensuring that there are never more than one work item in process from any single producer. This is more complicated than the classic producer-consumer problem which I think assumes a single producer and no restriction on which work items may be in progress at any one time. I think the problem of multiple producers is relatively easily solved by enqueuing all work items on a single work queue protected by a critical section. I think the restriction on simultaneously processing work items from any single producer is harder because I cannot think of any solution that does not require each consumer to notify some kind of work dispatcher that a particular work item has been completed so as to lift the restriction on work items from that producer. In other words, if Consumer2 has just completed WorkItem42 from Producer53, there needs to be some kind of callback or notification from Consumer2 to a work dispatcher to allow the work dispatcher to release the next work item from Producer53 to the next available consumer (whether Consumer2 or otherwise). Am I overlooking something simple here? Is there a known pattern for this problem? I would appreciate any pointers.

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• How can you make a PHP application require a key to work?

  - by jasondavis

  About 4 years ago I used a php product called amember pro, it is a membership script which has plugins for lie 30 different payment processors, it was an easy way to set up an automated membership site where users would pay a payment and get access to a certain area. The script used ioncube http://www.ioncube.com/sa_encoder.php to prevent non-paying users from using the script, it requered that you register the domain that the script would be used on, you were then given a key to enter into the file that would make the system/script work. Now I am wanting to know how to do such a task, I know ioncube encoder just makes it hard to see the code, in the script I mention, they would just have a small section at the tp of 1 of the included pages that was encrypted and without that part of the code it would break and in addition if the owner of the script did not put you domain in the list and give you a valid key it would not work, also if you tried to use the script on a different domain it would not work. I realize that somewhere in the encrypted code that is must of sent you key to there server and checked that it was valid for the domain name it is on, or possibly it did not even do that, maybe the key would just verify that it matched the domain the script was on, that more likely what it did. Here is where the real question is, How would you make a script require the portion that is encrypted? If I made a script and had a small encrypted part at the top, it would seem a user would be able to easily just remove the encrypted part and figure out what the non encrypted part is doing and fix it to work. Any ideas?

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• Interesting Scala typing solution, doesn't work in 2.7.7?

  - by djc

  I'm trying to build some image algebra code that can work with images (basically a linear pixel buffer + dimensions) that have different types for the pixel. To get this to work, I've defined a parametrized Pixel trait with a few methods that should be able to get used with any Pixel subclass. (For now, I'm only interested in operations that work on the same Pixel type.) Here it is: trait Pixel[T <: Pixel[T]] { def mul(v: Double): T def max(v: T): T def div(v: Double): T def div(v: T): T } Now I define a single Pixel type that has storage based on three doubles (basically RGB 0.0-1.0), I've called it TripleDoublePixel: class TripleDoublePixel(v: Array[Double]) extends Pixel[TripleDoublePixel] { var data: Array[Double] = v def this() = this(Array(0.0, 0.0, 0.0)) def toString(): String = { "(" + data(0) + ", " + data(1) + ", " + data(2) + ")" } def increment(v: TripleDoublePixel) { data(0) += v.data(0) data(1) += v.data(1) data(2) += v.data(2) } def mul(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x * v)) } def div(v: Double): TripleDoublePixel = { new TripleDoublePixel(data.map(x => x / v)) } def div(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { var tmp = new Array[Double](3) tmp(0) = data(0) / v.data(0) tmp(1) = data(1) / v.data(1) tmp(2) = data(2) / v.data(2) new TripleDoublePixel(tmp) } def max(v: TripleDoublePixel): TripleDoublePixel = { val lv = data(0) * data(0) + data(1) * data(1) + data(2) * data(2) val vv = v.data(0) * v.data(0) + v.data(1) * v.data(1) + v.data(2) * v.data(2) if (lv > vv) (this) else v } } Now I want to write code to use this, that doesn't have to know what type the pixels are. For example: def idiv[T](a: Image[T], b: Image[T]) { for (i <- 0 until a.data.size) { a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) } } Unfortunately, this doesn't compile: (fragment of lindet-gen.scala):145: error: value div is not a member of T a.data(i) = a.data(i).div(b.data(i)) I was told in #scala that this worked for someone else, but that was on 2.8. I've tried to get 2.8-rc1 going, but it doesn't compile for me. Is there any way to get this to work in 2.7.7?

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• Does video tag (HTML 5) injection via JavaScript work in any browsers?

  - by JoshNaro

  I'm trying to dynamically spawn a video element on a page using JavaScript. JavaScript <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var video = $(document.createElement('video')) .attr('id', 'VideoElement') .attr('controls', 'controls') .attr('src', 'videopath.mp4') // Changed 'href' attribute to 'src' .css({ width: 640, height: 360 }); $('#VideoContainer').append(video); }); HTML <body> <div id="VideoContainer"></div> </body> In Firefox I get the video harness, but the actual video doesn't load. In IE8 the video harness doesn't even appear. Is HTML 5 just not supported enough to accomplish this yet? Edit: Got this to work with Artiom's fix. Looks like this works fine with Chrome and Safari. I'm using a codec Firefox doesn't support, so it doesn't work there; although I suspect it will work with a supported codec. IE8 sure enough doesn't work (high five IE).

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• Syncing Music Everywhere with Google Music and iTunes Match - Will This Work?

  - by dragonmantank

  I have the following devices: Personal Laptop running Windows 7/Ubuntu 11.10 (mostly use Ubuntu) Media Server running Windows 7 with PS3 Media Server and iTunes Work Laptop running OSX Snow Leopard iPad iPhone 4S The iPhone just replaced my Droid 2 Global. What I had been doing was using Google Music to watch the folders iTunes was storing music in and moving any new files up to Google Music. The Droid would pull music down from the cloud via streaming or me telling it to make it available offline, I had folders set up with PS3 Media Server to stream them to TV's via DLNA, and used RDP to play music through my speakers in the office. So far it's worked well. Since I've replaced the Droid 2 though with an iPhone, I've lost the syncing ability with Google Music and have to do it via iTunes (I knew this would happen, no big suprise). I got to thinking though - Apple does offer iTunes Match, which allows your devices to stream/download the music from 'the cloud,' much like Google Music. I could then listen to whatever I Wanted (for the most part) on my phone, iPad, and laptops by syncing via iTunes Match. I don't want to loose my MP3s though, and since I've never used iTunes Match, I wonder if the following is a viable solution: Sign up for iTunes Match on my media server Let it scan my library and make available my songs in AAC in the cloud Not delete the media server MP3s Set up other devices to sync to iTunes Match Continue to get MP3s via Amazon or other services and add to iTunes Let the MP3s sync to Google Music, and let the MP3's add to the AAC versions on my devices I think the main kicker is I don't want to lose the MP3 versions of my songs as those will work just fine on all my devices and I generally rip at 320kbps. I don't mind spending $25/year if it means that I can easily shift the music from device to device without much thinking, but I'm not going to pay $25/year to end up converting my library over to AAC just to save myself the hassle of manually syncing my iPad and iPhone.

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• Wireless access point -> Powerline -> Router -> Internet, should this work?

  - by Anthony

  My network at home used to be a laptop and desktop connected wirelessly to a single Wireless ADSL router, a Cisco 877W. Wireless reception around the house with this setup was quite unreliable, so I've gone about looking to improve it. I purchased some Belkin Gigabit powerline adapters and I've got these working fine. I can hook a computer up to one of the powerline adapters, and with the other one plugged into the ADSL router the computer has internet access. Additionally I can hook a Netgear DG834G Wireless ADSL router into it with the adsl not plugged in, and after turning off DHCP can RJ45 a computer up to the network. Everything works fine. However, if I setup a wireless network on the Netgear then any computer that connects wirelessly to it cannot access the internet. It gets an IP address very slowly via DHCP which is a good one, but it cannot access the internet. It can however communicate with the RJ45'd computer also connected to the Netgear. I wondered whether this could be a problem with the Netgear so I've borrowed a Cisco Aironet 1200 and got this working fine when it's attached directly to the primary ADSL router. I can connect to it wireless and get onto the internet. However, if I then plug it into the Netgear I can communicate with other devices attached to the Netgear, but can't get any further than the Netgear. All the while though the other devices RJ45'd to the Netgear are communicating with the internet just fine. I'm starting to suspect it's one of two things causing the problem: 1) For some reason the belkin powerline adapters don't like carrying wireless-originating signals. Could this be possible? 2) The primary Cisco ADSL router doesn't want to communicate with other devices on my network more than one hop away from it. I'm making an assumption here that within the Netgear box the wireless and wired sides are handled differently. Could this be true? Has anyone successfully setup something similar to what I'm trying, with a wireless device on the otherside of a pair of powerline connectors? Update 06/07/2010 - Response to irrational John 28 June Thanks for the answer John - and for clearing up some of my questions. The model number of the belkin powerline adapters are F5D4076. Security was apparently enabled by default on them, and I didn't change them from their default setting. The network diagram in your answer shows exactly what I'm trying to setup: I've followed that guide and I'm still not able to get things working properly. The thing that perplexes me is that wired network traffic works just fine - it's only the wireless traffic that doesn't. This is with the same laptop, and the same DHCP or static IPs. "1. What IP addresses did you assign to each router? What subnet masks are you using?" - subnet is 255.255.255.0, the router connected to the adsl is 192.168.153.1 and that has the DHCP server. The access point on the other side of the powerline adapters I've tried both a static IP of 192.168.153.110, same subnet, and a DHCP-assigned IP. The other devices are DHCP, although I also tried manually entering IP settings. "2. Have you correctly enabled DHCP on only one of the routers and disabled it on all the others?" Yes I have - only the internet-connected router has DHCP enabled. The IP range for the DHCP is from 192.168.153.11 - 192.168.153.200. The strange thing is that wired connections work fine on the LAN, plugged into any router, work fine - it's only the wireless connections that aren't working when they're plugged into the non-primary AP. "Since the routers you are using appear to integrate an ADSL modem I'm assuming there is no WAN port on them." There's no NAT within the LAN, and all wired connections are connected to LAN ports. It's something wrong with the wireless - wired works fine throughout the whole LAN. Update 06/07/2010 - Response to irrational John 29 June The diagram you've drawn in your answer shows pretty much exactly what I'm trying to do. I've spent another evening trying different things and made some progress but I'm still scratching my head. I've borrowed a Netgear access point and been trying with this, and the strange thing is that my PC is working now - this is a Windows 7 PC connected to the access point in the position of where the DG834G is in the diagram. Meanwhile, however, I have an old Powerbook G4 12" I use for music, and while that has a DHCP-assigned IP address, it's not getting any network throughput to either LAN or internet addresses. To make matters more strange, my phone appears to be intermittently working when it's on the wifi. The access point is a Netgear WPN802v1, DHCP, NAT both switched off, running firmware 2.0.9.0. Last night I set it up with exactly the same settings, and similar to tonight I could get a couple of devices to work, and a couple not to. By the morning, however, everything had stopped working - nothing could get a DHCP IP address. I rebooted the 877W earlier this evening and I'm wondering whether this is why a few things are working now. "Could it be possible that the issue could be with the 877W?" I didn't configure this - is it possible that the DHCP server only likes assigning devices that are immediately attached to it? Or similar, could a firewall be stopping too many addresses that are coming through one device? (ie. the Access Point) This could explain why devices are working at the start but then not by the end. In reply to your questions, "1. I looked at the Netgear DG834G support page. There are five versions of this router. Which version do you have? Netgear usually lists this on the label on the bottom of the router. What version of the firmware does it have?" It's a DG834Gv3, and the firmware is the last on the netgear site version 4.01.40. "3. Not knowing which version you have, I glanced at the reference manual for the DG834G v3. In the section for Wireless Settings under the subsection Wireless Access Point there is a check box for a Wireless Isolation setting. If you have this setting it should be off/unchecked. If it is checked then any device connected via wireless would not be able to talk to any other device on the LAN. This sounds like your problem so maybe this is the cause?" I've checked this and it's switched off. I've made a change to the IP of the access point to something outside the DHCP range - it's now 192.158.153.5, with DHCP starting at 11 and going up to 254. Thanks for the tip about this - I only have a few devices so wouldn't anticipate the DHCP server assigning up to 110, but better safe than sorry. Finally one more thing I thought I should add, is with the Powerbook G4 that's not working - it's getting a DHCP IP address and it can communicate with the WPN802 as I can visit the administration page. Anything further than this, however, it can't reach; I can't administrate the 192.168.153.1 (877W router). Strangely, however, when I open Finder on the same powerbook it's detecting my NAS which is attached directly via wire to the 877W. If I try to browse it, it says connection failed. RE: "Perhaps the problem with your Powerbook is with DNS?.." The IP settings on the powerbook are identical to that of the PC with the exception of the IP address; the PC is 192.168.153.17 and the powerbook is 192.168.153.12. Subnets are the same, 255.255.255.0 and default gateway is the same, .1, and the DNS servers are the same. I administrate the 877W by going to 192.168.153.1 in the browser. This is what isn't working from the Powerbook, despite the PC working fine when I do the same. Meanwhile, however, I can administrate the AP on 192.168.153.5 from both PC and Powerbook Update 06/07/2010 - FINAL RESOLUTION of sorts: First off, sorry for the length of this question. I need start to practice a more concise writing style, so I'm going to try to keep this bit brief. After much fiddling, and with the hugely-appreciated help of irrational John, I have come to the conclusion that it's something wrong with the powerbook. I believe that this was perhaps the reason I doubted things worked at the very beginning. I now have the original DG834Gv3 running both wirelessly and wired, and both wired devices and wireless devices get internet connectivity. The only anomaly is the powerbook which I've had to keep wired, as no matter what I do it refuses to work wirelessly. I still have suspicions that the 877W isn't quite right; I'm fairly sure that if I RJ45 the powerline adapter into a different LAN port on it then everything will break. I've just about run out of patience to test this further, and I think I need to go into the 877W's config to match the 877w's lan port's settings. I'm accepting irrational John's answer as he's been enormously helpful, way above the call of duty, and for this line he wrote: Beats the heck out of me. which in the midst of great frustration made me chuckle, and for a sentence in one of his comments to the same answer: If it is specific to the Powerbook I would put that issue aside until after you feel you have the rest of your LAN and the additional WAP all working together correctlyt It was this second sentence that made me put the powerbook aside and concentrate on the other devices that ultimately led me to getting things working.

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• Does WebDAV even work on IIS 7? I say nay

  - by FlavorScape

  I've tried every configuration from the top 10 stack overflow and server fault results for WebDAV 405 on IIS (for verb PROPFIND and PUT). I'm running server 2008 SP2. Followed all the instructions here. I'm no stranger to configuring servers. This has gotten nowhere after 8 hours. Confirmed system.webserver in applicationhost.config: <add name="WebDAV" path="*" verb="PROPFIND,PROPPATCH,MKCOL,PUT,COPY,DELETE,MOVE,LOCK,UNLOCK" modules="WebDAVModule" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="None" /> Port 443 with basic auth, same issue. Tried port 80 with windows auth. Broken. (405) Windows authentication. Check. Added authoring rules for default site and application. Check. Not the firewall. Check. added "Desktop Experience" role feature Tried HTTPS with Basic Authentication on port 443. Does not work. No other services are running like Sharepoint. Check. confirmed user has read/write NT level permissions for the folder/virtual dir tried net use * http://localhost /user:MYDOMAIN\me myPass get error 1920, if I don't authenticate I get error 67 confirmed I'm not applying filtering to WebDAV: <requestFiltering> <fileExtensions applyToWebDAV="false" /> <verbs applyToWebDAV="false" /> <hiddenSegments applyToWebDAV="false" /> 405 - HTTP verb used to access this page is not allowed. The page you are looking for cannot be displayed because an invalid method (HTTP verb) was used to attempt access. SHOULD I JUST GIVE UP? Other questions that helped none: 405 - ‘Method not Allowed’ adding service hosted in IIS7 webdav on iis7.5 - simply cannot make it work http://studentguru.gr/b/kingherc/archive/2009/11/21/webdav-for-iis-7-on-windows-server-2008-r2.aspx

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• Why won't 2GB of ram across 3 of 4 slots work on my motherboard (max 2GB)?

  - by Andrew

  My desktop is an old home-built machine circa 200[5-6] running Ubuntu 11.10 (but this is not relevant because I'm reading available ram from BIOS loading screen), with an ASUS P5GPL motherboard, not X or X-SE - it has four slots. I'm mainly a laptop person, but keep this around for running a server from if needed, backing up to, seeding Ubuntu to people from, etc… It has four (DDR) ram slots, two black and two blue, in the order black-blue-black-blue (I will call them D, C, B, and A, respectively) with some space in the middle. The blue ones are the closest to the processor. I used to have two 512MB chips in the two blue slots. I just got a 1GB chip and plugged it into one of the black slots; my system didn't recognize it. I messed around and discovered that it will not recognize chips in many positions, and I couldn't get it to recognize all three of these chips at the same time. In particular, if I put the 512MB chips in A and B it would only use 1, but AC, AD, BD, and CD worked. I didn't try BC, I believe. Only some of these continue to work when I switch the 1GB chip into one of these positions. Can I have some advice as to how to position these chips to get all 2GB used? How about if I get another 1GB chip - where should I put the two? And what about the RAM maximum Crucial says? Can I go above 2GB, if I get another 1GB chip? Right now, I have a 512MB chip in A and the 1GB chip in C. EDIT: I read some other posts and tried dmidecode in Ubuntu to clarify the max memory question, that wasn't a major part anyways. It says my max memory module size is 1024M (OK) and my max memory size is 4096M (doesn't agree with Crucial OR the Asus web site, maybe it will only work while in Linux and BIOS won't OK it?).

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• Lighttpd - byte range request doesn't work. can't stream mp4

  - by w-01

  Am attempting to use the lastest flowplayer. (if it could work it would be pretty awesome btw) http://flowplayer.org One of the cool things about it is it uses the new HTML5 video element and supports random seeking/playback. In order to do this, you need a byte range request capable server on the backend. Luckily I'm using Lighttpd 1.5.0 on the backend. Unfortunately the current behavior is that when I do a random seek, the video simply restarts itself from the beginning. the docs say: "For HTML5 video you don't have to do any client side configuration. If your server supports byte range requests then seeking should work on the fly. Most servers including Apache, Nginx and Lighttpd support this." On my page, using chrome web developer tools, i can see when the video is requested, the server response headers indicate it is able to acce[t byte ranges. Accept-Ranges:bytes when I do random seek in the player, I can see that that byte ranges are request appropriately in the request header: Range: bytes=5668-10785 I can also verify the moov atom is at the front of the video file. My question here is if there is something else on the lighttpd side i'm missing in order to enable byte-range requests? The reason i ask is because the current behavior suggests that the lighttpd simply doesn't understand the byte range request and is just reserving the video from the beginning. Update it's clearer to put this here. As per RJS' suggestion I ran a curl command. in the response it looks like lighttpd is working as expected. Content-Range: bytes 1602355-18844965/18844966 Content-Length: 17242611

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• How does IPv6 subnetting work and how does it differ from IPv4 subnetting?

  - by Michael Hampton

  This is a Canonical Question about IPv6 Subnetting. Related: How does IPv4 Subnetting Work? I know a lot about IPv4 Subnetting, and as I prepare to (deploy|work on) an IPv6 network I need to know how much of this knowledge is transferable and what I still need to learn. IPv6 seems at first glance to be much more complex than IPv4. So I would like to know: IPv6 is 128 bits, so why is /64 the smallest recommended subnet for hosts? Related to this: Why is it recommended to use /127 for point to point links between routers, and why was it recommended against in the past? Should I change existing router links to use /127? Why would virtual machines be provisioned with subnets smaller than /64? Are there other situations in which I would use a subnet smaller than /64? Can I map directly from IPv4 subnets to IPv6 subnets? My interfaces have several IPv6 addresses. Must the subnet be the same for all of them? Why do I sometimes see a % rather than a / in an IPv6 address and what does it mean? Am I wasting too many subnets? Aren't we just going to run out again? In what other major ways is IPv6 subnetting different from IPv4 subnetting?

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• Windows 7 just deleted 4 days of work wtf!?

  - by Mat

  Hey! I'm just a bit about to freak out. I just finished a project and rebooted my computer. It didn't want to boot anymore so I had to use the windows 7 system repair option. it run for a minute and then booted up. Now most of my sourcecode from the last 4 days of work is gone! background: sometimes (most often after installing new software) my notebook won't boot up anymore. It will just show the little Win 7 flag, but not read from the harddisk anymore. If I hardabord and reboot then, it asks me whether to start windows normally (which won't work) or to run "windows startup repair". If i run it, it does some stuff for about two or three minutes and then I can boot windows again. Usually after this, .exe files i added to the computer during previous days are gone - but other files so far were not touched. But now, after this happened, a whole bunch of ".as" (ActionScript source files) from my project are gone!! does anyone know where and whether there's a way to recover them?? please help! Thank you!

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• Ubuntu: how to get audio to work in both Spotify (under Wine) and Flash (in Firefox)?

  - by Jonik

  I'm running Spotify on Linux using Wine. Sound worked great (even though the sound test in winecfg failed!), until I installed alsa-oss package yesterday to get Flash sound working in Firefox. Now Spotify says: "There is a problem with your sound card. Spotify can't play music." So the question is, how to get the sound in Spotify working again, so that it also keeps working in Flash & Firefox? Tweak some ALSA settings? Spotify settings? Add/remove some packages? By the way, curiously, now that sound doesn't work in Spotify, winecfg's "Test Sound" does work! This is Ubuntu 8.04 (Hardy). Sound card / driver is probably an integrated AC'97. Please mention if any additional information about the system is needed! Update: I have Flash 10 installed (outside the packaging system, using $MOZ_PLUGIN_PATH env variable), but also had Flash 9 from flashplugin-nonfree package - and the earlier version was being used by Firefox! Based on what Mike Arthur said about Flash and alsa-oss, I removed the older Flash (flashplugin-nonfree package) and alsa-oss - and Flash sound still works, which is nice. But for some reason Spotify still doesn't play sound, even though things should now be like they were originally... Update 2: Got it working, all smoothly, finally.

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