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  • Binding to the selected item in an ItemsControl

    - by Jensen
    I created a custom ComboBox as follows: (note, code is not correct but you should get the general idea.) The ComboBox contains 2 dependency properties which matter: TitleText and DescriptionText. <Grid> <TextBlock x:Name="Title"/> <Grid x:Name="CBG"> <ToggleButton/> <ContentPresenter/> <Popup/> </Grid> </Grid> I want to use this ComboBox to display a wide range of options. I created a class called Setting which inherits from DependencyObject to create usable items, I created a DataTemplate to bind the contents of this Settings object to my ComboBox and created a UserControl which contains an ItemControl which has as a template my previously mentioned DataTemplate. I can fill it with Setting objects. <DataTemplate x:Key="myDataTemplate"> <ComboBox TitleText="{Binding Title}" DescriptionText="{Binding DescriptionText}"/> </DataTemplate> <UserControl> <Grid> <StackPanel Grid.Column="0"> <ItemsControl Template="{StaticResource myDataTemplate}"> <Item> <Setting Title="Foo" Description="Bar"> <Option>Yes</Option><Option>No</Option> </Setting> </Item> </ItemsControl> </StackPanel> <StackPanel Grid.Column="1"> <TextBlock x:Name="Description"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </UserControl> I would like to have the DescriptionText of the selected ComboBox (selected by either the IsFocus of the ComboBox control or the IsOpen property of the popup) to be placed in the Description TextBlock in my UserControl. One way I managed to achieve this was replacing my ItemsControl by a ListBox but this caused several issues: it always showed a scrollbar even though I disabled it, it wouldn't catch focus when my popup was open but only when I explicitly selected the item in my ListBox, when I enabled the OverridesDefaultStyle property the contents of the ListBox wouldn't show up at all, I had to re-theme the ListBox control to match my UserControl layout... What's the best and easiest way to get my DescriptionText to show up without using a ListBox or creating a custom Selector control (as that had the same effect as a ListBox)? The goal at the end is to loop through all the items (maybe get them into an ObservableCollection or some sort and to save them into my settings file.

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  • WPF: TextBox expanding with surrounding Grid but not with text

    - by haagel
    I have a problem with a TextBox in an application... A window has a Grid with two columns. The left column contains a control with a constant width but with a height that adapts. The right column contains a TextBox that takes up all remaining space in the Grid (and thereby in the Window). The Grid is given a minimal width and height and is wrapped within a ScrollViewer. If the user resizes the window to be smaller than the minimal widht/height of the Grid, scrollbars are displayed. This is exactly how I want it to be. However, a problem occurs when the user starts typing text. If the text is to long to fit in one line in the TextBox, I want the text to wrap. Therefore I set TextWrapping="Wrap" on the TextBox. But since the TextBox has an automatic width and is wrapped in a ScrollViewer (its actually the whole Grid that is wrapped), the TextBox just keeps expanding to the right. I do want the TextBox to expand if the window is expanded, but I don't want the TextBox to expand by the text. Rather the text should wrap inside the available TextBox. If the text don't fit within the TextBox height, a scrollbar should be displayed within the TextBox. Is there a way to accomplish this? Below is some code that shows my problem. <Window x:Class="AdaptingTextBoxes.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="300" Width="400" Background="DarkCyan"> <Grid Margin="10" Name="LayoutRoot"> <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <Grid MinWidth="300" MinHeight="200"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Button Grid.Column="0" Margin="0,0,10,0" Content="Button" Width="100" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="1" AcceptsReturn="True" TextWrapping="Wrap" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" /> </Grid> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> </Window>

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  • SQL 2008 R2 login/network issue

    - by martinjd
    I have a Windows Server 2008 R2 new clean install , not a VM, that I have added to a Windows Server 2003 based domain using my account which has domain admin rights. The domain functional level is 2003. I performed a clean install of SQL Server 2008 R2 using my account which has domain admin rights. The installation completed without any errors. I logged into SSMS locally and attempted to add another domain account by clicking Search, Advanced and finding the user in the domain. When I return to the "Dialog - New" window and click OK I receive the following error: Create failed for Login 'Domain\User'. (Microsoft.SqlServer.Smo) An exception occurred while executing a Transact-SQL statement or batch. (Microsoft.SqlServer.ConnectionInfo) Windows NT user or group 'Domain\User' not found. Check the name again. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 15401) I have verified that the firewall is off, tried adding a different domain user, tried using SA to add a user, installed the hotfix for KB 976494 and verified that the Local Security Policy for Domain Member: Digitally encrypt or sign secure channel Domain Member: Digitally encrypt secure channel Domain Member: Digitally sign secure channel are disabled none of which have made a difference. I can RDP to a Server 2003 server running SQL 2008 and add the same domain user without issue. Also if I try to connect with SSMS to the sql server from another system on the domain using my account I get the following error: Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication. (Microsoft SQL Server, Error: 18452) and on the database server I see the following in the security event log: An account failed to log on. Subject: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: - Account Domain: - Logon ID: 0x0 Logon Type: 3 Account For Which Logon Failed: Security ID: NULL SID Account Name: myUserName Account Domain: MYDOMAIN Failure Information: Failure Reason: An Error occured during Logon. Status: 0xc000018d Sub Status: 0x0 Process Information: Caller Process ID: 0x0 Caller Process Name: - Network Information: Workstation Name: MYWKS Source Network Address: - Source Port: - Detailed Authentication Information: Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Transited Services: - Package Name (NTLM only): - Key Length: 0 I am sure that the "NULL SID" has some significant meaning but have no idea at this point what the issue could be.

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  • WCF - Windows authentication - Security settings require Anonymous...

    - by Rashack
    Hi, I am struggling hard with getting WCF service running on IIS on our server. After deployment I end up with an error message: Security settings for this service require 'Anonymous' Authentication but it is not enabled for the IIS application that hosts this service. I want to use Windows authentication and thus I have Anonymous access disabled. Also note that there is aspNetCompatibilityEnabled (if that makes any difference). Here's my web.config: <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="default"> <security mode="TransportCredentialOnly"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="Windows"/> </security> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="AspNetAjaxBehavior"> <enableWebScript /> <webHttp /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="defaultServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true" httpsGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseWindowsGroups" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="xxx.Web.Services.RequestService" behaviorConfiguration="defaultServiceBehavior"> <endpoint behaviorConfiguration="AspNetAjaxBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="xxx.Web.Services.IRequestService" bindingConfiguration="default"> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" name="mex" contract="IMetadataExchange"></endpoint> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I have searched all over the internet with no luck. Any clues are greatly appreciated.

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  • Browser connects to WCF service but not my WCF client. What can be the reason?

    - by Slauma
    On a production server (Windows Server 2003 SP2) I can connect to a remote WCF service with Internet Explorer 8: When I browse to the URL http://www.domain.com/Service.svc (where my service listens) I get the expected info page of the service displayed. Connection settings in Internet Explorer only specify "auto detect", proxy settings are disabled. If I start a console application (built with WCF in .NET 4.0) on the same server which also tries to connect to the same WCF service it fails telling me that no endpoint was available listening on http://www.domain.com/Service.svc. Configuration of the WCF client: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" transactionFlow="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true" allowCookies="false"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" negotiateServiceCredential="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://www.domain.com/Service.scv" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" contract="Service.IMyService" name="WSHttpBinding_IMyService" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> <configuration> With these settings I can communicate successfully with the remote service from my development machine. Looking around for other options I found that I can specify to use the Internet Explorer proxy settings with: <system.net> <defaultProxy> <proxy usesystemdefault="true" /> </defaultProxy> </system.net> It didn't work and I am not sure if I understood this setting really correctly. (My hope was that the WCF client will adopt the "autodetect" setting of Internet Explorer and then connect the same way to the service like the installed IE.) I also had toggled the useDefaultWebProxy setting in the binding configuration between true and false with no success. Now I am asking for help what I can do? Which settings might be wrong or missing? What could I test and how can I get more detailed error messages to better identify the problem? Thank you in advance!

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  • ASP.NET Web Service Throws 401 (unauthorized) Error

    - by user268611
    Hi Experts, I have this .NET application to be run in an intranet environment. It is configured so that it requires Windows Authentication before you can access the website (Anonymous access is disabled). This website calls a web service (enable anonymous access) and the web service calls the DB. We do have a token-based authentication between the web application and the web service to secure the communication between them. The issue I'm facing is that when I deploy this to production, I'm having an intermittent issue whereby the communication between the web application and the web service failed. The 401 issue was thrown. This is actually working fine in our QA environment. Is this an issue with Active Directory? Or could it be an isssue with FQDN as mentioned here: http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx?scid=kb;en-us;896861? The weirdest thing is that this is happening intermittently when tested in both on the server itself and a remote workstation in my client's environment. But, this is working perfectly in my environment. OS: Windows Server SP1 IIS 6 .NET 3.5 Framework Any idea about the 401 (Unauthorized) issue?? Thx for the help... This is from the log... Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 4/5/2010 10:44:57 AM Event time (UTC): 4/5/2010 2:44:57 AM Event ID: 6c8ea2607b8d4e29a7f0b1c392b1cb21 Event sequence: 155112 Event occurrence: 2 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: xxx Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: xxx Application Path: xxx Machine name: xxx Process information: Process ID: 4424 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: WebException Exception message: The request failed with HTTP status 401: Unauthorized. Request information: Request URL: http://[ip]/[app_path] Request path: xxx User host address: [ip] User: xxx Is authenticated: True Authentication Type: Negotiate Thread account name: xxx Thread information: Thread ID: 6 Thread account name: xxx Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.ReadResponse(SoapClientMessage message, WebResponse response, Stream responseStream, Boolean asyncCall) at System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol.Invoke(String methodName, Object[] parameters) at wsVulnerabilityAdvisory.Service.test() at test.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) at System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) at System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint)

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  • Disable Autocommit in H2 with Hibernate/C3P0 ?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 (as well as other databases). Currently I am using Atomikos for transaction and C3P0 for connection pooing. Despite my best efforts I am still seeing this in the log file (and DAO integration tests are failing): [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows The connection URL to H2 has AUTOCOMMIT=OFF, but according to the H2 documentation: this will not work as expected when using a connection pool (the connection pool manager will re-enable autocommit when returning the connection to the pool, so autocommit will only be disabled the first time the connection is used So I figured (apparently correctly) that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • jquery ui tabs close button beneath the text

    - by Pradyut Bhattacharya
    Hi I m using jquery ui tabs and i m using them with the function of dynamically closing them. the example page here where clicking on the link 'add tab' leads to adding of tabs in the tabs panel... now in firefox the close buttons are displayed beneath the text of the tab which is leading to garbled text in the tab panel or the body of the tabs like other browsers how can i display it in same line the css i m using is .ui-tabs { padding: .20em; zoom: 1; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav { list-style: none; position: relative; padding: .2em .2em 0; height:27px; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li { position: relative; float: left; border-bottom-width: 0 !important; margin: 0 .2em -1px 0; padding: 0; font-size:63.5%; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a { float: left; text-decoration: none; padding: .5em 1em; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected { padding-bottom: 1px; border-bottom-width: 0; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected a, .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-state-disabled a, .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-state-processing a { cursor: text; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a, .ui-tabs.ui-tabs-collapsible .ui-tabs-nav li.ui-tabs-selected a { cursor: pointer; font: 62.5%; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-panel { padding: 1em 1.4em; display: block; border-width: 0; background:black; color:white; font-size: 12px; } .ui-tabs .ui-tabs-hide { display: none !important; font: 62.5%; } #tabs .ui-tabs-nav li a:hover { float: left; text-decoration: none; padding: .5em 1em; background-color: #868472; } #tabs-profile .ui-tabs-nav li { position: relative; float: left; border-bottom-width: 0 !important; margin: 0 .2em -1px 0; padding: 0; font-size:75%; } Please help thanks Pradyut India

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  • Disable Autocommit with Spring/Hibernate/C3P0/Atomikos ?

    - by HDave
    I have a JPA/Hibernate application and am trying to get it to run against H2 and MySQL. Currently I am using Atomikos for transactions and C3P0 for connection pooling. Despite my best efforts I am still seeing this in the log file (and DAO integration tests are failing with org.hibernate.NonUniqueObjectException even though Spring Test should be rolling back the database after each test method): [20100613 23:06:34] DEBUG [main] SessionFactoryImpl.(242) | instantiating session factory with properties: .....edited for brevity.... hibernate.connection.autocommit=true, ....more stuff follows The connection URL to H2 has AUTOCOMMIT=OFF, but according to the H2 documentation: this will not work as expected when using a connection pool (the connection pool manager will re-enable autocommit when returning the connection to the pool, so autocommit will only be disabled the first time the connection is used So I figured (apparently correctly) that Hibernate is where I'll have to indicate I want autocommit off. I found the autocommit property documented here and I put it in my EntityManagerFactory config as follows: <bean id="myappTestLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="persistenceUnitPostProcessors"> <bean class="com.myapp.core.persist.util.JtaPersistenceUnitPostProcessor"> <property name="jtaDataSource" ref="myappPersistTestJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="showSql" value="true" /> <property name="database" value="$DS{hibernate.database}" /> <property name="databasePlatform" value="$DS{hibernate.dialect}" /> </bean> </property> <property name="jpaProperties"> <props> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.factory_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.AtomikosJTATransactionFactory</prop> <prop key="hibernate.transaction.manager_lookup_class">com.atomikos.icatch.jta.hibernate3.TransactionManagerLookup</prop> <prop key="hibernate.connection.autocommit">false</prop> <prop key="hibernate.format_sql">true"</prop> <prop key="hibernate.use_sql_comments">true</prop> </property> </bean>

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  • SQL Server to PostgreSQL - Migration and design concerns

    - by youwhut
    Currently migrating from SQL Server to PostgreSQL and attempting to improve a couple of key areas on the way: I have an Articles table: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Articles]( [server_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [article_title] [varchar](400) NOT NULL, [category_ref] [int] NOT NULL, [size] [bigint] NOT NULL ) Data (comma delimited text files) is dumped on the import server by ~500 (out of ~1000) servers on a daily basis. Importing: Indexes are disabled on the Articles table. For each dumped text file Data is BULK copied to a temporary table. Temporary table is updated. Old data for the server is dropped from the Articles table. Temporary table data is copied to Articles table. Temporary table dropped. Once this process is complete for all servers the indexes are built and the new database is copied to a web server. I am reasonably happy with this process but there is always room for improvement as I strive for a real-time (haha!) system. Is what I am doing correct? The Articles table contains ~500 million records and is expected to grow. Searching across this table is okay but could be better. i.e. SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE server_ref=33 AND article_title LIKE '%criteria%' has been satisfactory but I want to improve the speed of searching. Obviously the "LIKE" is my problem here. Suggestions? SELECT * FROM Articles WHERE article_title LIKE '%criteria%' is horrendous. Partitioning is a feature of SQL Server Enterprise but $$$ which is one of the many exciting prospects of PostgreSQL. What performance hit will be incurred for the import process (drop data, insert data) and building indexes? Will the database grow by a huge amount? The database currently stands at 200 GB and will grow. Copying this across the network is not ideal but it works. I am putting thought into changing the hardware structure of the system. The thought process of having an import server and a web server is so that the import server can do the dirty work (WITHOUT indexes) while the web server (WITH indexes) can present reports. Maybe reducing the system down to one server would work to skip the copying across the network stage. This one server would have two versions of the database: one with the indexes for delivering reports and the other without for importing new data. The databases would swap daily. Thoughts? This is a fantastic system, and believe it or not there is some method to my madness by giving it a big shake up. UPDATE: I am not looking for help with relational databases, but hoping to bounce ideas around with data warehouse experts.

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  • LINQ to SQL: To Attach or Not To Attach

    - by bradhe
    So I'm have a really hard time figuring out when I should be attaching to an object and when I shouldn't be attaching to an object. First thing's first, here is a small diagram of my (very simplified) object model. Edit: Okay, apparently I'm not allowed to post images...here you go: http://i.imgur.com/2ROFI.png In my DAL I create a new DataContext every time I do a data-related operation. Say, for instance, I want to save a new user. In my business layer I create a new user. var user = new User(); user.FirstName = "Bob"; user.LastName = "Smith"; user.Username = "bob.smith"; user.Password = StringUtilities.EncodePassword("MyPassword123"); user.Organization = someOrganization; // Assume that someOrganization was loaded and it's data context has been garbage collected. Now I want to go save this user. var userRepository = new RepositoryFactory.GetRepository<UserRepository>(); userRepository.Save(user); Neato! Here is my save logic: public void Save(User user) { if (!DataContext.Users.Contains(user)) { user.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); user.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; user.Disabled = false; //DataContext.Organizations.Attach(user.Organization); DataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(user); } else { DataContext.Users.Attach(user); } DataContext.SubmitChanges(); // Finished here as well. user.Detach(); } So, here we are. You'll notice that I comment out the bit where the DataContext attachs to the organization. If I attach to the organization I get the following exception: NotSupportedException: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. This is not supported. Hmm, that doesn't work. Let me try it without attaching (i.e. comment out that line about attaching to the organization). DuplicateKeyException: Cannot add an entity with a key that is already in use. WHAAAAT? I can only assume this is trying to insert a new organization which is obviously false. So, what's the deal guys? What should I do? What is the proper approach? It seems like L2S makes this quite a bit harder than it should be...

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  • AvalonDock + UserControl + DataGrid + ContextMenu command routing issue

    - by repka
    I have this kind of layout: <Window x:Class="DockAndMenuTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:ad="clr-namespace:AvalonDock;assembly=AvalonDock" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <ad:DockingManager> <ad:DocumentPane> <ad:DockableContent Title="Doh!"> <UserControl> <UserControl.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="Zoom" Executed="ExecuteZoom" CanExecute="CanZoom"/> </UserControl.CommandBindings> <DataGrid Name="_evilGrid"> <DataGrid.Resources> <Style TargetType="DataGridRow"> <Setter Property="ContextMenu"> <Setter.Value> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Command="Zoom"/> </ContextMenu> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </DataGrid.Resources> </DataGrid> </UserControl> </ad:DockableContent> </ad:DocumentPane> </ad:DockingManager> </Window> Briefly: ContextMenu is set for each DataGridRow of DataGrid inside UserControl, which in its turn is inside DockableContent of AvalonDock. Code-behind is trivial as well: public partial class MainWindow { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); _evilGrid.ItemsSource = new[] { Tuple.Create(1, 2, 3), Tuple.Create(4, 4, 3), Tuple.Create(6, 7, 1), }; } private void ExecuteZoom(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("zoom !"); } private void CanZoom(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { e.CanExecute = true; } } So here's the problem: right-clicking on the selected row (if it it was selected before the right click) my command comes out disabled. The command is "Zoom" in this case, but can be any other, including a custom one. If I get rid of either docking or UserControl around my grid there are no problems. ListBox doesn't have this issue either. So I don't know what's at fault here. SNOOP shows that in cases when this propagation fails, instead of UserControl, CanExecute is handled by PART_ShowContextMenuButton (Button), which is part of docking header. I've had other issues with UI command propagation within UserControls hosted inside AvalonDock, but this one is the easiest to reproduce.

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  • Mouse scroll not working in a scroll viewer with a wpf datagrid and additional UI elements

    - by paladugu457
    I am trying to figure out how to get the mouse scroll working on a wpf window with a scrollviewer and a datagrid within it. The WPF and C# code is below <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <Grid> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition/> <RowDefinition/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <Grid Grid.Row="0"> <Border Name="DataGridBorder" BorderThickness="2" Margin="1" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="#FF080757"> <dg:DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" Name="ValuesDataGrid" BorderThickness="0" CanUserResizeColumns="True" FontWeight="Bold" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" CanUserReorderColumns="False" IsReadOnly="True" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" AlternationCount="2" SelectionMode="Extended" GridLinesVisibility="All" HeadersVisibility="Column" CanUserAddRows="False" CanUserDeleteRows="False" CanUserResizeRows="False" CanUserSortColumns="False" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="Collapsed" SelectedIndex="0" RowStyle="{StaticResource CognitiDataGridRowStyle}" > <dg:DataGrid.Columns> <dg:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Title" > <dg:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" > <TextBlock HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Center" Text="{Binding Path=Name}" FontWeight="Normal" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </dg:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </dg:DataGridTemplateColumn> </dg:DataGrid.Columns> </dg:DataGrid> </Border> </Grid> <Button Grid.Row="1" Height="90" >hello world</Button> </Grid> </ScrollViewer> and the C# code is as follows public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); initialize(); } public void initialize() { ObservableCollection<MyObject> testList = new ObservableCollection<MyObject>(); for (int i = 0; i < 20; i++) { MyObject my = new MyObject("jack " + i); testList.Add(my); } ValuesDataGrid.ItemsSource = testList; } } public class MyObject { public string Name { get; set; } public MyObject(string name) { Name = name; } } The problem i am facing is that when using the mouse to scroll, it works fine when it is over the button but as soon as i move the mouse pointer over the grid and try to scroll, nothing happens. I am able to move the scrollbar of the scrollviewer directly though. I am still a wpf novice so any help on how to get the mouse scroll to work over the datagrid would be appreciated. I am guessing there should be a pretty easy solution for this but I havent been able to figure it out

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  • Connection Refused running multiple environments on Selenium Grid 1.04 via Ubuntu 9.04

    - by ReadyWater
    Hello, I'm writing a selenium grid test suite which is going to be run on a series of different machines. I wrote most of it on my macbook but have recently transfered it over to my work machine, which is running ubuntu 9.04. That's actually my first experience with a linux machine, so I may be missing something very simple (I have disabled the firewall though). I haven't been able to get the multienvironment thing working at all, and I've been trying and manual reviewing for a while. Any recommendations and help would be greatly, greatly appreciated! The error I'm getting when I run the test is: [java] FAILED CONFIGURATION: @BeforeMethod startFirstEnvironment("localhost", 4444, "*safari", "http://remoteURL:8080/tutor") [java] java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not start Selenium session: ERROR: Connection refused I thought it might be the mac refusing the connection, but using wireshark I determined that no connection attempt was made on the mac . Here's the code for setting up the session, which is where it seems to be dying @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "firstEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startFirstEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String firstEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, firstEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } @BeforeMethod(groups = {"default", "example"}, alwaysRun = true) @Parameters({"seleniumHost", "seleniumPort", "secondEnvironment", "webSite"}) protected void startSecondEnvironment(String seleniumHost, int seleniumPort, String secondEnvironment, String webSite) throws Exception { try{ startSeleniumSession(seleniumHost, seleniumPort, secondEnvironment, webSite); session().setTimeout(TIMEOUT); } finally { closeSeleniumSession(); } } and the accompanying build script used to run the test <target name="runMulti" depends="compile" description="Run Selenium tests in parallel (20 threads)"> <echo>${seleniumHost}</echo> <java classpathref="runtime.classpath" classname="org.testng.TestNG" failonerror="true"> <sysproperty key="java.security.policy" file="${rootdir}/lib/testng.policy"/> <sysproperty key="webSite" value="${webSite}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumHost" value="${seleniumHost}" /> <sysproperty key="seleniumPort" value="${seleniumPort}" /> <sysproperty key="firstEnvironment" value="${firstEnvironment}" /> <sysproperty key="secondEnvironment" value="${secondEnvironment}" /> <arg value="-d" /> <arg value="${basedir}/target/reports" /> <arg value="-suitename" /> <arg value="Selenium Grid Java Sample Test Suite" /> <arg value="-parallel"/> <arg value="methods"/> <arg value="-threadcount"/> <arg value="15"/> <arg value="testng.xml"/> </java>

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  • Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

    - by Software Monkey
    I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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  • markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

    - by Chris
    Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); }); --> </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#SubmitPost").click(function(){ data = markItUp.textarea.value; $.post("scripturl",{ key1: "value1", key2: "value2", text: data }); }); }); --> </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" > <!-- $(document).ready(function() { $("#markItUp").markItUp(mySettings); $("#postpreview").submit(function(){ var data = $("#markItUp").html(); $.post("live",{ func: "posting", text: data }); return false; }); }); --> </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

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  • PHP fopen returning null on files that work fine with include and get_file_contents

    - by brad allred
    Hi, I have XAMPP installed on a windows 2000 server. everything is working great except the PHP fopen function. I can neither create nor open files with it. the strange thing is that i can include/require/file_get_contents/other file related functions; also fopen does not generate any errors or notices it just returns NULL. I have gone as far as to grant full control of the file and all enclosing folders to everybody but i still get NULL instead of a file pointer. I have tried this on php 5.2.9, 5.2.13, and 5.3.1 with the same effect. i have gone through the php.ini file looking for something that is breaking it; i have even tried deleting and using the basic ini file from a linux box where fopen is working and still nothing. I know i have to restart apache after changing my ini and all that and have been (I have even restarted the server) so thats not it. I am at this poing assuming it is an apache configuration issue somehow, tomorrow im going to run a test through php-cli to make sure. I really don't want to bruise my head anymore over this can some apache/php wizard come to my aid? Hi guys, thanks for the responses. you are right is is not any config problem. the problem has to be with one of my dlls or one of my included files. I just tried the same code that isn't working in a new file without any include and i disabled my custom libraries and it worked. for the record here is what I was doing that wasn't working: $test_file = 'c:\\test.csv';//everybody has full control. is very large. if(file_exists($test_file) && is_readable($test_file)){ $fp = fopen($test_file, 'r'); echo var_export($fp, true);//outputs NULL. on my linux box this is a number. if($fp !== false){ //do the work fread($fp, 10);//throws the error that $fp is not a valid file handle } } something that i am including must be breaking fopen somehow. works as expected in new file with no includes.

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  • Java - How to make a set of JInternalFrame independant of each other?

    - by Amokrane
    Hello, I'm programming a short Paint program like and I'm trying to make an MDI architecture for it. To make that happen, I used JInternalFrame inside a JDesktopPane. Although I kind of obtain multiple frames, there are not really working properly. Basically, if I have 2 JInternalFrame I can draw only on the last one. The other one seems to be disabled. Here is a short video illustrating the problem. http://bit.ly/9ydiwM Here are some part of the code. Panneau.java public class Panneau extends JDesktopPane { /** La liste de fenêtres ouvertes */ private static ArrayList<Cadre> cadres; /** Le pannel comportant la liste des formes à dessiner*/ private Pannel pannel; /** La barre d'outils */ private ToolBox toolBox; public Panneau() { this.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); // Initialisations des listes de cadres cadres = new ArrayList<Cadre>(); // En haut ToolBox toolBox = new ToolBox(); this.add(toolBox, BorderLayout.NORTH); **// Intialisation de la première internal frame Cadre cadre = new Cadre(); this.add(cadre, BorderLayout.CENTER);** cadres.add(cadre); // Ajout du pannel à gauche pannel = new Pannel(); this.add(pannel, BorderLayout.WEST); } /** * Crée une nouvelle fenêtre de dessin * */ **public void createNewInternalFrame() { Cadre cadre = new Cadre(); this.add(cadre, BorderLayout.CENTER); cadres.add(cadre); }** } public class Cadre extends JInternalFrame { /** Largeur par d'une fenêtre interne */ private int width; /** Hauteur d'une fenêtre interne */ private int height; /** Titre d'une fenêtre interne */ private String title; /** Toile associée à la fenêtre interne */ private Toile toile; public Cadre() { width = 400; height = 400; title = "Form"; toile = new Toile(); this.setTitle(title); this.setSize(width, height); this.setEnabled(true); this.setResizable(true); this.setAutoscrolls(true); this.setClosable(true); this.setIconifiable(true); this.setDoubleBuffered(true); this.setContentPane(toile); this.setVisible(true); this.pack(); } } Basically, Panneau is the main Window that contains all the differents parts of the GUI. I can create as much JInternalFrame that I want, using : Panneau.createNewInternalFrame(). Toile is basically where I draw my shapes. Any idea ? Thanks

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  • Speed Problem with Wireless Connectivity on Cisco 877w

    - by Carl Crawley
    Having a bit of a weird one with my local LAN setup. I recently installed a Cisco 877W router on my DSL2+ connection and all is working really well.. Upgraded the IOS to 12.4 and my wired clients are streaming connectivity superfast at 1.3mb/s. However, there seems to be an issue with my wireless clients - I can't seem to stream any data across the local wireless connection (LAN) and using the Internet, whilst responsive enough isn't really comparable with the wired connection speed. For example, all devices are connected to an 8 Port Gb switch on FE0 from the Router with a NAS disk and on my wired clients, I can transfer/stream etc absolutely fine - however, transferring a local 700Mb file on my local LAN estimates 7-8 hours to transfer :( The Wireless config is as follows : interface Dot11Radio0 description WIRELESS INTERFACE no ip address ! encryption mode ciphers tkip ! ssid [MySSID] ! speed basic-1.0 basic-2.0 basic-5.5 6.0 9.0 basic-11.0 channel 2462 station-role root rts threshold 2312 world-mode dot11d country GB indoor bridge-group 1 bridge-group 1 subscriber-loop-control bridge-group 1 spanning-disabled bridge-group 1 block-unknown-source no bridge-group 1 source-learning no bridge-group 1 unicast-flooding All devices are connected to the Gb Switch which is connected to FE0 with the following: Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0021.a03e.6519 (bia 0021.a03e.6519) Description: Uplink to Switch MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 14000 bits/sec, 19 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 167000 bits/sec, 23 packets/sec 177365 packets input, 52089562 bytes, 0 no buffer Received 919 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 260 input errors, 260 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 156673 packets output, 106218222 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 2 interface resets 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Not sure why I'm having problems on the wireless and I've reached the end of my Cisco knowledge... Thanks for any pointers! Carl

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  • ASP.NET MVC - PartialView html not changing via jQuery html() call

    - by Bryan Roth
    When I change the selection in a DropDownList, a PartialView gets updated via a GET request. When updating the PartialView via the jQuery html() function, the html returned is correct but when it displayed in the browser it is not correct. For example, certain checkboxes within the PartialView should become enabled but they remain disabled even though the html returned says they should be. When I do a view source in the browser the html never gets updated. I'm a little perplexed. Thoughts? Search.aspx <%@ Page Title="" Language="VB" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Search </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#Sections").change(function () { var section = $("#Sections").val(); var township = $("#Townships").val(); var range = $("#Ranges").val(); $.get("Search/Search?section=" + section + "&township=" + township + "&range=" + range, function (response) { $("#cornerDiv").html(response) }); }); }); </script> <h2>Search</h2> <%--The line below is a workaround for a VB / ASPX designer bug--%> <%=""%> <% Using Ajax.BeginForm("Search", New AjaxOptions With {.UpdateTargetId = "searchResults", .LoadingElementId = "loader"})%> Township <%= Html.DropDownList("Townships")%> Range <%= Html.DropDownList("Ranges")%> Section <%= Html.DropDownList("Sections")%> <div id="cornerDiv"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Corners")%> </div> <input type="submit" value="Search" /> <span id="loader">Searching...</span> <% End Using%> <div id="searchResults"></div> </asp:Content>

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  • Exclude one or more elements from being connected (using connectWith) in jQuery's sortable lists

    - by Lev
    I have two lists, one with an ID of "vlist" and one with an ID of "hlist". The "vlist" holds elements which should be visible, while the "hlist" holds items that should remain hidden. The idea here is to allow the administrator of the system to specify which elements/fields should be shown on a sign-up page, and which shouldn't. The two lists are connected using "connectWith", so the administrator can drag items from the visible list to the hidden list (or vice versa). My dilemma is that there are a few fields I want locked into the visible list, but still sortable within that one list. For example, the "username", "email" and "password" fields should be locked within the visible list (as they always need to be used for registration). Is this even possible? Perhaps it is a no-brainer that I simply haven't discovered yet. I've looked around through jQuery's documentation for a while and can't seem to find anything related to this scenario. I have found how you can "cancel" specific elements in the list from being sortable altogether or even disabled from being a dropable target, but this doesn't do it. The user should still have the ability to drag these items within the "visible" list, in case they want to adjust the ordering of the locked fields. I'm also aware that you can contain sortable elements within a specific element or DOM object, but this also can't be used as this only seems to apply to the whole sortable list, and not specific elements of that list. I've even tried to see if something like this would work after I built the sortable listing(s): $('#vlist > #slist-li-username').sortable('option', 'containment', '#vlist'); Obviously, that didn't work either or I wouldn't be posting this. In case it might help, I thought I'd throw in the code I'm using now; here is the jQuery code: $(function() { $('#vlist, #hlist').sortable ({ connectWith: '.signup-set_flist', forcePlaceholderSize: true, receive: function (event, ui) { var itemID = ui.item.attr('id'); var fID = itemID.replace(/slist-li-/g, ''); var hID = 'slist-' + fID; if (ui.sender.attr('id') == 'vlist') { $('#'+hID).val(''); } else { $('#'+hID).val(fID); } } }).disableSelection(); $('#vlist > #slist-li-username').sortable('option', 'containment', '#vlist'); }); And as for the HTML, I'll upload it to here (since StackOverflow seems to break when I paste it in here - even in code mode): http://sikosoft.net/jquery-sort-connect.html Any help would greatly be appreciated! :) Oh, and be gentle as this is my first question here. ;)

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  • Jboss logging issue

    - by balaji
    I'm Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web

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  • Best Practice: Legitimate Cross-Site Scripting

    - by Ryan
    While cross-site scripting is generally regarded as negative, I've run into several situations where it's necessary. I was recently working within the confines of a very limiting content management system. I needed to include database code within the page, but the hosting server didn't have anything usable available. I set up a couple barebones scripts on my own server, originally thinking that I could use AJAX to import the contents of my scripts directly into the template of the CMS (thus retaining dynamic images, menu items, CSS, etc.). I was wrong. Due to the limitations of XMLHttpRequest objects, it's not possible to grab content from a different domain. So I thought "iFrame" - even though I'm not a fan of frames, I thought that I could create a frame that matched the width and height of the content, so that it would appear native. Again, I was blocked by cross-site scripting "protections." While I could indeed load a remote file into the iFrame, I couldn't execute JavaScript to modify its size on either the host page or inside the loaded page. In this particular scenario, I wasn't able to point a subdomain to my server. I also couldn't create a script on the CMS server that could proxy content from my server, so my last thought was to use a remote JavaScript. A remote JavaScript works. It breaks when the user has JavaScript disabled, which is a downside; but it works. The "problem" I was having with using a remote JavaScript was that I had to use the JS function document.write() to output any content. Any output that isn't JS causes script errors. In addition to using document.write() for every line, you also have to ensure that the content is escaped - or else you end up with more script errors. My solution was as follows: My script received a GET parameter ("page") and then looked for the file ({$page}.php), and read the contents into a variable. However, I had to use awkward buffering techniques in order to actually execute the included scripts (for things like database interaction) then strip the final content of all line break characters ("\n") followed by escaping all required characters. The end result is that my original script (which outputs JavaScript) accesses seemingly "standard" scripts on my server and converts their standard output to JavaScript for displaying within the CMS template. While this solution works, it seems like there may be a better way to accomplish the same thing. What is the best way to make cross-site scripting work specifically for the purpose of including content from a completely different domain?

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  • RCP applicatoon activities

    - by Peter
    I have a problem with my RCP application. First, I defined an activity in my plugin.xml: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.activities"> <activity id="myproject.view.input.activity" name="myproject.view.input.activity"> <enabledWhen> <with variable="myproject.view.input.active"> <equals value="ENABLED"> </equals> </with> </enabledWhen> </activity> <activityPatternBinding activityId="myproject.view.input.activity" pattern="myproject.gui/myproject.view.input"> </activityPatternBinding> Then i defined my SourceProvider: <extension point="org.eclipse.ui.services"> <sourceProvider provider="myproject.util.CommandState"> <variable name="myproject.view.input.active" priorityLevel="workbench"> </variable> And, finally, my CommandState class: public class CommandState extends AbstractSourceProvider { public final static String OUTPUT_VIEW = "myproject.view.input.active"; // then goes some others variables, i just skip them // .... public final static String [] ACTIONS = {OUTPUT_VIEW /*and all others variables*/}; public final static String ENABLED = "ENABLED"; public final static String DISENABLED = "DISENABLED"; private final Map <String, String> currentState = new HashMap <String, String> (); @Override public void dispose() { } @Override public String[] getProvidedSourceNames() { return ACTIONS; } @Override public Map <String, String> getCurrentState() { return currentState; } public void setEnabled(boolean enabled, String [] commands) { String value = enabled ? ENABLED : DISENABLED; for (String command : commands) { currentState.put(command, value); fireSourceChanged(ISources.WORKBENCH, command, value); } } } In my Login window, application checks user permissions, and enable or disable views, commands, etc. with setEnabled method of CommandState. For commands it works fine, they are enabling or disabling correctly. But when i try to disable view and open perspective, that contains that view (myproject.view.input), it opened without that view, but also throws exception: !STACK 1 org.eclipse.ui.PartInitException: Could not create view: myproject.view.input at org.eclipse.ui.internal.ViewFactory.createView(ViewFactory.java:158) I can show full stacktrace if anyone want. I tried to debug my application and before i open my perspective whith that view, i checked currentState of my CommandState source provider, and all seemes to be ok: all variables values are correct and myproject.view.input.active = DISABLED Can anyone say, why exception is thrown? Thanks for any help. Sorry for big post and bad language

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  • How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state?

    - by littlegreen
    I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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