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• Xcache - No different after using it

  - by Charles Yeung

  Hi I have installed Xcache in my site(using xampp), I have tested more then 10 times on several page and the result is same as default(no any cache installed), is it something wrong with the configure? Updated [xcache-common] ;; install as zend extension (recommended), normally "$extension_dir/xcache.so" zend_extension = /usr/local/lib/php/extensions/non-debug-non-zts-xxx/xcache.so zend_extension_ts = /usr/local/lib/php/extensions/non-debug-zts-xxx/xcache.so ;; For windows users, replace xcache.so with php_xcache.dll zend_extension_ts = C:\xampp\php\ext\php_xcache.dll ;; or install as extension, make sure your extension_dir setting is correct ; extension = xcache.so ;; or win32: ; extension = php_xcache.dll [xcache.admin] xcache.admin.enable_auth = On xcache.admin.user = "mOo" ; xcache.admin.pass = md5($your_password) xcache.admin.pass = "" [xcache] ; ini only settings, all the values here is default unless explained ; select low level shm/allocator scheme implemenation xcache.shm_scheme = "mmap" ; to disable: xcache.size=0 ; to enable : xcache.size=64M etc (any size > 0) and your system mmap allows xcache.size = 60M ; set to cpu count (cat /proc/cpuinfo |grep -c processor) xcache.count = 1 ; just a hash hints, you can always store count(items) > slots xcache.slots = 8K ; ttl of the cache item, 0=forever xcache.ttl = 0 ; interval of gc scanning expired items, 0=no scan, other values is in seconds xcache.gc_interval = 0 ; same as aboves but for variable cache xcache.var_size = 4M xcache.var_count = 1 xcache.var_slots = 8K ; default ttl xcache.var_ttl = 0 xcache.var_maxttl = 0 xcache.var_gc_interval = 300 xcache.test = Off ; N/A for /dev/zero xcache.readonly_protection = Off ; for *nix, xcache.mmap_path is a file path, not directory. ; Use something like "/tmp/xcache" if you want to turn on ReadonlyProtection ; 2 group of php won't share the same /tmp/xcache ; for win32, xcache.mmap_path=anonymous map name, not file path xcache.mmap_path = "/dev/zero" ; leave it blank(disabled) or "/tmp/phpcore/" ; make sure it's writable by php (without checking open_basedir) xcache.coredump_directory = "" ; per request settings xcache.cacher = On xcache.stat = On xcache.optimizer = Off [xcache.coverager] ; per request settings ; enable coverage data collecting for xcache.coveragedump_directory and xcache_coverager_start/stop/get/clean() functions (will hurt executing performance) xcache.coverager = Off ; ini only settings ; make sure it's readable (care open_basedir) by coverage viewer script ; requires xcache.coverager=On xcache.coveragedump_directory = "" Thanks you

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• Hibernate + Spring : cascade deletion ignoring non-nullable constraints

  - by E.Benoît

  Hello, I seem to be having one weird problem with some Hibernate data classes. In a very specific case, deleting an object should fail due to existing, non-nullable relations - however it does not. The strangest part is that a few other classes related to the same definition behave appropriately. I'm using HSQLDB 1.8.0.10, Hibernate 3.5.0 (final) and Spring 3.0.2. The Hibernate properties are set so that batch updates are disabled. The class whose instances are being deleted is: @Entity( name = "users.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "credentials" , schema = "users" ) public class Credentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /* Some basic fields here */ /** Administrator credentials, if any */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public AdminCredentials adminCredentials; /** Active account data */ @OneToOne( mappedBy = "credentials" , fetch = FetchType.LAZY ) public Account activeAccount; /* Some more reverse relations here */ } (ModelBase is a class that simply declares a Long field named "id" as being automatically generated) The Account class, which is one for which constraints work, looks like this: @Entity( name = "users.Account" ) @Table( name = "accounts" , schema = "users" ) public class Account extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials the account is linked to */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } And here is the AdminCredentials class, for which the constraints are ignored. @Entity( name = "admin.Credentials" ) @Table( name = "admin_credentials" , schema = "admin" ) public class AdminCredentials extends ModelBase { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; /** Credentials linked with an administrative account */ @OneToOne( optional = false ) @JoinColumn( name = "credentials_id" , referencedColumnName = "id" , nullable = false , updatable = false ) public Credentials credentials; /* Some more fields here */ } The code that attempts to delete the Credentials instances is: try { if ( account.validationKey != null ) { this.hTemplate.delete( account.validationKey ); } this.hTemplate.delete( account.languageSetting ); this.hTemplate.delete( account ); } catch ( DataIntegrityViolationException e ) { return false; } Where hTemplate is a HibernateTemplate instance provided by Spring, its flush mode having been set to EAGER. In the conditions shown above, the deletion will fail if there is an Account instance that refers to the Credentials instance being deleted, which is the expected behaviour. However, an AdminCredentials instance will be ignored, the deletion will succeed, leaving an invalid AdminCredentials instance behind (trying to refresh that instance causes an error because the Credentials instance no longer exists). I have tried moving the AdminCredentials table from the admin DB schema to the users DB schema. Strangely enough, a deletion-related error is then triggered, but not in the deletion code - it is triggered at the next query involving the table, seemingly ignoring the flush mode setting. I've been trying to understand this for hours and I must admit I'm just as clueless now as I was then.

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• Problem with return 2 libc method

  - by jth

  Hi, I'am trying to understand the return2libc method. I'am using an ubuntu linux 9.10, 32 bit with ASLR disabled. In theory, it sounds quite easy, overwrite the saved eip with the address of system() (or whatever function you want), then put the address to which system() should return and after that, the parameter for system, the "/bin/bash"-string. But what happens is that my exploit keeps segfaulting the vulnerable program. I assume something with the system()-address went wrong. This is what I did so far: Determined the address of system(): (gdb) print system $1 = {<text variable, no debug info>} 0x167020 <system> (gdb) x/x system 0x167020 <system>: 0x890cec83 I used the subsequent x/x system because those 3 bytes returned by print system looks like an index in some sort of jumptable (PLT?), so I assume 0x890cec83 is the right address which is used to overwrite the saved eip. After that I determined the address of the /bin/bash string in memory, using a small C program which basically consists of this line: printf("Address of string /bin/bash: %p\n", getenv("SHELL")); Then I looked a little bit around in the memory and fount /bin/bash: (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" After I gathered this information, I filled the buffer: (gdb) b 9 Breakpoint 1 at 0x8048407: file victim.c, line 9. (gdb) r `perl -e 'print "A"x9 . "\x83\xec\x0c\x89FAKE\xca\f6\ff\bf";'` Breakpoint 1, main (argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca) at victim.c:10 10 return 0; (gdb) x/s 0xbffff6ca 0xbffff6ca: "/bin/bash" Stack frame looks like this: (gdb) i f Stack level 0, frame at 0xbffff440: eip = 0x8048407 in main (victim.c:10); saved eip 0x890cec83 source language c. Arglist at 0xbffff438, args: argc=1111638594, argv=0xc360cca Locals at 0xbffff438, Previous frame's sp is 0xbffff440 Saved registers: ebp at 0xbffff438, eip at 0xbffff43c This seems all right to me, saved eip was overwritten with the (hopefully) correct system()-address, return address for system was set to "FAKE" (shouldn't matter) and the address of /bin/bash also seems to be correct. When I'am continuing the execution, victim segfaults on some strange address and certainly not in 0x890cec83: (gdb) cont Continuing. Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x0804840d in main (argc=Cannot access memory at address 0x41414149 ) at victim.c:11 11 } Has anyone an explanation or a hint what happens here and why the execution isn't redirected to 0x890cec83? Thanks in advance, any hint, and be it only vague, would be appreciated. I have no idea why this doesn't work.

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• WordPress Write Cache Problem with Multiple Sessions

  - by Volomike

  I'm working on a content dripper custom plugin in WordPress that my client asked me to build. He says he wants it to catch a page view event, and if it's the right time of day (24 hours since last post), to pull from a resource file and output another post. He needed it to also raise a flag and prevent other sessions from firing that same snippet of code. So, raise some kind of flag saying, "I'm posting that post, go away other process," and then it makes that post and releases the flag again. However, the strangest thing is occurring when placed under load with multiple sessions hitting the site with page views. It's firing instead of one post -- it's randomly doing like 1, 2, or 3 extra posts, with each one thinking that it was the right time to post because it was 24 hours past the time of the last post. Because it's somewhat random, I'm guessing that the problem is some kind of write caching where the other sessions don't see the raised flag just yet until a couple microseconds pass. The plugin was raising the "flag" by simply writing to the wp_options table with the update_option() API in WordPress. The other user sessions were supposed to read that value with get_option() and see the flag, and then not run that piece of code that creates the post because a given session was already doing it. Then, when done, I lower the flag and the other sessions continue as normal. But what it's doing is letting those other sessions in. To make this work, I was using add_action('loop_start','checkToAddContent'). The odd thing about that function though is that it's called more than once on a page, and in fact some plugins may call it. I don't know if there's a better event to hook. Even still, even if I find an event to hook that only runs once on a page view, I still have multiple sessions to contend with (different users who may view the page at the same time) and I want only one given session to trigger the content post when the post is due on the schedule. I'm wondering if there are any WordPress plugin devs out there who could suggest another event hook to latch on to, and to figure out another way to raise a flag that all sessions would see. I mean, I could use the shared memory API in PHP, but many hosting plans have that disabled. Can't use a cookie or session var because that's only one single session. About the only thing that might work across hosting plans would be to drop a file as a flag, instead. If the file is present, then one session has the flag. If the file is not present, then other sessions can attempt to get the flag. Sure, I could use the file route, but it's kind of immature in my opinion and I was wondering if there's something in WordPress I could do.

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• Unable to disable generation of sources JAR with maven-release-plugin

  - by Chris Lieb

  I am trying to release a web project using Maven 2.2.1 and the maven-release-plugin 2.0-beta-9, but it always fails when doing release:perform on generating the sources jar for the EAR project, which makes sense since the EAR project doesn't have any source. [INFO] [INFO] [source:jar {execution: attach-sources}] [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [ERROR] BUILD ERROR [INFO] [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] [INFO] Error creating source archive: You must set at least one file. To try to disable the building of a sources JAR for the EAR project, I added the following to the POM for my EAR project (the version of the release plugin is set in a parent POM): <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-release-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <useReleaseProfile>false</useReleaseProfile> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Upon running the release again after checking in this change, I got the same error while generating the sources JAR for the EAR project, even though this should have been disabled by the previous POM snippet. What am I doing wrong? Why is the sources JAR still being built? Edit: I've tried to make the source plugin include my application.xml file so that this error doesn't occur by adding the following POM snippet: <build> <plugins> ... <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-source-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <includes> <include>${basedir}/META-INF/**/*</include> </includes> <useDefaultExcludes>false</useDefaultExcludes> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Unfortunately, this does not fix the problem either.

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• jqtransform and collapsed DIV

  - by Marco

  Hello, I am using a jQuery plugin called: jqtransform This plugin uses JavaScript to apply CSS styles to form elements. The problem that I have consists in the following scenario: I’m building a search page, with a advanced search option. When the page loads, the div called “advancedSearch” is hidden, and it will only show if the user clicks a element. Inside the div#advancedSearch I have several form elements. However, if I hide the div#advancedSearch with the CSS style: “diplay:none;”, the jqtransform plugin doesn’t work correctly with the elements that are hidden. So my solution was to hide the div#advancedsearch with JavaScript. This actually works, and it does not matter if it’s done after the document is ready or not. But… with the JavaScript solution, the div#advancedSearch stays visible for a couple of milliseconds… which is visually annoying. So I was wondering if the solution to this problem would be in the CSS, or in correcting the jqtransform plugin, or even in finding a way to immediately hide the div#advancedSearch with JS making it immediately hidden. UPDATE 1 After jeerose comment I decided to place here my function (please note that the <%= % are ASP.Net tags, that I use to get the images path) $('.toggleAdvancedSearch').click(function() { $('#advancedSearchWrap').slideToggle(250); $('form.jqtransform').jqTransform({ imgPath: '<%= ResolveClientUrl("~/masterpages/img/jqtransform/") %>' }); return false; }); UPDATE 2 To test the problem, I did the following: Added another element to the page, with the ID “applyStyle”, and onClick I call the $('form').jqTransform(); Disabled the the $('form').jqTransform(); from the load of the page. If I press the a#applyStyle, before expanding the div#advancedSearch I get the same problem that I had. But if I expand the the div#advancedSearch and press the the a#applyStyle after, the problem is solved. However, if I run the page with the $('form').jqTransform(); function on the load, I cannot reapply it after with the pressing of the a#applyStyle. I think that the solution could be: disabling the all the elements that are inside the div#advancedSearch, and on the same function that expands the div, make It also apply the styles to the elements that are inside the div#advancedSearch. However, I don’t know how to do this (nether if this will work). PS: This seems to be a known issue with the plugin, but I cannot wait indefinitely for a solution.

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• AD-DirectoryServices: .NET2.0 - Speaking architecture, approach and best practices... Suggestions?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  I've been mandated to write an application to migrate the Active Directory access models to another environment. Here's the context: I'm stuck with VB.NET 2005 and .NET Framework 2.0; The application must use the Windows authenticated user to manage AD; The objects I have to handle are Groups, Users and OrganizationalUnits; I intend to use the Façade design pattern to provider ease of use and a fully reusable code; I plan to write a factory for each of the objects managed (group, ou, user); The use of Attributes should be useful here, I guess; As everything is about the DirectoryEntry class when accessing the AD, it seems a good candidate for generic types. Obligatory features: User creates new OUs manually; User creates new group manually; User creates new user (these users are services accounts) manually; Application reads an XML file which contains the OUs, groups and users to create; Application informs the user about the OUs, groups and users that shall be created; User specifies the domain environment where to migrate the XML input file designated objects; User makes changes if needed, and launches the task operations; Application performs required by the XML input file operations against the underlying AD as specified by the user; Application informs the user upon completion. Linear features: User fetches OUs, groups, users; User changes OUs, groups, users; User deletes OUs, groups, users; The application logs AD entries and operations performed, plus errors and exceptions; Nice-to-have features: Application rollbacks operations on error or exception. I've been working for weeks now to get acquainted with the AD and the System.DirectoryServices assembly. But I don't seem to find a way to be fully satisfied with what I'm doing and always looking for better. I have studied Bret de Smet's Linq to AD on CodePlex, but then again, I can't use it as I'm stuck with .NET 2.0, so no Linq! But I've learned about Attributes, and seen that he's working with generic types as he codes a DirectorySource class to perform the operations for OUs, groups and users. I have been able to add groups to the AD; I have been able to add users to the AD; The created user is automatically disabled? I seem to get confused with the use of a LDAP path to add objects. For instance, one needs two instances of a System.DirectoryServices.DirectoryEntry class to add a group, for instance. Why this? Any suggestions? Thanks for any help, code sample, ideas, architural solution, everything!

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• sharepoint custom aspx page with database connection

  - by Megini

  hi there i have created a custom aspx page whithin my sharepoint site with a sql server connection to a database on that server to select data when i view the page it works but when another user tries to view it it gives the following error : Server Error in '/' Application. Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'. Source Error: The source code that generated this unhandled exception can only be shown when compiled in debug mode. To enable this, please follow one of the below steps, then request the URL: Add a "Debug=true" directive at the top of the file that generated the error. Example: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" % or: 2) Add the following section to the configuration file of your application: Note that this second technique will cause all files within a given application to be compiled in debug mode. The first technique will cause only that particular file to be compiled in debug mode. Important: Running applications in debug mode does incur a memory/performance overhead. You should make sure that an application has debugging disabled before deploying into production scenario. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): Login failed for user 'GRINCOR\GuguK'.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +248 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +245 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2811 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +53 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +327 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +2445370 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +2445224 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +354 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +703 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +54 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +2414776 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +92 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +1657 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +84 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +1645767 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +258 ASP.d7922f0d_ac20_4f87_91a2_a99a52c2b2fa__233736835.DisplayData() in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\wss\VirtualDirectories\80\sites\hrportal2\tester.aspx:151 ASP.d7922f0d_ac20_4f87_91a2_a99a52c2b2fa_233736835._RenderMain(HtmlTextWriter __w, Control parameterContainer) in C:\inetpub\wwwroot\wss\VirtualDirectories\80\sites\hrportal2\tester.aspx:346 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +115 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +42 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderChildren(HtmlTextWriter writer) +253 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.Render(HtmlTextWriter output) +87 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm.RenderControl(HtmlTextWriter writer) +53 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlContainerControl.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +42 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.Control.RenderChildrenInternal(HtmlTextWriter writer, ICollection children) +240 System.Web.UI.Page.Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) +38 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +4240 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3601 can someone give me a solution to this problem ? i am using sharepoint services 3.0

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• jQuery Table - Reference User Input Row Names and Values

  - by Vic

  I have several tables which are generated by another application, which I have no control over. I am totally new to jQuery and ajax, and have only a limited knowledge of jsp. Two sample rows are: <table class="sicknessForm"> <tr id="row_0" class="datarow"> <td id="col_2"><input name="row_0-col_2" class="tabcell" value="Injuries"></td> <td id="col_4"><input name="row_0-col_4" class="tabcell" value="01"></td> <td id="col_5"><input name="row_0-col_5" class="tabcell" value="2"></td> <td id="col_6"><input name="row_0-col_6" class="tabcell" value="5"></td> </tr> <tr id="row_1" class="datarow"> <td id="col_2"><input name="row_1-col_2" class="tabcell" value="Absences"></td> <td id="col_4"><input name="row_1-col_4" class="tabcell" value="100"></td> <td id="col_5"><input name="row_1-col_5" class="tabcell" value="102"></td> <td id="col_6"><input name="row_1-col_6" class="tabcell" value="105"></td> </tr> </table> There are more rows and columns in the actual tables. What I need to do is to pass the ordered row information to the database, e.g.: Injuries, 1, 2, 5 .... Absences 100, 102, 105... I can retrieve the values for each input using: $('#SicknessForm .userInput').each(function() { alert($(this).val()); }); 1) How can I loop through each row, get the value from the first column (Injuries) and place the data into an array to send to the server? 2) How do I reference the first row of each column to disable user input on it? $(:HowDoIReferenceThis).attr('disabled', ''); 3) I need to validate that each cell is numeric, other than the first column. Any pointers on this (otherwise I can check it in my servlet), especially on how to loop through all valid input cells (everything except 'Injuries','Abences', ... cells). Many Thanks! Vic

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• Using a Button to navigate to another Page in a NavigationWindow

  - by Will

  I'm trying to use the navigation command framework in WPF to navigate between Pages within a WPF application (desktop; not XBAP or Silverlight). I believe I have everything configured correctly, yet its not working. I build and run without errors, I'm not getting any binding errors in the Output window, but my navigation button is disabled. Here's the app.xaml for a sample app: <Application x:Class="Navigation.App" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" StartupUri="First.xaml"> </Application> Note the StartupUri points to First.xaml. First.xaml is a Page. WPF automatically hosts my page in a NavigationWindow. Here's First.xaml: <Page x:Class="Navigation.First" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="First"> <Grid> <Button CommandParameter="/Second.xaml" CommandTarget="{Binding RelativeSource= {RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type NavigationWindow}}}" Command="NavigationCommands.GoToPage" Content="Go!"/> </Grid> </Page> The button's CommandTarget is set to the NavigationWindow. The command is GoToPage, and the page is /Second.xaml. I've tried setting the CommandTarget to the containing Page, the CommandParameter to "Second.xaml" (First.xaml and Second.xaml are both in the root of the solution), and I've tried leaving the CommandTarget empty. I've also tried setting the Path to the Binding to various navigational-related public properties on the NavigationWindow. Nothing has worked so far. What am I missing here? I really don't want to do my navigation in code. Clarification. If, instead of using a button, I use a Hyperlink: <Grid> <TextBlock> <Hyperlink NavigateUri="Second.xaml">Go! </Hyperlink> </TextBlock> </Grid> everything works as expected. However, my UI requirements means that using a Hyperlink is right out. I need a big fatty button for people to press. That's why I want to use the button to navigate. I just want to know how I can get the Button to provide the same ability that the Hyperlink does in this case.

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• Jboss logging issue - pl check this

  - by balaji

  I’m Working as deployer and server administrator. We use Jboss 4.0x AS to deploy our applications. The issue I'm facing is, Whenever we redeploy/restart the server, server.log is getting created but after sometime the logging goes off. Yes it is not at all updating the server.log file. Due to this, we could not trace the other critical issues we have. Actually we have two separate nodes and we do deploy/restarting the server separately on two nodes. We are facing the issue in both of our test and production environment. I could not trace out where exactly the issue is. Could you please help me in resolving the issue? If we have any other issues, we can check the log files. If log itself is not getting updated/logged, how can we move further in analyzing the issues without the recent/updated logs? Below are the logs found in the stdout.log: 18:55:50,303 INFO [Server] Core system initialized 18:55:52,296 INFO [WebService] Using RMI server codebase: http://kl121tez.is.klmcorp.net:8083/ 18:55:52,313 INFO [Log4jService$URLWatchTimerTask] Configuring from URL: resource:log4j.xml 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:52,860 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasRBPFMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,273 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,274 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object AmasCacheMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCTraceLogger without a class name. 18:55:54,334 ERROR [STDERR] LOG0026E The Log Manager cannot create the object JACCMessageLogger without a class name. 18:55:56,059 INFO [ServiceEndpointManager] WebServices: jbossws-1.0.3.SP1 (date=200609291417) 18:55:56,635 INFO [Embedded] Catalina naming disabled 18:55:56,671 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,672 INFO [ClusterRuleSetFactory] Unable to find a cluster rule set in the classpath. Will load the default rule set. 18:55:56,843 INFO [Http11BaseProtocol] Initializing Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-0.0.0.0-8180 18:55:56,844 INFO [Catalina] Initialization processed in 172 ms 18:55:56,844 INFO [StandardService] Starting service jboss.web Please help..

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• CellTable + AsyncListViewAdapter<T>, stuck at 'loading' when paging

  - by Jaroslav Záruba

  Hi I'm trying to make CellTable, AsyncListViewAdapter<T> and SimplePager<T> working together. I managed to display my data, but whenever I click either "go to start" or "go to end" button I get that 'loading' indicator which stays there till the end of days. ( AsyncListViewAdapter<T>.onRangeChanged doesn't even get called this time.) As I have only single row in my data those two buttons should be (and appear to be) disabled. I went through the code-snippets in this thread, but I can't see nothing suspicions in what I've been doing. Is there some obvious answer to a rookie mistake? I shrinked my variable names, hopefully it won't wrap too much. protected class MyAsyncAdapter extends AsyncListViewAdapter<DTO> { @Override protected void onRangeChanged(ListView<DTO> v) { // doesn't get called on go2start/go2end :( Range r = v.getRange(); fetchData(r.getStart(), r.getLength()); } } private void addTable() { // table: CellTable<DTO> table = new CellTable<DTO>(10); table.addColumn(new Column<DTO, String>(new TextCell()) { @Override public String getValue(DTO namespace) { return namespace.getName(); } }, "Name"); // pager: SimplePager<DTO> pager = new SimplePager<DTO>(table); table.setPager(pager); adapter = new MyAsyncAdapter(); adapter.addView(table); // does not make any difference: // adapter.updateDataSize(0, false); // adapter.updateDataSize(10, true); VerticalPanel vPanel = new VerticalPanel(); vPanel.add(table); vPanel.add(pager); RootLayoutPanel.get().add(vPanel); } // success-handler of my fetching AsyncCallback @Override public void onSuccess(List<DTO> data) { // AsyncCallback<List<DTO>> has start field adapter.updateViewData(start, data.size(), data); if(data.size() < length) adapter.updateDataSize(start + data.size(), true); } Regards J. Záruba

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• NHibernate unintentional lazy property loading

  - by chiccodoro

  I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470<br/> NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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• Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

  - by Volomike

  I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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• JQuery validation not working for checkbox group

  - by Chris Halcrow

  I'm having trouble getting JQuery validation to work with a set of checkboxes. I'm generating the checkboxes using an ASP.NET checkboxlist, and I've used JQuery to set the 'name' attribute to the same thing for each checkbox in the list. Here's the code that gets written to the browser. I'm setting the 'validate' attribute on the 1st checkbox to set the rule that at least one checkbox must be selected. The JQuery validation works for all other elements on the form, but not for the checkbox list. I'm also using a JQuery form wizard on the page which triggers validation for each 'page' of the form, so I don't have control over how the validation is called. <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Famine" name="hello[]" validate="required:true, minlength:1"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_0">Famine</label> <br> <input id="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1" class="ui-wizard-content ui-helper-reset ui-state-default" type="checkbox" value="Events Volunteer" name="hello[]"> <label for="ContentPlaceHolder1_MainContent_AreaOfInterest_1">Events Volunteer</label> Any ideas on what's going wrong? There are lots of examples of JQuery scripts that will do the validation, however I'm trying to avoid this as I'm generating the checkboxlist server side by a custom control so that it can be re-used across different pages that may or may not have JQuery enabled. I'm trying to enable the JQuery validation whilst being as unobtrusive as possible, so that pages will still work even if JQuery is disabled. Here are the relevant JQuery inclusions and JQuery initialisation script for the form wizard. I'm not using any initialisation code for JQuery validation: <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/bbq.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.form.wizard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="../js/formwizard/js/jquery.validate.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#form1").formwizard({ validationEnabled: true, focusFirstInput: true }); }); </script>

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• markdown to HTML with customised WMD editor

  - by spirytus

  For my application I customized slightly the way WMD behaves so when user enters empty lines, these are reflected in HTML output as <br />'s. Now I came to a point when I should store it somewhere at backend and so after going thru SO posts for a while I'm not sure what is the best way to do it. I have few options and if you could point out which their pros/cons that would be much appreciated. send to server and store as markdown rather than HTML. To me obvious advantage would be keeping exactly same formatting as user originally entered. But then how can I convert it back to HTML for display to a client? It seems very troublesome to convert it on client side as even if it would be possible what would happen if JS would be disabled? If I wanted to do it on the server, then standard server side implementations of markup to HTML might be resource expensive. Would that be an issue in your opinion? Even if it wouldn't be the case then as I mentioned my WMD implementation is customised and those server side solutions wouldn't probably do the right conversion to markdown anyway and there always would be a risk that something would convert wrong. Send to server as converted HTML. Same as above.. conversion on client side would be difficult, server side same with possibility of getting it wrong. send original markdown and converted HTML and store both. No performance issues related to converting markdown to HTML on client side, nor on server side. Users would have always same markdown they originally entered and same HTML they originally saw in preview (possibly sanitized in php though). It would have to take twice that much storage space though and that is my biggest worry. I tend to lean towards 3rd solution as it seems simplest, but there is a worry of doubled storage space needed for this solution. Please bear in mind that my implementation of WMD is slightly modified and also I'm going with PHP/MySql server side implementation. So apart from 3 options I listed above, are there any other possible solutions to my problem? Did I miss anything important that would make one of the options above better then the rest? And what other pros/cons would apply to each solution I listed? Also how is it implemented on SO? I read somwhere that they using option 3, and so if its good enough for SO would be good enough for me :) but not sure if its true anyway, so how is it done? Also please forgive me, but at least for once I got to say that StackOverflow IS THE BEST DAMN RESOURCE ON THE WEB and I truly appreciate all the people trying to help others here! The site and users here are simply amazing!

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• Nested Transaction issues within custom Windows Service

  - by pdwetz

  I have a custom Windows Service I recently upgraded to use TransactionScope for nested transactions. It worked fine locally on my old dev machine (XP sp3) and on a test server (Server 2003). However, it fails on my new Windows 7 machine as well as on 2008 Server. It was targeting 2.0 framework; I tried targeting 3.5 instead, but it still fails. The strange part is really in how it fails; no exception is thrown. The service itself merely times out. I added tracing code, and it fails when opening the connection for Database lookup #2 below. I also enabled tracing for System.Transactions; it literally cuts out partway while writing the block for the failed connection. We ran a SQL trace, but only the first lookup shows up. I put in code traces, and it gets to the trace the line before the second lookup, but nothing after. I've had the same experience hitting two different SQL servers (both are SQL 2005 running on Server 2003). The connection string is utilizing a SQL account (not Windows integration). All connections are against the same database in this case, but given the nature of the code it is being escalated to MSDTC. Here's the basic code structure: TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.RequiresNew, options)) { // Database lookup #1 TransactionOptions options = new TransactionOptions(); options.IsolationLevel = Transaction.Current != null ? Transaction.Current.IsolationLevel : System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted; using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, options)) { // Database lookup #2; fails on connection.Open() // Database save (never reached) scope.Complete();<br/> } scope.Complete();<br/> } My local firewall is disabled. The service normally runs using Network Service, but I also tried my user account (same results). The short of it is that I use the same general technique widely in my web applications and haven't had any issues. I pulled out the code and ran it fine within a local Windows Form application. If anyone has any additional debugging ideas (or, even better, solutions) I'd love to hear them.

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• How to salvage SQL server 2008 query from KILLED/ROLLBACK state without waiting half a day?

  - by littlegreen

  I have a stored procedure that inserts batches of millions of rows, emerging from a certain query, into an SQL database. It has one parameter selecting the batch; when this parameter is omitted, it will gather a list of batches and recursively call itself, in order to iterate over batches. In (pseudo-)code, it looks something like this: CREATE PROCEDURE spProcedure AS BEGIN IF @code = 0 BEGIN ... WHILE @@Fetch_Status=0 BEGIN EXEC spProcedure @code FETCH NEXT ... INTO @code END END ELSE BEGIN -- Disable indexes ... INSERT INTO table SELECT (...) -- Enable indexes ... Now it can happen that this procedure is slow, for whatever reason: it can't get a lock, one of the indexes it uses is misdefined or disabled. In that case, I want to be able kill the procedure, truncate and recreate the resulting table, and try again. However, when I try and kill the procedure, the process frequently oozes into a KILLED/ROLLBACK state from which there seems to be no return. From Google I have learned to do an sp_lock, find the spid, and then kill it with KILL <spid>. But when I try to kill it, it tells me SPID 75: transaction rollback in progress. Estimated rollback completion: 0%. Estimated time remaining: 554 seconds. I did find a forum message hinting that another spid should be killed before the other one can start a rollback. But that didn't work for me either, plus I do not understand, why that would be the case... could it be because I am recursively calling my own stored procedure? (But it should be having the same spid, right?) In any case, my process is just sitting there, being dead, not responding to kills, and locking the table. This is very frustrating, as I want to go on developing my queries, not waiting hours on my server sitting dead while pretending to be finishing a supposed rollback. Is there some way in which I can tell the server not to store any rollback information for my query? Or not to allow any other queries to interfere with the rollback, so that it will not take so long? Or how to rewrite my query in a better way, or how kill the process successfully without restarting the server?

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• disable dates using jquery inside gridview control

  - by bladerunner

  Hi there, I have a gridview which contains a textbox control. I need to show the calendar for the user to pick the date and certain dates are to be disabled using jquery. I found a post on stackoverflow that talked about how to disable certain dates. I am done with that part, except not sure how to pass the textbox control to this jquery function. Here is the code. <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> function pageLoad(sender, args) { var enabledDays = ['09/21/2011', '10/05/2011', '10/19/2011', '11/02/2011', '11/16/2011']; /* utility functions */ function editDays(date) { for (var i = 0; i < enabledDays.length; i++) { if (new Date(enabledDays[i]).toString() == date.toString()) { return [true]; } } return [false]; } /* create datepicker */ $(document).ready(function() { $('#<%= txtInHomeDate.ClientID %>').datepicker({ beforeShow: springDate, beforeShowDay: editDays, dateFormat: 'mm/dd/yy', buttonImage: 'images/cal.gif', buttonText: 'Choose date', firstDay: 1, buttonImageOnly: true, showOn: 'both', showAnim: 'fadeIn', onSelect: function() { $(this).trigger("onchange", null); } }); function springDate() { var defaultMin = new Date(); var defaultMax = new Date(); var Min = defaultMin; var Max = defaultMax; // make valid date from hiddenfied value format is MM/dd/yyyy dateMin = $('#<%= hfStDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMin = new Date(dateMin); dateMax = $('#<%= hfEndDate.ClientID %>').val(); dateMax = new Date(dateMax); if (dateMin && dateMax) { Min = new Date(dateMin.getFullYear(), dateMin.getMonth(), dateMin.getDate()); Max = new Date(dateMax.getFullYear(), dateMax.getMonth(), dateMax.getDate()); } return { minDate: Min, maxDate: Max }; } }); } <.... <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="In-Home Date"> <ItemStyle HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfStDate" runat="server" Value="09/01/2011" /> <asp:HiddenField ID="hfEndDate" runat="server" Value="11/30/2011" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtInHomeDate" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> Currently, it errors out since the jquery function won't find the txtInHomeDate. Could I get some help as I am pretty close to get this done? Thanks!!

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• I have a problem with a TextBox in an application... A window has a Grid with two columns. The left

  - by haagel

  I have a problem with a TextBox in an application... A window has a Grid with two columns. The left column contains a control with a constant width but with a height that adapts. The right column contains a TextBox that takes up all remaining space in the Grid (and thereby in the Window). The Grid is given a minimal width and height and is wrapped within a ScrollViewer. If the user resizes the window to be smaller than the minimal widht/height of the Grid, scrollbars are displayed. This is exactly how I want it to be. However, a problem occurs when the user starts typing text. If the text is to long to fit in one line in the TextBox, I want the text to wrap. Therefore I set TextWrapping="Wrap" on the TextBox. But since the TextBox has an automatic width and is wrapped in a ScrollViewer (its actually the whole Grid that is wrapped), the TextBox just keeps expanding to the right. I do want the TextBox to expand if the window is expanded, but I don't want the TextBox to expand by the text. Rather the text should wrap inside the available TextBox. If the text don't fit within the TextBox height, a scrollbar should be displayed within the TextBox. Is there a way to accomplish this? Below is some code that shows my problem. <Window x:Class="AdaptingTextBoxes.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="300" Width="400" Background="DarkCyan"> <Grid Margin="10" Name="LayoutRoot"> <ScrollViewer HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto"> <Grid MinWidth="300" MinHeight="200"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="auto" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Button Grid.Column="0" Margin="0,0,10,0" Content="Button" Width="100" /> <TextBox Grid.Column="1" AcceptsReturn="True" TextWrapping="Wrap" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled" ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" /> </Grid> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> </Window>

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• jQuery multiple class selection

  - by morpheous

  I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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• ListBox ,ScrollViewer ? CanContentScroll

  - by mrK

  Hi! I have ListBox with ScrollViewer <ScrollViewer Focusable="False" CanContentScroll="True" HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Hidden" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Disabled"> <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding Path=MyItems}" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" Focusable="False"> <ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch"/> <Setter Property="VerticalContentAlignment" Value="Stretch"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ListBoxItem}"> <Border CornerRadius="3,3,3,3"> <Grid> <myControls:MyControl/> </Grid> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </ListBox.ItemContainerStyle> <ListBox.Style> <Style TargetType="ListBox"> <Setter Property="SnapsToDevicePixels" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="OverridesDefaultStyle" Value="true"/> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility" Value="Auto"/> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.VerticalScrollBarVisibility" Value="Auto"/> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="True"/> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="ListBox"> <ScrollViewer Focusable="False" CanContentScroll="True"> <Border> <StackPanel Margin="2" Orientation="Horizontal" IsItemsHost="True"/> </Border> </ScrollViewer> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </ListBox.Style> </ListBox> </ScrollViewer> But CanContentScroll="True" does't work. It's still scrolling in physical units. Whats wrong in my code? Thanks!

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• Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

  - by Ed Kirk

  On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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• Send invitation to any user of google chats (is it possible?)

  - by Gizzo

  Hi I try to realize simple code on perl which should just get/send messages from/to gtalk accounts. I use Net::XMPP::* modules. All works just fine for users, who are my friends (in my "buddy" list). But i can't send message to unknown user. I know, that for this case i must send an invitation first, but Net::XMPP::* don't provide this possibility. There is only one way to invite person - construct my own xml according to "XEP-0155 Stanza Session Negotiation" protocol. But this doesn't work correct. When i send xml to server, it returns error "service-unavailable". I send: <message to='[email protected]'> <sxde xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' id='b'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard' /> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> </message> before my message. ANSWER: <message from='' to='[email protected]/TALKCDDCCE63' type='error'> <sxde id='b' session='0AEF4278DC4B6577' xmlns='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde' xmlns:sxde='http://jabber.org/protocol/sxde#metadata'> <negotiation> <invitation> <feature var='http://jabber.org/protocol/whiteboard'/> </invitation> </negotiation> </sxde> <nos:x value='disabled' xmlns:nos='google:nosave'/> <arc:record otr='false' xmlns:arc='http://jabber.org/protocol/archive'/> <error code='503' type='cancel'> <service-unavailable xmlns='urn:ietf:params:xml:ns:xmpp-stanzas'/> </error> </message> Maybe i lost smth or should send another info before (or after..) ? Or maybe there are another way to send message without any invitation? Thanks in advance

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• How does Page.IsValid work?

  - by Lijo

  I have following code with a RequiredFieldValidator. The EnableClientScript property is set as "false" in the validation control. Also I have disabled script in browser. I am NOT using Page.IsValid in code behind. Still, when I submit without any value in textbox I will get error message. From comments of @Dai, I came to know that this can be an issue, if there is any code in Page_Load that is executed in a postback. There will be no validation errors thrown. (However, for button click handler, there is no need to check Page.IsValid) if (Page.IsPostBack) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; txtEmpName.Text = value + "Appended"; } QUESTION Why the server side validation does not happen before Page_Load? Why it works fine when I use Page.IsValid? UPDATE It seems like, we need to add If(Page.IsValid) in button click also if we are using a Custom Validator with server side validation. Refer CustomValidator not working well. Note: Client side validation question is present here: Whether to use Page_IsValid or Page_ClientValidate() (for Client Side Events) MARKUP <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script type="text/javascript"> alert('haiii'); </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ValidationSummary runat="server" ID="vsumAll" DisplayMode="BulletList" CssClass="validationsummary" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtEmpName" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valEmpName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtEmpName" EnableClientScript="false" ErrorMessage="RequiredFieldValidator" Text="*" Display="Dynamic" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" onclick="Button1_Click" Text="Button" ValidationGroup="ButtonClick" /> </div> </form> </body> </html> CODE BEHIND protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string value = txtEmpName.Text; SubmitEmployee(value); } References: Should I always call Page.IsValid? ASP.NET Validation Controls – Important Points, Tips and Tricks CustomValidator not working well

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