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  • C# - Alternative to System.Time.Timer, to call a function at a specific time.

    - by Fábio Antunes
    Hello everybody. I want to call a specific function on my C# application at a specific time. At first i thought about using a Timer (System.Time.Timer), but that soon became impossible to use. Why? Simple. The Timer Class requires a Interval in milliseconds, but considering that i might want the function to be executed, lets says in a week that would mean: 7 Days = 168 hours; 168 Hours = 10,080 minutes; 10,080 Minutes = 6,048,000 seconds; 6,048,000 Seconds = 6,048,000,000 milliseconds; So the Interval would be 6,048,000,000; Now lets remember that the Interval accepted data type is int, and as we know int range goes from -2,147,483,648 to 2,147,483,647. That makes Timer useless in this case once we cannot set a Interval bigger that 2,147,483,647 milliseconds. So i need a solution where i could specify when the function should be called. Something like this: solution.ExecuteAt = "30-04-2010 15:10:00"; solution.Function = "functionName"; solution.Start(); So when the System Time would reach "30-04-2010 15:10:00" the function would be executed in the application. How can this problem be solved? Thanks just by taking the time to read my question. But if you could provide me with some help i would be most grateful. Additional Info: What these functions will do? Getting climate information and based on that info: Starting / Shutting down other Applications (most of them Console Based); Sending custom Commands to those Console Applications; Power down, Rebooting, Sleep, Hibernate the computer; And if possible schedule the BIOS to Power Up the Computer;

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  • need some help in Abraham twitteroauth class

    - by diEcho
    Hello All, i m learning how to use twitter from twitter developer link on Authenticating Requests with OAuth page i was debugging my code with given procedure on Sending the user to authorization section there is written that if you are using the callback flow, your oauth_callback should have received back your oauth_token (the same that you sent, your "request token") and a field called the oauth_verifier. You'll need that for the next step. Here's the response I received: oauth_token=8ldIZyxQeVrFZXFOZH5tAwj6vzJYuLQpl0WUEYtWc&oauth_verifier=pDNg57prOHapMbhv25RNf75lVRd6JDsni1AJJIDYoTY my original code is require_once('twitteroauth/twitteroauth.php'); require_once('config.php'); /* Build TwitterOAuth object with client credentials. */ $connection = new TwitterOAuth(CONSUMER_KEY, CONSUMER_SECRET); /* Get temporary credentials. */ $request_token = $connection->getRequestToken(OAUTH_CALLBACK); /* Save temporary credentials to session. */ $_SESSION['oauth_token'] = $token = $request_token['oauth_token']; $_SESSION['oauth_token_secret'] = $request_token['oauth_token_secret']; /* If last connection failed don't display authorization link. */ switch ($connection->http_code) { case 200: /* Build authorize URL and redirect user to Twitter. */ echo "<br/>Authorize URL:".$url = $connection->getAuthorizeURL($token); //header('Location: ' . $url); break; default: /* Show notification if something went wrong. */ echo 'Could not connect to Twitter. Refresh the page or try again later.'; } and i m getting Authorize URL: https://twitter.com/oauth/authenticate?oauth_token=BHqbrTjsPcyvaAsfDwfU149aAcZjtw45nhLBeG1c i m not getting above URL having oauth_verifier. please tell me from where do i see/debug that url??

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  • Jquery getJSON() doesn't work when trying to get data from java server on localhost

    - by bellesebastien
    The whole day yesterday I've been trying to solve this but it's proven to be very challenging for me. I'm trying to use this JS to get information from a java application I wrote. $(document).ready(function() { $.getJSON('http://localhost/custest?callback=?', function(json) { alert('OK'); $('.result').html(json.description); }); }); The Java application uses httpServer and is very basic. When I access the page 'http://localhost/custest?callback=?' with Firefox, the browser shows me the server is sending me json data and asks with what to open it with, but when I try it from a webpage using the JS above it doesn't work. The getJSON call is not successful, the alert("ok") doesn't popup at all. If it replace "http://localhost/custest?callback=?" in the JS with "http://twitter.com/users/usejquery.json?callback=?" everything works fine. An interesting thing is that if I send malformed JSON from my java server Firebug gives an error and tells me what is missing from the JSON so that mean the browser is receiving the JSON data, but when I send it correct a JSON string nothing happens, no errors, not even the alert() opens. I'm adding the headers in case you think these could be relevant. http://localhost/custest?callback=jsonp1274691110349 GET /custest?callback=jsonp1274691110349 HTTP/1.1 Host: localhost User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept: */* Accept-Language: en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive: 115 Connection: keep-alive HTTP/1.1 200 OK Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: application/json Thanks for your help

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  • how to fix gateway timeout error in php???

    - by developer
    Iam having a php file that sends text messages on mobile to all the users that i have in my database's particular table. Now the entries are like 2000 or so in number and this number will keep on increasing. On my page there is a small form that selects a list of the users to whom message is to be sent from a drop down and then user writes the text to be sent in a textarea and then on clicking the submit button php script stars sending the messages to mobile numbers. Now while trying to send messages my browser has shown gateway timeout error but the script kept on running and messages are sent to the mobiles but not once but 6 times. I checked my script my query and all the code is correct.This all happened coz of that gateway timeout. Now does this gateway timeout kepts the script running again and again till the browser is not closed?? is this was the reason that a single message was sent 6 times to mobile numbers?? I mean how can i escape my file from getting this gateway error so that one message is sent only one time to a number??

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  • Retrieving image from database using Ajax

    - by ama
    I'm trying to read image from database with Ajax, but I could not read the xmlhttp.responseText to the img src. The image is saved as binary data in database and also retrieved as binary data. I'm using Ajax in JSP, because I want to give the user the ability to upload images and I will view the last uploaded image, on mouse over action the Ajax will be activated and get the image back, the problem is in reading the img from the response. This is the Ajax function: function ajaxFunction(path) { if (xmlhttp) { var s = path; xmlhttp.open("GET", s, true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = handleServerResponse; xmlhttp.send(null); } } function handleServerResponse() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4) { var Image = document.getElementById(Image_Element_Name); document.getElementById(Image_Element_Name).src = "data:" + xmlhttp.responseText; } } I also got exception in the server: 10415315 [TP-Processor1] WARN core.MsgContext - Error sending end packet java.net.SocketException: Broken pipe at java.net.SocketOutputStream.socketWrite0(Native Method) at java.net.SocketOutputStream.socketWrite(SocketOutputStream.java:92) at java.net.SocketOutputStream.write(SocketOutputStream.java:136) at org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.send(ChannelSocket.java:537) at org.apache.jk.common.JkInputStream.endMessage(JkInputStream.java:127) at org.apache.jk.core.MsgContext.action(MsgContext.java:302) at org.apache.coyote.Response.action(Response.java:183) at org.apache.coyote.Response.finish(Response.java:305) at org.apache.catalina.connector.OutputBuffer.close(OutputBuffer.java:281) at org.apache.catalina.connector.Response.finishResponse(Response.java:478) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:154) at org.apache.jk.server.JkCoyoteHandler.invoke(JkCoyoteHandler.java:200) at org.apache.jk.common.HandlerRequest.invoke(HandlerRequest.java:283) at org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.invoke(ChannelSocket.java:773) at org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket.processConnection(ChannelSocket.java:703) at org.apache.jk.common.ChannelSocket$SocketConnection.runIt(ChannelSocket.java:895) at org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool$ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:685) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) 10415316 [TP-Processor1] WARN common.ChannelSocket - processCallbacks status 2

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  • Ruby send mail with smtp

    - by songdogtech
    I'm trying to send simple email via Ruby (no rails) on OS X, with XCode (which installs Ruby.) But I'm running into a problem with my smtp server which requires the email client to check mail before sending as a form of authentication. So with the script below I get an error: 500 Unrecognized command (Net::SMTPAuthenticationError). How can I get Ruby to authenticate with the smtp server in a "POP" fashion before I can send mail? Not download mail; I only want to send, but I have to check mail before I send. POP3 is not available at the smtp server. And I want to not have to install any other Ruby pieces and stay with using net/smtp, if at all possible. require 'net/smtp' message = <<MESSAGE_END From: A Test Sender <[email protected]> To: A Test User <[email protected]> Subject: e-mail test This is a test e-mail message. MESSAGE_END Net::SMTP.start('mail.domain.com', 25, 'localhost', '[email protected]', 'password', :plain)

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • What AOP tools exist for doing aspect-oriented programming at the assembly language level against x8

    - by JohnnySoftware
    Looking for a tool I can use to do aspect-oriented programming at the assembly language level. For experimentation purposes, I would like the code weaver to operate native application level executable and dynamic link libraries. I have already done object-oriented AOP. I know assembly language for x86 and so forth. I would like to be able to do logging and other sorts of things using the familiar before/after/around constructs. I would like to be able to specify certain instructions or sequences/patterns of consecutive instructions as what to do a pointcut on since assembly/machine language is not exactly the most semantically rich computer language on the planet. If debugger and linker symbols are available, naturally, I would like to be able to use them to identify subroutines' entry points , branch/call/jump target addresses, symbolic data addresses, etc. I would like the ability to send notifications out to other diagnostic tools. Thus, support for sending data through connection-oriented sockets and datagrams is highly desirable. So is normal logging to files, UI, etc. This can be done using the action part of an aspect to make a function call, but then there are portability issues so the tool needs to support a flexible, well-abstracted logging/notifying mechanism with a clean, simple yet flexible. The goal is rapid-QA. The idea is to be able to share aspect source code braodly within communties as well as publicly. So, there needs to be a declarative security policy file that users can share. This insures that nothing untoward that is hidden directly or indirectly in an aspect source file slips by the execution manager. The policy file format needs to be simple to read, write, modify, understand, type-in, edit, and generate. Sort of like Java .policy files. Think the exact opposite of anything resembling XML Schema files and you get the idea. Is there such a tool in existence already?

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  • How can I process an image in .NET for a full-page print with a quality like Windows Photo Gallery d

    - by Triynko
    I'm writing a printing routing in C#, using the .NET PrintDocument class, handling the OnPrintPage event. I've managed to maximize the margins and print the Image in landscape mode, but it simply does not look as good as when I print the same image file from Windows Photo Gallery (formerly Windows Picture and Fax Viewer), the default image preview program in Windows Vista. I noticed an option there for selecting "Sharpen Image for Printing", but what does that do? I've thought about printing copies of the image from Windows Photo Gallery first, then sending the sheets through the printer a second time to print the custom overlays I need, but it's hard to make it line up every time, since the printer sucks the sheet in without the kind of precision I need... so I really need to do ALL the drawing commands within C#, including the image. Does anyone know how to perform pre-processing on the bitmap so that it prints as nicely as Windows Photo Gallery does it? Are there any simple print drivers that can intercept Photo Gallery printing output as a standard image file (bmp, png, etc.) that can be read by the .NET Image class? I'm all for creativity here.

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  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

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  • Java design: too many getters

    - by dege
    After writing a few lesser programs when learning Java the way I've designed the programs is with Model-View-Control. With using MVC I have a plethora of getter methods in the model for the view to use. It feels that while I gain on using MVC, for every new value added I have to add two new methods in the model which quickly get all cluttered with getter & setters. So I was thinking, maybe I should use the notifyObserver method that takes an argument. But wouldn't feel very smart to send every value by itself either so I figured, maybe if I send a kind of container with all the values, preferably only those that actually changed. What this would accomplish would be that instead of having a whole lot of getter methods I could just have one method in the model which put all relevant values in the container. Then in the view I would have a method called from the update which extracted the values from the container and assigning them to the correct fields. I have two questions concerning this. First: is this actually a viable way to do this. Would you recommend me doing something along these lines? Secondly: if I do use this plan and I don't want to keep sending fields that didn't actually change. How would I handle that without having to have if statements to check if the value is not null for every single value?

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  • iPhone POST to PHP failing

    - by Alexander
    I have this code here: NSString *post = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"deviceIdentifier=%@&deviceToken=%@",deviceIdentifier,deviceToken]; NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:NO]; NSString *postLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [postData length]]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://website.com/RegisterScript.php"]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [request setValue:postLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [request setValue:@"application/x-www-form-urlencoded" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [request setValue:@"MyApp-V1.0" forHTTPHeaderField:@"User-Agent"]; [request setHTTPBody:postData]; NSData *urlData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:nil error:nil]; NSString *response = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:urlData encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; which should be sending data to my PHP server to register the device into our database, but for some of my users no POST data is being sent. I've been told that this line: NSData *postData = [post dataUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding allowLossyConversion:NO]; may be causing the problem. Any thoughts on why this script would sometimes not send the POST data? On the server I got the packet trace for a failed send and the Content-lenght came up as 0 so no data was sent at all. Thanks for any help

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  • Using both chunked transfer encoding and gzip

    - by RadiantHeart
    I recently started using gzip on my site and it worked like charm on all browsers except Opera which gives an error saying it could not decompress the content due to damaged data. From what I can gather from testing and googling it might be a problem with using both gzip and chunked transfer encoding. The fact that there is no error when requesting small files like css-files also points in that direction. Is this a known issue or is there something else that I havent thought about? Someone also mentioned that it could have something to do with sending a Content-Length header. Here is a simplified version of the most relevant part of my code: $contents = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); header('Content-Encoding: '.$encoding); print("\x1f\x8b\x08\x00\x00\x00\x00\x00"); $size = strlen($contents); $contents = gzcompress($contents, 9); $contents = substr($contents, 0, $size); print($contents); exit();

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  • How does overlayViewTouched notification work in the MoviePlayer sample code

    - by Jonathan
    Hi, I have a question regarding the MoviePlayer sample code provided by apple. I don't understand how the overlayViewTouch notification works. The NSlog message I added to it does not get sent when I touch the view (not button). // post the "overlayViewTouch" notification and will send // the overlayViewTouches: message - (void)overlayViewTouches:(NSNotification *)notification { NSLog(@"overlay view touched"); // Handle touches to the overlay view (MyOverlayView) here... } I can, however, get the NSlog notification if I place it in -(void)touchesBegan in "MyOverlayView.m". Which makes me think it is recognizing touches but not sending a notification. // Handle any touches to the overlay view - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch* touch = [touches anyObject]; if (touch.phase == UITouchPhaseBegan) { NSLog(@"overlay touched(from touchesBegan") // IMPORTANT: // Touches to the overlay view are being handled using // two different techniques as described here: // // 1. Touches to the overlay view (not in the button) // // On touches to the view we will post a notification // "overlayViewTouch". MyMovieViewController is registered // as an observer for this notification, and the // overlayViewTouches: method in MyMovieViewController // will be called. // // 2. Touches to the button // // Touches to the button in this same view will // trigger the MyMovieViewController overlayViewButtonPress: // action method instead. NSNotificationCenter *nc = [NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter]; [nc postNotificationName:OverlayViewTouchNotification object:nil]; } } Can anyone shed light on what I am missing or doing wrong? Thank you.

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  • Extend base type and automatically update audit information on Entity

    - by Nix
    I have an entity model that has audit information on every table (50+ tables) CreateDate CreateUser UpdateDate UpdateUser Currently we are programatically updating audit information. Ex: if(changed){ entity.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; entity.UpdatedBy = Environment.UserName; context.SaveChanges(); } But I am looking for a more automated solution. During save changes, if an entity is created/updated I would like to automatically update these fields before sending them to the database for storage. Any suggestion on how i could do this? I would prefer to not do any reflection, so using a text template is not out of the question. A solution has been proposed to override SaveChanges and do it there, but in order to achieve this i would either have to use reflection (in which I don't want to do ) or derive a base class. Assuming i go down this route how would I achieve this? For example EXAMPLE_DB_TABLE CODE NAME --Audit Tables CREATE_DATE CREATE_USER UPDATE_DATE UPDATE_USER And if i create a base class public abstract class IUpdatable{ public virtual DateTime CreateDate {set;} public virtual string CreateUser { set;} public virtual DateTime UpdateDate { set;} public virtual string UpdateUser { set;} } The end goal is to be able to do something like... public overrride void SaveChanges(){ //Go through state manager and update audit infromation //FOREACH changed entity in state manager if(entity is IUpdatable){ //If state is created... update create audit. //if state is updated... update update audit } } But I am not sure how I go about generating the code that would extend the interface.

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  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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  • Maximum page fetch with maximum bandwith

    - by Ehsan
    Hi I want to create an application like a spider I've implement fetching page as the following code in multi-thread application but there is two problem 1) I want to use my maximum bandwidth to send/receive request, how should I config my request to do so (Like Download Accelerator application and the like) cause I heard the normal application will use 66% of the available bandwidth. 2) I don't know what exactly HttpWebRequest.KeepAlive do, but as its name implies I think i can create a connection to a website and without closing the connection sending another request to that web site using existing connection. does it boost performance or Im wrong ?? public PageFetchResult Fetch() { PageFetchResult fetchResult = new PageFetchResult(); try { HttpWebRequest req = (HttpWebRequest)HttpWebRequest.Create(URLAddress); HttpWebResponse resp = (HttpWebResponse)req.GetResponse(); Uri requestedURI = new Uri(URLAddress); Uri responseURI = resp.ResponseUri; string resultHTML = ""; byte[] reqHTML = ResponseAsBytes(resp); if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(FetchingEncoding)) resultHTML = Encoding.GetEncoding(FetchingEncoding).GetString(reqHTML); else if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(resp.CharacterSet)) resultHTML = Encoding.GetEncoding(resp.CharacterSet).GetString(reqHTML); req.Abort(); resp.Close(); fetchResult.IsOK = true; fetchResult.ResultHTML = resultHTML; } catch (Exception ex) { fetchResult.IsOK = false; fetchResult.ErrorMessage = ex.Message; } return fetchResult; }

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  • How to make a model instance read-only after saving it once?

    - by Ryszard Szopa
    One of the functionalities in a Django project I am writing is sending a newsletter. I have a model, Newsletter and a function, send_newsletter, which I have registered to listen to Newsletter's post_save signal. When the newsletter object is saved via the admin interface, send_newsletter checks if created is True, and if yes it actually sends the mail. However, it doesn't make much sense to edit a newsletter that has already been sent, for the obvious reasons. Is there a way of making the Newsletter object read-only once it has been saved? Edit: I know I can override the save method of the object to raise an error or do nothin if the object existed. However, I don't see the point of doing that. As for the former, I don't know where to catch that error and how to communicate the user the fact that the object wasn't saved. As for the latter, giving the user false feedback (the admin interface saying that the save succeded) doesn't seem like a Good Thing. What I really want is allow the user to use the Admin interface to write the newsletter and send it, and then browse the newsletters that have already been sent. I would like the admin interface to show the data for sent newsletters in an non-editable input box, without the "Save" button. Alternatively I would like the "Save" button to be inactive.

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  • How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

    - by Marcus Netter
    I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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  • Rest WebService error handling.

    - by Pratik
    Hi there, I am using RestWebservice for few basic operations , like creating/searching. The request xml looks something like this <customer> <name/> ..... </customer> For a successful operation I return the same customer XML with extra fields populated in it(eg. systemId etc which we blank in the request) . with Response.Status=2000 For an unsuccessful operation i return something like this with different error codes . e.g Response.Status = 422(Unprocessable entity) Response.Status= 500(Internal Server Error) and few others.. <errors> <error> An exception occurred while creating the customer</error> <error> blah argument is not valid.</error> </errors> Now i am not sure , whether this is the correct way of sending the errors to the client. Maybe it should be present in the header of the response. I will really appreciate any help. Thanks!

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  • VLC desktop streaming

    - by StackedCrooked
    Edit I stopped using VLC and switched to GMax FLV Encoder. It does a much better job IMO. Original post I am sending my desktop (screen) as an H264 video stream to another machine that saves it to a file using the follwoing command lines: Sender of the stream: vlc -I dummy --sout='#transcode{vcodec=h264,vb=512,scale=0.5} :rtp{mux=ts,dst=192.168.0.1,port=4444}' Receiver of the stream: vlc -I rc rtp://@:4444 --sout='#std{access=file,mux=ps,dst=/home/user/output.mp4}' --ipv4 This works, but there are a few issues: The file is not playable with most players. VLC is able to playback the file but with some weirdness: = it takes about 10 seconds before the playback actually begins. = seeking doesn't work. Can someone point me in the right direction on how to fix these issues? EDIT: I made a little progress. The initial delay in playback is because the player is waiting for a keyframe. By forcing the sender of the stream to create a new key-frame every 4 seconds I could decrease the delay: :screen-fps=10 --sout='#transcode{vcodec=h264,venc=x264{keyint=40},vb=512,scale=0.5} :rtp{mux=ts,dst=192.168.0.1,port=4444}' The seeking problem is not solved however, but I understand it a little better. The RTP stream is saved as a file in its original streaming format, which is normally not playable as a regular video file. VLC manages to play this file, but most other players don't. So I need to convert it to a regular video file. I am currently investigating whether I can do this with ffmpeg if I provide it with an SDP file for the recorded stream. All help is welcome!

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  • After Navigate2 Method returns S_OK Stuck at READYSTATE of READYSTATE_LOADING

    - by Stone Free
    I am working on a MFC Document View architecture application which has multiple documents and views and a tabbed window interface. I have been tasked with making an automatic switch to another tab on the press of the OK button in one of the other tabs. When the other tab is clicked on it uses a C++ wrapper over IWebBrowser2 to navigate to a specific web page. When this is done manually by clicking on the tab everything is fine and the webpage within the view loads successfully. In my first attempt at doing this the tab successfully switched in response to a call to AfxGetMainWnd()->SendMessageToDescendants(SOME_MESSAGE, ...); however by sending this windows message at the wrong point the application would crash once control returned because the chain of events caused the (modeless) dialog (*) that sent the message, to no longer exist. I then found the correct place to make the call, but now when the other tab is activated, it no longer displays the webpage as it should. To debug this problem I added code to check the READYSTATE in both the situation where it works and the situation where it does not. When the page fails to load (despite the call to Navigate2 returning S_OK), the READYSTATE just stays at READYSTATE_LOADING. Unfortunately now I am to many edits away from when I had it partially working. I have added TRACE statements to the most obvious events such as OnSetFocus, CView::OnActivateView but all traces come out in the same order despite the behaviour being different * hosted in the view

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  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • How do I get the F1-F12 keys to switch screens in gnu screen in cygwin when connecting via SSH?

    - by Mikey
    I'm connecting to a desktop running cygwin via SSH from the terminal app in Mac OS X. I have already started screen on the cygwin side and can connect to it over the SSH session. Furthermore, I have the following in the .screenrc file: bindkey -k k1 select 1 # F1 = screen 1 bindkey -k k2 select 2 # F2 = screen 2 bindkey -k k3 select 3 # F3 = screen 3 bindkey -k k4 select 4 # F4 = screen 4 bindkey -k k5 select 5 # F5 = screen 5 bindkey -k k6 select 6 # F6 = screen 6 bindkey -k k7 select 7 # F7 = screen 7 bindkey -k k8 select 8 # F8 = screen 8 bindkey -k k9 select 9 # F9 = screen 9 bindkey -k F1 prev # F11 = prev bindkey -k F2 next # F12 = next However, when I start multiple windows in screen and attempt to switch between them via the function keys, all I get is a beep. I have tried various settings for $TERM (e.g. ansi, cygwin, xterm-color, vt100) and they don't really seem to affect anything. I have verified that the terminal app is in fact sending the escape sequence for the function key that I'm expecting and that my bash shell (running inside screen) is receiving it. For example, for F1, it sends the following (hexdump is a perl script I wrote that takes STDIN in binmode and outputs it as a hexadecimal/ascii dump): % hexdump [press F1 and then hit ^D to terminate input] 00000000: 1b4f50 .OP If things were working correctly, I don't think bash should receive the escape sequence because screen should have caught it and turned it into a command. How do I get the function keys to work?

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  • Authentication Error 401.2

    - by priya2010
    I have an application buit partially in classic asp and in c#. The authentication used as per the config file is windows. This is perfectly working. Now I have to authenticate the users against active directory. (ie. if any AD users requesting my application, it should authenticate the user (on login page load) and redirect to the application home page instead of showing login page) The login page is an asp page and I created an aspx page where the login.asp page will be redirected during page load to autheticate with Active Directory. I hav e disabled anonymous access in IIS and currently used only Integrated Windows Authentication. Also given permission to "Authenticated Users" in Permissions. While trying to access the login.asp page I am getting the following error. You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials that you supplied because your Web browser is sending a WWW-Authenticate header field that the Web server is not configured to accept. Please try the following: Contact the Web site administrator if you believe you should be able to view this directory or page. Click the Refresh button to try again with different credentials. HTTP Error 401.2 - Unauthorized: Access is denied due to server configuration. Internet Information Services (IIS) Kindly help me to fix this issue. Thanks, Priya

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