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• Validating an XML document fragment against XML schema

  - by shylent

  Terribly sorry if I've failed to find a duplicate of this question. I have a certain document with a well-defined document structure. I am expressing that structure through an XML schema. That data structure is operated upon by a RESTful service, so various nodes and combinations of nodes (not the whole document, but fragments of it) are exposed as "resources". Naturally, I am doing my own validation of the actual data, but it makes sense to validate the incoming/outgoing data against the schema as well (before the fine-grained validation of the data). What I don't quite grasp is how to validate document fragments given the schema definition. Let me illustrate: Imagine, the example document structure is: <doc-root> <el name="foo"/> <el name="bar"/> </doc-root> Rather a trivial data structure. The schema goes something like this: <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsd:element name="doc-root"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element name="el" type="myCustomType" /> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:element> <xsd:complexType name="myCustomType"> <xsd:attribute name="name" use="required" /> </xsd:complexType> </xsd:schema> Now, imagine, I've just received a PUT request to update an 'el' object. Naturally, I would receive not the full document or not any xml, starting with 'doc-root' at its root, but the 'el' element itself. I would very much like to validate it against the existing schema then, but just running it through a validating parser wouldn't work, since it will expect a 'doc-root' at the root. So, again, the question is, - how can one validate a document fragment against an existing schema, or, perhaps, how can a schema be written to allow such an approach. Hope it made sense.

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• Computer science undergraduate project ideas

  - by Mehrdad Afshari

  Hopefully, I'm going to finish my undergraduate studies next semester and I'm thinking about the topic of my final project. And yes, I've read the questions with duplicate title. I'm asking this from a bit different viewpoint, so it's not an exact dupe. I've spent at least half of my life coding stuff in different languages and frameworks so I'm not looking at this project as a way to learn much about coding and preparing for real world apps or such. I've done lots of those already. But since I have to do it to complete my degree, I felt I should spend my time doing something useful instead of throwing the whole thing out. I'm planning to make it an open source project or a hosted Web app (depending on the type) if I can make a high quality thing out of it, so I decided to ask StackOverflow what could make a useful project. Situation I've plenty of freedom about the topic. They also require 30-40 pages of text describing the project. I have the following points in mind (the more satisfied, the better): Something useful for software development Something that benefits the community Having academic value is great Shouldn't take more than a month of development (I know I'm lazy). Shouldn't be related to advanced theoretical stuff (soft computing, fuzzy logic, neural networks, ...). I've been a business-oriented software developer. It should be software oriented. While I love hacking microcontrollers and other fun embedded electronic things, I'm not really good at soldering and things like that. I'm leaning toward a Web application (think StackOverflow, PasteBin, NerdDinner, things like those). Technology It's probably going to be done in .NET (C#, F#) and Windows platform. If I really like the project (cool low level hacking), I might actually slip to C/C++. But really, C# is what I'm efficient at. Ideas Programming language, parsing and compiler related stuff: Designing a domain specific programming language and compiler Templating language compiled to C# or IL Database tools and related code generation stuff Web related technologies: ASP.NET MVC View engine doing something cool (don't know what exactly...) Specific-purpose, small, fast ASP.NET-based Web framework Applications: Visual Studio plugin to integrate with Bazaar (it's too much work, I think). ASP.NET based, jQuery-powered issue tracker (and possibly, project lifecycle management as a whole - poor man's TFS) Others: Something related to GPGPU Looking forward for great ideas! Unfortunately, I can't help on a currently existing project. I need to start my own to prevent further problems (as it's an undergrad project, nevertheless).

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• TFS and shared projects in multiple solutions

  - by David Stratton

  Our .NET team works on projects for our company that fall into distinct categories. Some are internal web apps, some are external (publicly facing) web apps, we also have internal Windows applications for our corporate office users, and Windows Forms apps for our retail locations (stores). Of course, because we hate code reuse, we have a ton of code that is shared among the different applications. Currently we're using SVN as our source control, and we've got our repository laid out like this: - = folder, | = Visual Studio Solution -SVN - Internet | Ourcompany.com | Oursecondcompany.com - Intranet | UniformOrdering website | MessageCenter website - Shared | ErrorLoggingModule | RegularExpressionGenerator | Anti-Xss | OrgChartModule etc... So.. The OurCompany.com solution in the Internet folder would have a website project, and it would also include the ErrorLoggingModule, RegularExpressionGenerator, and Anti-Xss projects from the shared directory. Similarly, our UniformOrdering website solution would have each of these projects included in the solution as well. We prefer to have a project reference to a .dll reference because, first of all, if we need to add or fix a function in the ErrorLoggingModule while working on the OurCompany.com website, it's right there. Also, this allows us to build each solution and see if changes to shared code break any other applications. This should work well on a build server as well if I'm correct. In SVN, there is no problem with this. SVN and Visual Studio aren't tied together in the way TFS's source control is. We never figured out how to work this type of structure in TFS when we were using it, because in TFS, the TFS project was always tied to a Visual Studio Solution. The Source Code repository was a child of the TFS Project, so if we wanted to do this, we had to duplicate the Shared code in each TFS project's source code repository. As my co-worker put it, this "breaks every known best practice about code reuse and simplicity". It was enough of a deal breaker for us that we switched to SVN. Now, however, we're faced with truly fixing our development processes, and the Application Lifecycle Management of TFS is pretty close to exactly what we want, and how we want to work. Our one sticking point is the shared code issue. We're evaluating other commercial and open source solutions, but since we're already paying for TFS with our MSDN Subscriptions, and TFS is pretty much exactly what we want, we'd REALLY like to find a way around this issue. Has anybody else faced this and come up with a solution? If you've seen an article or posting on this that you can share with me, that would help as well. As always, I'm open to answers like "You're looking at it all wrong, bonehead, HERE'S the way it SHOULD be done.

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• WCF, Rampart, ADFS2 and SAML Interop issue

  - by user317647

  Hi, I'm working on establishing interoperability between .NET WCF 3.5 and Axis2/Rampart using ADFS2 as the STS and using SAML authentication. Initially I used Axis 1.4.1/Rampart 1.4 but in an attempt to rule out issues relating to WS-* standards compatbility have also created a duplicate environment running Axis 1.5.1/Rampart 1.5. Both envionment use Eclipse 3.5.1 (Galileo)/Tomcat 5.5 for the Java service side. My objective is: WCF-ADFS2-SAML token-Axis2/Rampart Using Kerberos authentication to obtain a SAML token from ADFS2 and propagating this to Rampart. Much progress has been made so far, but the error I'm now getting on Rampart is as follows (on both versions 1.4 & 1.5): [ERROR] General security error (SAML token security failure) org.apache.axis2.AxisFault: General security error (SAML token security failure) Caused by: org.apache.ws.security.WSSecurityException: General security error (SAML token security failure) at org.apache.ws.security.saml.SAMLUtil.getSAMLKeyInfo(SAMLUtil.java:169) at org.apache.ws.security.saml.SAMLUtil.getSAMLKeyInfo(SAMLUtil.java:73) at org.apache.ws.security.processor.DerivedKeyTokenProcessor.extractSecret(DerivedKeyTokenProcessor.java:170) at org.apache.ws.security.processor.DerivedKeyTokenProcessor.handleToken(DerivedKeyTokenProcessor.java:74) at org.apache.ws.security.WSSecurityEngine.processSecurityHeader(WSSecurityEngine.java:326) at org.apache.ws.security.WSSecurityEngine.processSecurityHeader(WSSecurityEngine.java:243) at org.apache.rampart.RampartEngine.process(RampartEngine.java:144) After building source versions for Rampart (just 1.4 so far) I've traced this problem to the following source code: SAMUtil.java Element e = samlSubj.getKeyInfo(); X509Certificate[] certs = null; try { KeyInfo ki = new KeyInfo(e, null); if (ki.containsX509Data()) { X509Data data = ki.itemX509Data(0); XMLX509Certificate certElem = null; if (data != null && data.containsCertificate()) { certElem = data.itemCertificate(0); } if (certElem != null) { X509Certificate cert = certElem.getX509Certificate(); certs = new X509Certificate[1]; certs[0] = cert; return new SAMLKeyInfo(assertion, certs); } } The line ki.containsX509Data() above return false and fails. The value from the Element e is as follows: CN=Root Agency -147027885241304943914470421251724308948 JMYzUkmrT13JoYj2pGN5o/vxpGq8bKFXI1m18iEFu+5rF0wA4MYURGIEWE9/zg1apgjElQHus5qb4ZRCzg7IHyENCGq7um2w1SXxPzstoMsZ7oZ83Uq08lDdNV51QGzCCOdCi+YizKT7AJ1B6gaplxMnFEJ8TlnzFBCavMxSCho= The attempt to obtain the X509 data above is failing even when it appears in the message? (IssuerSerial). All references I've seen so far indicate that the style of X509 reference is supported by Rampart and WSS4J (default?!). This key reference is the certificate that ADFS2 has used to encrypt the message. Any help at all would be greatly appreciated! Thanks Jason

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• Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'

  - by sah302

  I know this is almost duplicate of : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 and http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i but some things don't add up compared to other appliations on my server and I am not sure why. Boxes being used: Web Box SQL Box SQL Test Box My Application: I've got aASP.NET Web Application, which references a class library that uses LINQ-to-SQL. Connection string set up properly in the class library. As per http://stackoverflow.com/questions/97594/login-failed-for-user-username-system-data-sqlclient-sqlexception-with-linq-i I also added this connection string to the Web Application. The connection string uses SQL credentials as so (in both web app and class library): <add name="Namespace.My.MySettings.ConnectionStringProduction" connectionString="Data Source=(SQL Test Box);Initial Catalog=(db name);Persist Security Info=True;User ID=ID;Password=Password" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> This connection confirmed as working via adding it to server explorer. This is the connection string my .dbml file is using. The problem: I get the following error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$'. Now referencing this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1269706/the-error-login-failed-for-user-nt-authority-iusr-in-asp-net-and-sql-server-2 it says that's really the local network service and using any other non-domain name will not work. But I am confused because I've checked both SQL Box and SQL Test Box SQL Management Studio and both have NT AUTHORITY/NETWORK SERVICE under Security - Logins, at the database level, that isn't listed under Security - Users, but at the database level Security - Users I have the user displayed in the connection string. At NTFS level on web server, the permissions have NETWORK SERVICE has full control. The reason why I am confused is because I have many other web applications on my Web Server, that reference databases on both SQL Box and SQL Test Box, and they all work. But I cannot find a difference between them and my current application, other than I am using a class library. Will that matter? Checking NTFS permissions, setup of Security Logins at the server and databases levels, connection string and method of connecting (SQL Server credentials), and IIS application pool and other folder options, are all the same. Why do these applications work without adding the machinename$ to the permissions of either of my SQL boxes? But that is what the one link is telling me to do to fix this problem.

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• ASP Classic Session Variable Not Always Getting Set

  - by Mike at KBS

  I have a classic ASP site I'm maintaining and recently we wanted to do special rendering actions if the visitor was coming from one specific set of websites. So in the page where those visitors have to come through to get to our site, I put a simple line setting a session variable: <!-- #include virtual="/clsdbAccess.cs"--> <% set db = new dbAccess %> <html> <head> ... <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> ... </script> </head> <body> <% Session("CAME_FROM_NEWSPAPER") = "your local newspaper" ... %> ... html stuff ... </body> </html> Then, in all the following pages, whenever I need to put up nav links, menus, etc., that we don't want to show to those visitors, I test for if that session variable is "" or not, then render accordingly. My problem is that it seems to work great for me in development, then I get it out into Production and it works great sometimes, and other times it doesn't work at all. Sometimes the session variable gets set, sometimes it doesn't. Everything else works great. But our client is seeing inconsistent results on pages rendered to their visitors and this is a problem. I've tried logging on from different PC's and I confirm that I get different, and unpredictable, results. The problem is I can't reproduce it at will, and I can't troubleshoot/trace Production. For now I've solved this by just creating duplicate pages with the special rendering, and making sure those visitors go there. But this is a hack and will eventually be difficult to maintain. Is there something special or inconsistent about session variables in Classic ASP? Is there a better way to approach the problem? TIA.

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• Why is "wsdl" namespace interjected into action name when using savon for ruby soap communication?

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  I'm trying to access a SOAP service i don't control. One of the actions is called ProcessMessage. I follow example and generate a SOAP request, but I get an error back saying that the action doesn't exist. I traced the problem to the way the body of the envelope is generated. <env:Envelope ... "> <env:Header> <wsse:Security ... "> <wsse:UsernameToken ..."> <wsse:Username>USER</wsse:Username> <wsse:Nonce>658e702d5feff1777a6c741847239eb5d6d86e48</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-02-18T02:05:25Z</wsu:Created> <wsse:Password ... >password</wsse:Password> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security> </env:Header> <env:Body> <wsdl:ProcessMessage> <payload> ...... </payload> </wsdl:ProcessMessage> </env:Body> </env:Envelope> That ProcessMessage tag should be : <ProcessMessage xmlns="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport"> That's what it is when it is generated by the sample java app, and it works. That tag is the only difference between what my ruby app generates and the sample java app. Is there any way to get rid of the "wsdl:" namesaplce in front of that one tag and add an attribute like that. Barring that, is there a way to make force the action to be not to be generated by just passed as a string like the rest of the body? Here is my code. require 'rubygems' require 'savon' client = Savon::Client.new "https://gmservices.pp.gm.com/ProcessMessage?wsdl" response = client.process_message! do | soap, wsse | wsse.username = "USER" wsse.password = "password" soap.namespace = "http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport" #makes no difference soap.action = "ProcessMessage" #makes no difference soap.input = "ProcessMessage" #makes no difference #my body at this point is jsut one big xml string soap.body = "<payload>...</payload>" # putting <ProccessMessage> tag here doesn't help as it just creates a duplicate tag in the body, since Savon keeps interjecting <wsdl:ProcessMessage> tag. end Thank you P.S.: I tried handsoap but it doesn't support httpS and is confusing, and I tried soap4r but but it'even more confusing than handsoap.

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• Reliable way of generating unique hardware ID

  - by mr.b

  Question: what's the best way to accomplish following. I have to come up with unique ID for each networked client, such that: it (ID) should persist once client software is installed on target computer, and should continue to persist if software is re-installed on same computer and same OS installment, it should not change if hardware configuration is modified in most ways (except changing the motherboard) When hard drive with client software installed is cloned to another computer with identical hardware configuration (or, as similar as possible), client software should be aware of that change. A little bit of explanation and some back-story: This question is basically age old question that also touches topic of software copy-protection, as some of mechanisms used in that area are mentioned here. I should be clear at this point that I'm not looking for a copy-protection scheme. Please, read on. :) I'm working on a client-server software that is supposed to work in local network. One of problems I have to solve is to identify each unique client in network (not so much of a problem), so that I can apply certain attributes to every specific client, retain and enforce those attributes during deployment lifetime of a specific client. While I was looking for a solution, I was aware of following: Windows activation system uses some kind of heavy fingerprinting mechanism, that is extremely sensitive to hardware modifications, Disk imaging software copies along all Volume IDs (tied to each partition when formatted), and custom, uniquely generated IDs during installation process, during first run, or in any other way, that is strictly software in its nature, and stored in registry or on hard drive, so it's very easy to confuse two Obvious choice for this kind of problem would be to find out BIOS identifiers (not 100% sure if this is unique through identical motherboard models, though), as that's the only thing I can rely on, that isn't duplicated, transferred by cloning, and that can't be changed (at least not by using some user-space program). Everything else fails as either being not reliable (MAC cloning, anyone?), or too demanding (in terms that it's too sensitive to configuration changes). Am I missing something obvious here? Sub-question that I'd like to ask is, am I doing it correctly, architecture-wise? Perhaps there is a better tool for task that I have to accomplish... Another approach I had in mind is something similar to handshake mechanism, where server maintains internal lookup table of connected client IDs (which can be even completely software-based and non-unique at any given moment), and tells client to come up with different ID during handshake, if duplicate ID is provided upon connection. That approach, unfortunately, doesn't play nicely with one of requirements to tie attributes to specific client during lifetime.

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• UIWebView leak? Can someone confirm?

  - by Shaggy Frog

  I was leak-testing my current project and I'm stumped. I've been browsing like crazy and tried everything except chicken sacrifice. I just created a tiny toy project app from scratch and I can duplicate the leak in there. So either UIWebView has a leak or I'm doing something really silly. Essentially, it boils down to a loadRequest: call to a UIWebView object, given an URLRequest built from an NSURL which references a file URL, for a file in the app bundle, which lives inside a folder that Xcode is including by reference. Phew. The leak is intermittent but still happens ~75% of the time (in about 20 tests it happened about 15 times). It only happens on the device -- this does not leak in the simulator. I am testing targeting both iPhone OS 3.1.2 and 3.1.3, on an original (1st Gen) iPod Touch that is using iPhone OS 3.1.3. To reproduce, just create a project from scratch. Add a UIWebView to the RootViewController's .xib, hook it up via IBOutlet. In the Finder, create a folder named "html" inside your project's folder. Inside that folder, create a file named "dummy.html" that has the word "Test" in it. (Does not need to be valid HTML.) Then add the html folder to your project in Xcode by choosing "Create Folder References for any added folders" Add the following to viewDidLoad NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* filePath = [[resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"html"] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"dummy.html"]; NSURL* url = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:filePath]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; // <-- this creates the leak! [browserView loadRequest:request]; [url release]; I've tried everything from setting delegate for the UIWebView and implementing UIWebViewDelegate, to not setting a delegate in IB, to not setting a delegate in IB and explicitly setting the web view's delegate property to nil, to using alloc/init instead of getting autoreleased NSURLRequests (and/or NSURLs)... I tried the answer to a similar question (setting the shared URL cache to empty) and that did not help. Can anyone help?

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• Why is ELMAH creating 2 reports for each error?

  - by Chris F

  I have setup ELMAH to create an XML log as well as send an email every time it encounters and unhandled exception in my ASP.NET MVC web application. However, creates 2 xml files for every error and sends to emails, seemingly identical each time. How do I stop this? My relevant web.config configuration sections are below. I thought the duplicate registration system.web and system.webServer may be causing the issue, but that's not the case. <configSections> ... <sectionGroup name="elmah"> <section name="security" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.SecuritySectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorLog" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorLogSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorMail" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorMailSectionHandler, Elmah" /> <section name="errorFilter" requirePermission="false" type="Elmah.ErrorFilterSectionHandler, Elmah" /> </sectionGroup> </configSections> <elmah> <security allowRemoteAccess="no"></security> <errorLog type="Elmah.XmlFileErrorLog, Elmah" logPath="~/Logs" /> <errorMail from="[email protected]" to="[email protected]" cc="[email protected]" subject="ELMAH: Site Error" async="true" smtpPort="25" smtpServer="xx.xx.xx.xx" /> </elmah> <system.web> ... <httpHandlers> ... <add verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> </httpHandlers> <httpModules> ... <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah"/> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah"/> </httpModules> </system.web> <!-- for IIS7 --> <system.webServer> ... <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true"> ... <add name="ErrorLog" type="Elmah.ErrorLogModule, Elmah"/> <add name="ErrorMail" type="Elmah.ErrorMailModule, Elmah"/> </modules> <handlers> ... <add verb="POST,GET,HEAD" path="elmah.axd" type="Elmah.ErrorLogPageFactory, Elmah" /> </handlers> </system.webServer>

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• Haskell newbie on types

  - by garulfo

  I'm completely new to Haskell (and more generally to functional programming), so forgive me if this is really basic stuff. To get more than a taste, I try to implement in Haskell some algorithmic stuff I'm working on. I have a simple module Interval that implements intervals on the line. It contains the type data Interval t = Interval t t the helper function makeInterval :: (Ord t) => t -> t -> Interval t makeInterval l r | l <= r = Interval l r | otherwise = error "bad interval" and some utility functions about intervals. Here, my interest lies in multidimensional intervals (d-intervals), those objects that are composed of d intervals. I want to separately consider d-intervals that are the union of d disjoint intervals on the line (multiple interval) from those that are the union of d interval on d separate lines (track interval). With distinct algorithmic treatments in mind, I think it would be nice to have two distinct types (even if both are lists of intervals here) such as import qualified Interval as I -- Multilple interval newtype MInterval t = MInterval [I.Interval t] -- Track interval newtype TInterval t = TInterval [I.Interval t] to allow for distinct sanity checks, e.g. makeMInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> MInterval t makeMInterval is = if foldr (&&) True [I.precedes i i' | (i, i') <- zip is (tail is)] then (MInterval is) else error "bad multiple interval" makeTInterval :: (Ord t) => [I.Interval t] -> TInterval t makeTInterval = TInterval I now get to the point, at last! But some functions are naturally concerned with both multiple intervals and track intervals. For example, a function order would return the number of intervals in a multiple interval or a track interval. What can I do? Adding -- Dimensional interval data DInterval t = MIntervalStuff (MInterval t) | TIntervalStuff (TInterval t) does not help much, since, if I understand well (correct me if I'm wrong), I would have to write order :: DInterval t -> Int order (MIntervalStuff (MInterval is)) = length is order (TIntervalStuff (TInterval is)) = length is and call order as order (MIntervalStuff is) or order (TIntervalStuff is) when is is a MInterval or a TInterval. Not that great, it looks odd. Neither I want to duplicate the function (I have many functions that are concerned with both multiple and track intevals, and some other d-interval definitions such as equal length multiple and track intervals). I'm left with the feeling that I'm completely wrong and have missed some important point about types in Haskell (and/or can't forget enough here about OO programming). So, quite a newbie question, what would be the best way in Haskell to deal with such a situation? Do I have to forget about introducing MInterval and TInterval and go with one type only? Thanks a lot for your help, Garulfo

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• Using scipy.interpolate.splrep function

  - by Koustav Ghosal

  I am trying to fit a cubic spline to a given set of points. My points are not ordered. I CANNOT sort or reorder the points, since I need that information. But since the function scipy.interpolate.splrep works only on non-duplicate and monotonically increasing points I have defined a function that maps the x-coordinates to a monotonically increasing space. My old points are: xpoints=[4913.0, 4912.0, 4914.0, 4913.0, 4913.0, 4913.0, 4914.0, 4915.0, 4918.0, 4921.0, 4925.0, 4932.0, 4938.0, 4945.0, 4950.0, 4954.0, 4955.0, 4957.0, 4956.0, 4953.0, 4949.0, 4943.0, 4933.0, 4921.0, 4911.0, 4898.0, 4886.0, 4874.0, 4865.0, 4858.0, 4853.0, 4849.0, 4848.0, 4849.0, 4851.0, 4858.0, 4864.0, 4869.0, 4877.0, 4884.0, 4893.0, 4903.0, 4913.0, 4923.0, 4935.0, 4947.0, 4959.0, 4970.0, 4981.0, 4991.0, 5000.0, 5005.0, 5010.0, 5015.0, 5019.0, 5020.0, 5021.0, 5023.0, 5025.0, 5027.0, 5027.0, 5028.0, 5028.0, 5030.0, 5031.0, 5033.0, 5035.0, 5037.0, 5040.0, 5043.0] ypoints=[10557.0, 10563.0, 10567.0, 10571.0, 10575.0, 10577.0, 10578.0, 10581.0, 10582.0, 10582.0, 10582.0, 10581.0, 10578.0, 10576.0, 10572.0, 10567.0, 10560.0, 10550.0, 10541.0, 10531.0, 10520.0, 10511.0, 10503.0, 10496.0, 10490.0, 10487.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10490.0, 10495.0, 10504.0, 10513.0, 10523.0, 10533.0, 10542.0, 10550.0, 10556.0, 10559.0, 10560.0, 10559.0, 10555.0, 10550.0, 10543.0, 10533.0, 10522.0, 10514.0, 10505.0, 10496.0, 10490.0, 10486.0, 10482.0, 10481.0, 10482.0, 10486.0, 10491.0, 10497.0, 10506.0, 10516.0, 10524.0, 10534.0, 10544.0, 10552.0, 10558.0, 10564.0, 10569.0, 10573.0, 10576.0, 10578.0, 10581.0, 10582.0] Plots: The code for the mapping function and interpolation is: xnew=[] ynew=ypoints for c3,i in enumerate(xpoints): if np.isfinite(np.log(i*pow(2,c3))): xnew.append(np.log(i*pow(2,c3))) else: if c==0: xnew.append(np.random.random_sample()) else: xnew.append(xnew[c3-1]+np.random.random_sample()) xnew=np.asarray(xnew) ynew=np.asarray(ynew) constant1=10.0 nknots=len(xnew)/constant1 idx_knots = (np.arange(1,len(xnew)-1,(len(xnew)-2)/np.double(nknots))).astype('int') knots = [xnew[i] for i in idx_knots] knots = np.asarray(knots) int_range=np.linspace(min(xnew),max(xnew),len(xnew)) tck = interpolate.splrep(xnew,ynew,k=3,task=-1,t=knots) y1= interpolate.splev(int_range,tck,der=0) The code is throwing an error at the function interpolate.splrep() for some set of points like the above one. The error is: File "/home/neeraj/Desktop/koustav/res/BOS5/fit_spline3.py", line 58, in save_spline_f tck = interpolate.splrep(xnew,ynew,k=3,task=-1,t=knots) File "/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/scipy/interpolate/fitpack.py", line 465, in splrep raise _iermessier(_iermess[ier][0]) ValueError: Error on input data But for other set of points it works fine. For example for the following set of points. xpoints=[1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1630.0, 1630.0, 1630.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1631.0, 1630.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1629.0, 1628.0, 1627.0, 1627.0, 1625.0, 1624.0, 1624.0, 1623.0, 1620.0, 1618.0, 1617.0, 1616.0, 1615.0, 1614.0, 1614.0, 1612.0, 1612.0, 1612.0, 1611.0, 1610.0, 1609.0, 1608.0, 1607.0, 1607.0, 1603.0, 1602.0, 1602.0, 1601.0, 1601.0, 1600.0, 1599.0, 1598.0] ypoints=[10570.0, 10572.0, 10572.0, 10573.0, 10572.0, 10572.0, 10571.0, 10570.0, 10569.0, 10565.0, 10564.0, 10563.0, 10562.0, 10560.0, 10558.0, 10556.0, 10554.0, 10551.0, 10548.0, 10547.0, 10544.0, 10542.0, 10541.0, 10538.0, 10534.0, 10532.0, 10531.0, 10528.0, 10525.0, 10522.0, 10519.0, 10517.0, 10516.0, 10512.0, 10509.0, 10509.0, 10507.0, 10504.0, 10502.0, 10500.0, 10501.0, 10499.0, 10498.0, 10496.0, 10491.0, 10492.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10488.0, 10486.0, 10486.0, 10485.0, 10485.0, 10486.0, 10483.0, 10483.0, 10482.0, 10480.0] Plots: Can anybody suggest what's happening ?? Thanks in advance......

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• jQuery DatePicker - How to highlight certain days every month?

  - by Sergio

  Hi I have a jquery datepicker which is renders the current date by default as a full calendar. Before this is rendered I get a list of days from the server via ajax of days that need to be highlighted for the current month. The code for this is as follows: $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month +"&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); function RenderCalendar(dates) { $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate(); if ($.inArray(theday, dates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } } }); } This is all good, but I would like the highlighted dates to update when the user clicks to a different month. I can modify the jquery datepicker initialise code with the following code: onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { //get new array of dates for that month $.get("Note/GetActionDates/?orgID=" + orgID + "&month=" + month + "&year=" + year, null, function(result) { RenderCalendar(result); }, "json"); } But this doesn't seem to work. Could anyone show me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks! :) UPDATE - Working Code Thanks for the help! I have tweaked the code from petersendidit as follows and it now works. Gonna add a little more code to remove duplicate dates from the dates array but aside from that its all good. $("#actionCal").datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yyyy', beforeShowDay: function(thedate) { var theday = thedate.getDate() + "/" + (thedate.getMonth() + 1) + "/" + thedate.getFullYear(); if ($.inArray(theday, actionCalDates) == -1) { return [true, "", ""]; } else { return [true, "specialDate", "Actions Today"]; } }, onChangeMonthYear: function(year, month, inst) { dateCount = 0; getDates(orgID, month, year); } }); function getDates(orgID, month, year) { dateCount += 1; if (dateCount < 4) { $.ajax({ url: "Note/GetActionDates/", data: { 'orgID': orgID, 'month': month, 'year': year }, type: "GET", dataType: "json", success: function(result) { actionCalDates = actionCalDates.concat(result); getDates(orgID, month + 1, year); getDates(orgID, month - 1, year); } }); } }

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• How to make ASP.Net MVC checkboxes keep state

  - by myotherme

  I have the following situation: I have a class Product that can have a confirmation from various Stations. So I have a ViewModel that holds the Product information, and a list of stations, and all the ProductStationConfirmations. public class ProductViewModel { public Product Product { get; private set; } public List<Station> Stations { get; private set; } public Dictionary<string, ProductStationConfirmation> ProductStationConfirmations { get; private set; } public ProductViewModel(int productID) { // Loads everything from DB } } In my partial view for inserting/editing I iterate over the stations to make a checkbox for each of them: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Product.Title)%> </div> <fieldset> <legend>Station Confirmations</legend> <% foreach (var station in Model.Stations) { %> <div class="nexttoeachother"> <div> <%= Html.Encode(station.Name) %> </div> <div> <%= Html.CheckBox("confirm_"+station.ID.ToString(), Request["confirm_"+station.ID.ToString()] == null ? Model.ProductStationConfirmations.ContainsKey(Entities.ProductStationConfirmation.MakeHash(Model.Product.ID, station.ID)) : Request["confirm_" + station.ID.ToString()].Contains("true") ) %> </div> </div> <% } %> </fieldset> This works and I can process the Request values to store the confirmed Stations, but it is really messy. I made it this way to preserve the state of the checkboxes between round trips if there is a problem with the model (missing title, bad value for decimal, or something that can only be checked server-side like duplicate tile). I would expect that there is a nicer way to do this, I just don't know what it is. I suspect that I need to change the shape of my ViewModel to better accommodate the data, but i don't know how. I am using MVC 2.

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• How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

  - by FreshCode

  I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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• Using regex to fix phone numbers in a CSV with PHP

  - by Hurpe

  My new phone does not recognize a phone number unless it's area code matches the incoming call. Since I live in Idaho where an area code is not needed for in-state calls, many of my contacts were saved without an area code. Since I have thousands of contacts stored in my phone, it would not be practical to manually update them. I decided to write the following PHP script to handle the problem. It seems to work well, except that I'm finding duplicate area codes at the beginning of random contacts. <?php //the script can take a while to complete set_time_limit(200); function validate_area_code($number) { //digits are taken one by one out of $number, and insert in to $numString $numString = ""; for ($i = 0; $i < strlen($number); $i++) { $curr = substr($number,$i,1); //only copy from $number to $numString when the character is numeric if (is_numeric($curr)) { $numString = $numString . $curr; } } //add area code "208" to the beginning of any phone number of length 7 if (strlen($numString) == 7) { return "208" . $numString; //remove country code (none of the contacts are outside the U.S.) } else if (strlen($numString) == 11) { return preg_replace("/^1/","",$numString); } else { return $numString; } } //matches any phone number in the csv $pattern = "/((1? ?\(?[2-9]\d\d\)? *)? ?\d\d\d-?\d\d\d\d)/"; $csv = file_get_contents("contacts2.CSV"); preg_match_all($pattern,$csv,$matches); foreach ($matches[0] as $key1 => $value) { /*create a pattern that matches the specific phone number by adding slashes before possible special characters*/ $pattern = preg_replace("/\(|\)|\-/","\\\\$0",$value); //create the replacement phone number $replacement = validate_area_code($value); //add delimeters $pattern = "/" . $pattern . "/"; $csv = preg_replace($pattern,$replacement,$csv); } echo $csv; ?> Is there a better approach to modifying the csv? Also, is there a way to minimize the number of passes over the csv? In the script above, preg_replace is called thousands of times on a very large String.

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• Fluent | Nhibernate multiple inheritance mapping?

  - by Broken Pipe

  I'm trying to map this classes: public interface IBusinessObject { Guid Id { get; set; } } public class Product { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual int ProductTypeId { get; set; } } public class ProductWeSell : Product, IBusinessObject { } public class ProductWeDontSell : Product { } Using this Fluent mapping code: public class IBusinessObjectMap : ClassMap<IBusinessObject> { public IBusinessObjectMap() { Id(t => t.Id).GeneratedBy.Guid(); Table("BusinessObject"); } } public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public ProductMap() { Id(t => t.Id); DiscriminateSubClassesOnColumn("ProductTypeId", "null").Nullable(); } } public class ProductWeSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeSell> { public ProductWeSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(1); KeyColumn("Id"); } } public class ProductWeDontSellMap : SubclassMap<ProductWeDontSell> { public ProductWeDontSellMap() { DiscriminatorValue(2); KeyColumn("Id"); } } But I get {"Duplicate class/entity mapping ProductWeSell"} error. And if we take a look at generated HBM, indeed it's duplicated, but i have no idea how to write this mapping without duplicating it if it's possible at all. Produced hbm: <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" name="IBusinessObject" table="BusinessObject"> <joined-subclass name="ProductWeSell" table="ProductWeSell"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" discriminator-value="null" name="Product" table="Product"> <discriminator type="String"> <column name="ProductTypeId" not-null="false" /> </discriminator> <subclass name="ProductWeDontSell" discriminator-value="2" /> <subclass name="ProductWeSell" discriminator-value="1" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So far I was unable to figure out how to map this using fluent Nhibernate (i haven't tried mapping this using hmb files). Any help appreciated Fluent or HBM files. The thing I'm trying to solve look identical to this topic: NHibernate inheritance mapping question

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• please explain NHibernate HiLo

  - by Ben

  I'm struggling to get my head round how the HiLo generator works in NHibernate. I've read the explanation here which made things a little clearer. My understanding is that each SessionFactory retrieves the high value from the database. This improves performance because we have access to IDs without hitting the database. The explanation from the above link also states: For instance, supposing you have a "high" sequence with a current value of 35, and the "low" number is in the range 0-1023. Then the client can increment the sequence to 36 (for other clients to be able to generate keys while it's using 35) and know that keys 35/0, 35/1, 35/2, 35/3... 35/1023 are all available. How does this work in a web application as don't I only have one SessionFactory and therefore one hi value. Does this mean that in a disconnected application you can end up with duplicate (low) ids in your entity table? In my tests I used these settings: <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> I ran a test to save 100 objects. The IDs in my table went from 32768 - 32868. The next hi value was incremented to 2. Then I ran my test again and the Ids were in the range 65536 - 65636. First off, why start at 32768 and not 1, and secondly why the jump from 32868 to 65536? Now I know that my surrogate keys shouldn't have any meaning but we do use them in our application. Why can't I just have them increment nicely like a SQL Server identity field would. Finally can someone give me an explanation of how the max_lo parameter works? Is this the maximum number of low values (entity ids in my head) that can be created against the high value? This is one topic in NHibernate that I have struggled to find documentation for. I read the entire NHibernate in action book and it still doesn't go into how this works in any detail. Thanks Ben

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• Git sh.exe process forking issue on windows XP, slow?

  - by AndyL

  Git is essential to my workflow. I run MSYS Git on Windows XP on my quad core machine with 3GB of RAM, and normally it is responsive and zippy. Suddenly an issue has cropped up whereby it takes 30 seconds to run any command from the Git Bash command prompt, including ls or cd. Interestingly, from the bash prompt it looks likes ls runs fairly quickly, I can then see the output from ls, but it then takes ~30 seconds for the prompt to return. If I switch to the windows command prompt (by running cmd from the start menu) git related commands also take forever, even just to run. For example git status can take close to a minute before anything happens. Sometimes the processes simply don't finish. Note that I have "MSYS Git" installed as well as regular "MSYS" for things like MinGW and make. I believe the problem is related to sh.exe located in C:\Program Files\Git\bin. When I run ls from the bash prompt, or when I invoke git from the windows prompt, task manager shows up to four instances of sh.exe processes that come and go. Here I am waiting for ls to return and you can see the task manager has git.exe running and four instances of sh.exe: If I ctrl-c in the middle of an ls I sometimes get errors that include: sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable 0 [main] sh.exe" 1624 proc_subproc: Couldn't duplicate my handle<0x6FC> fo r pid 6052, Win32 error 5 sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable Or for git status: $ git status sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable sh.exe": fork: Resource temporarily unavailable Can I fix this so that git runs quickly again, and if so how? Things I have tried: Reboot Upgrade MSYS Git to most recent version & Reboot Upgrade MSYS to most recent version & Reboot Uninstall MSYS & uninstall and reinstall MSYS Git alone & Reboot I'd very much like to not wipe my box and reinstall Windows, but I will if I can't get this fixed. I can no longer code if it takes me 30 s to run git status or cd.

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• Common DataAnnotations in ASP.Net MVC2

  - by Scott Mayfield

  Howdy, I have what should be a simple question. I have a set of validations that use System.CompontentModel.DataAnnotations . I have some validations that are specific to certain view models, so I'm comfortable with having the validation code in the same file as my models (as in the default AccountModels.cs file that ships with MVC2). But I have some common validations that apply to several models as well (valid email address format for example). When I cut/paste that validation to the second model that needs it, of course I get a duplicate definition error because they're in the same namespace (projectName.Models). So I thought of removing the common validations to a separate class within the namespace, expecting that all of my view models would be able to access the validations from there. Unexpectedly, the validations are no longer accessible. I've verified that they are still in the same namespace, and they are all public. I wouldn't expect that I would have to have any specific reference to them (tried adding using statement for the same namespace, but that didn't resolve it, and via the add references dialog, a project can't reference itself (makes sense). So any idea why public validations that have simply been moved to another file in the same namespace aren't visible to my models? CommonValidations.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using System.Text.RegularExpressions; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class CommonValidations { [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Field | AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class EmailFormatValidAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { if (value != null) { var expression = @"^[a-zA-Z][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]@[a-zA-Z0-9][\w\.-]*[a-zA-Z0-9]\.[a-zA-Z][a-zA-Z\.]*[a-zA-Z]$"; return Regex.IsMatch(value.ToString(), expression); } else { return false; } } } } } And here's the code that I want to use the validation from: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; using Growums.Models; namespace ProjectName.Models { public class PrivacyModel { [Required(ErrorMessage="Required")] [EmailFormatValid(ErrorMessage="Invalid Email")] public string Email { get; set; } } }

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• How to create a compiler in vb.net

  - by Cyclone

  Before answering this question, understand that I am not asking how to create my own programming language, I am asking how, using vb.net code, I can create a compiler for a language like vb.net itself. Essentially, the user inputs code, they get a .exe. By NO MEANS do I want to write my own language, as it seems other compiler related questions on here have asked. I also do not want to use the vb.net compiler itself, nor do I wish to duplicate the IDE. The exact purpose of what I wish to do is rather hard to explain, but all I need is a nudge in the right direction for writing a compiler (from scratch if possible) which can simply take input and create a .exe. I have opened .exe files as plain text before (my own programs) to see if I could derive some meaning from what I assumed would be human readable text, yet I was obviously sorely disappointed to see the random ascii, though it is understandable why this is all I found. I know that a .exe file is simply lines of code, being parsed by the computer it is on, but my question here really boils down to this: What code makes up a .exe? How could I go about making one in a plain text editor if I wanted to? (No, I do not want to do that, but if I understand the process my goals will be much easier to achieve.) What makes an executable file an executable file? Where does the logic of the code fit in? This is intended to be a programming question as opposed to a computer question, which is why I did not post it on SuperUser. I know plenty of information about the System.IO namespace, so I know how to create a file and write to it, I simply do not know what exactly I would be placing inside this file to get it to work as an executable file. I am sorry if this question is "confusing", "dumb", or "obvious", but I have not been able to find any information regarding the actual contents of an executable file anywhere. One of my google searches Something that looked promising EDIT: The second link here, while it looked good, was an utter fail. I am not going to waste hours of my time hitting keys and recording the results. "Use the "Alt" and the 3-digit combinations to create symbols that do not appear on the keyboard but that you need in the program." (step 4) How the heck do I know what symbols I need??? Thank you very much for your help, and my apologies if this question is a nooby or "bad" one. To sum this up simply: I want to create a program in vb.net that can compile code in a particular language to a single executable file. What methods exist that can allow me to do this, and if there are none, how can I go about writing my own from scratch?

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• hibernate column uniqueness question

  - by Seth

  I'm still in the process of learning hibernate/hql and I have a question that's half best practices question/half sanity check. Let's say I have a class A: @Entity public class A { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy=GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @Column(unique=true) private String name = ""; //getters, setters, etc. omitted for brevity } I want to enforce that every instance of A that gets saved has a unique name (hence the @Column annotation), but I also want to be able to handle the case where there's already an A instance saved that has that name. I see two ways of doing this: 1) I can catch the org.hibernate.exception.ConstraintViolationException that could be thrown during the session.saveOrUpdate() call and try to handle it. 2) I can query for existing instances of A that already have that name in the DAO before calling session.saveOrUpdate(). Right now I'm leaning towards approach 2, because in approach 1 I don't know how to programmatically figure out which constraint was violated (there are a couple of other unique members in A). Right now my DAO.save() code looks roughly like this: public void save(A a) throws DataAccessException, NonUniqueNameException { Session session = sessionFactory.getCurrentSession(); try { session.beginTransaction(); Query query = null; //if id isn't null, make sure we don't count this object as a duplicate if(obj.getId() == null) { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name").setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } else { query = session.createQuery("select count(a) from A a where a.name = :name " + "and a.id != :id").setParameter("name", obj.getName()).setParameter("name", obj.getName()); } Long numNameDuplicates = (Long)query.uniqueResult(); if(numNameDuplicates > 0) throw new NonUniqueNameException(); session.saveOrUpdate(a); session.getTransaction().commit(); } catch(RuntimeException e) { session.getTransaction().rollback(); throw new DataAccessException(e); //my own class } } Am I going about this in the right way? Can hibernate tell me programmatically (i.e. not as an error string) which value is violating the uniqueness constraint? By separating the query from the commit, am I inviting thread-safety errors, or am I safe? How is this usually done? Thanks!

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• CSS selectors : should I make my CSS easier to read or optimise the speed

  - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy

  As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It make my .css file harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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• HTML/CSS set div to height of sibling

  - by Paul

  I have 2 div's contained in a third. One of the contained div's is floated left, the other floated right. I would like the 2 sibling div's to always be at the same height, but am having a problem with this. So far I am only viewing the page in Firefox, and figured I'd worry about any cross-browser issues after I get it working in at least one browser. Here is the markup: <div id="main-container" class="border clearfix"> <div id="left-div" class="border"> ... </div> <div id="right-div" class="border"> ... </div> </div> Here is the CSS: #main-container { position: relative; min-height: 500px; } #left-div { position: relative; float: left; width: 700px; min-height: inherit; } #right-div { position: relative; float: right; width: 248px; min-height: inherit; height: inherit; } .clearfix:after { content: " "; display: block; height: 0; clear: both; visibility: hidden; } .clearfix { display: inline-block; _height: 1%; clear: both; } .clearfix { display: block; clear: both; } .border { border: solid 1px #000; } If the content in the #left-div is longer than 500px, the #right-div does not expand to match. In an example I tried, Firefox said the computed style height of the #main-container was 804px, the computed style height of the #left-div was 800px, and the computed style height of the #right-div was 586.2px, as it had expanded to fit it's own content. I understand I might be going about this the wrong way, and if this is a duplicate questions then I apologize, but I wasn't quite sure what to search under.

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• Have problems designing input and output for a calculator app

  - by zoul

  Hello! I am writing a button calculator. I have the code split into model, view and a controller. The model knows nothing about formatting, it is only concerned with numbers. All formatting is done in the view. The model gets its input as keypresses, each keypress is a part of an enum: typedef enum { kButtonUnknown = 0, kButtonMemoryClear = 100, kButtonMemoryPlus = 112, kButtonMemoryMinus = 109, kButtonMemoryRecall = 114, kButtonClear = 99, … }; When the user presses a button (say 1), the model receives a button code (kButtonNum1), adds the corresponding number to a string input buffer ("1") and updates the numeric output value (1.0). The controller then passes the numeric output value to the view that formats it (1). This is all plain, simple and clean, but does not really work. The problem is that when user enters a part of a number (say 0.00, going to enter 0.001), the input does not survive the way through model to view and the display says 0 instead of 0.00. I know why this happens ("0.00"::string parses to 0::double and that gets formatted as 0). What I don’t know is how to design the calculator so that the code stays clean and simple and the numbers will show up on screen exactly as the user types them. I’ve already come with some kind of solution, but that’s essentially a hack and breaks the beautiful and simple flow from the calculator model to the display. Ideas? Current solution keeps track of the calculator state. If the calculator is building a number, I take the calculator input buffer (a string) and directly set the display contents (also a string). Otherwise I take the proper path, ie. take the numeric calculator output, pass it to the view as a double and the view uses its internal formatter to create a string for the display. Example input: input | display | mode ------+---------+------------ 0 | 0 | from string 0. | 0. | from string 0.0 | 0.0 | from string 0.0+ | 0 | from number This is ugly. (1) The calculator has to expose its input buffer and state. (2) The view has to expose its display and allow setting its contents directly using a string. (3) I have to duplicate some of the formatting code to format the string I got from the calculator input buffer. If user enters 12345.000, I have to display 12,345.000 and therefore I’ve got to have a commification code for strings. Yuck.

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