Search Results

Search found 2993 results on 120 pages for 'distributed transactions'.

Page 16/120 | < Previous Page | 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23  | Next Page >

  • updating batches of data

    - by gaponte69
    I am using GridView in asp .net and editing data with edit command field property (as we know after updating the edited row, we automatically update the database), and I want to use transactions (with begin to commit statement - including rollback) to commit this update query in database, after clicking in some button (after some events for example), not automatically to insert or update the edited data from grid directly to the DB...so I want to save them somewhere temporary (even many edited rows - not just one row) and then to confirm the transaction - to update the real tables in database... Any suggestions are welcomed... I've used some good links, but very helpful, like: http://www.asp.net/learn/data-access/tutorial-63-cs.aspx http://www.asp.net/learn/data-access/tutorial-66-cs.aspx etc...

    Read the article

  • Does a TransactionScope that exists only to select data require a call to Complete()

    - by fordareh
    In order to select data from part of an application that isn't affected by dirty data, I create a TransactionScope that specifies a ReadUncommitted IsolationLevel as per the suggestion from Hanselman here. My question is, do I still need to execute the oTS.Complete() call at the end of the using block even if this transaction scope was not built for the purpose of bridging object dependencies across 2 databases during an Insert, Update, or Delete? Ex: List<string> oStrings = null; using (SomeDataContext oCtxt = new SomeDataContext (sConnStr)) using (TransactionScope oTS = new TransactionScope(TransactionScopeOption.Required, new TransactionOptions { IsolationLevel = System.Transactions.IsolationLevel.ReadUncommitted })) { oStrings = oCtxt.EStrings.ToList(); oTS.Complete(); }

    Read the article

  • Starting new transaction in Spring bean

    - by Marcus
    We have: @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED) public class MyClass implementes MyInterface { ... MyInterface has a single method: go(). When go() executes we start a new transaction which commits/rollbacks when the method is complete - this is fine. Now let's say in go() we call a private method in MyClass that has @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRES_NEW. It seems that Spring "ignores" the REQUIRES_NEW annotation and does not start a new transaction. I believe this is because Spring AOP operates on the interface level (MyInterface) and does not intercept any calls to MyClass methods. Is this correct? Is there any way to start a new transaction within the go() transaction? Is the only way to call another Spring managed bean that has transactions configured as REQUIRES_NEW? Update: Adding that when clients execute go() they do so via a reference to the interface, not the class: @Autowired MyInterface impl; impl.go();

    Read the article

  • Do we need Record Level Locking when we already have Transaction for online ordering? (of concert ti

    - by Jian Lin
    For online ordering of concert seat or airline ticket, do we need Record Level Locking or is Transaction good enough? For concert ticket (say, seat Number 20B), or airline ticket (even with overbooking, the limit is 210, for example), I think the website cannot lock any record or begin transaction when showing the ticket purchase screen. But after the user clicks "Confirm Purchase", then the server should Begin a Transaction, Purchase Seat Number 20B, and try to Commit. If another user already bought Seat 20B in a previous transaction, then it is the "Commit" part that the current transaction will fail? So... we don't need Record Level Locking? Do Transactions always go serialized (one after another), so that's why we can know for sure there is no "race condition"? In what situation is Record Level Locking needed then?

    Read the article

  • Preview result of update/insert query without comitting changes to database in MySQL?

    - by Camsoft
    I am writing a script to import CSV files into existing tables within my database. I decided to do the insert/update operations myself using PHP and INSERT/UPDATE statements, and not use MySQL's LOAD INFILE command, I have good reasons for this. What I would like to do is emulate the insert/update operations and display the results to the user, and then give them the option of confirming that this is OK, and then committing the changes to the database. I'm using InnoDB database engine with support for transactions. Not sure if this helps but was thinking down the line of insert/update, query data, display to user, then either commit or rollback transaction? Any advise would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Replacing objects, handling clones, dealing with write logs

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone, I'm dealing with a problem I can't figure out how to solve, and I'd love to hear some suggestions. [NOTE: I realise I'm asking several questions; however, answers need to take into account all of the issues, so I cannot split this into several questions] Here's the deal: I'm implementing a system that underlies user applications and that protect shared objects from concurrent accesses. The application programmer (whose application will run on top of my system) defines such shared objects like this: public class MyAtomicObject { // These are just examples of fields you may want to have in your class. public virtual int x { get; set; } public virtual List<int> list { get; set; } public virtual MyClassA objA { get; set; } public virtual MyClassB objB { get; set; } } As you can see they declare the fields of their class as auto-generated properties (auto-generated means they don't need to implement get and set). This is so that I can go in and extend their class and implement each get and set myself in order to handle possible concurrent accesses, etc. This is all well and good, but now it starts to get ugly: the application threads run transactions, like this: The thread signals it's starting a transaction. This means we now need to monitor its accesses to the fields of the atomic objects. The thread runs its code, possibly accessing fields for reading or writing. If there are accesses for writing, we'll hide them from the other transactions (other threads), and only make them visible in step 3. This is because the transaction may fail and have to roll back (undo) its updates, and in that case we don't want other threads to see its "dirty" data. The thread signals it wants to commit the transaction. If the commit is successful, the updates it made will now become visible to everyone else. Otherwise, the transaction will abort, the updates will remain invisible, and no one will ever know the transaction was there. So basically the concept of transaction is a series of accesses that appear to have happened atomically, that is, all at the same time, in the same instant, which would be the moment of successful commit. (This is as opposed to its updates becoming visible as it makes them) In order to hide the write accesses in step 2, I clone the accessed field (let's say it's the field list) and put it in the transaction's write log. After that, any time the transaction accesses list, it will actually be accessing the clone in its write log, and not the global copy everyone else sees. Like this, any changes it makes will be done to the (invisible) clone, not to the global copy. If in step 3 the commit is successful, the transaction should replace the global copy with the updated list it has in its write log, and then the changes become visible for everyone else at once. It would be something like this: myAtomicObject.list = updatedCloneOfListInTheWriteLog; Problem #1: possible references to the list. Let's say someone puts a reference to the global list in a dictionary. When I do... myAtomicObject.list = updatedCloneOfListInTheWriteLog; ...I'm just replacing the reference in the field list, but not the real object (I'm not overwriting the data), so in the dictionary we'll still have a reference to the old version of the list. A possible solution would be to overwrite the data (in the case of a list, empty the global list and add all the elements of the clone). More generically, I would need to copy the fields of one list to the other. I can do this with reflection, but that's not very pretty. Is there any other way to do it? Problem #2: even if problem #1 is solved, I still have a similar problem with the clone: the application programmer doesn't know I'm giving him a clone and not the global copy. What if he puts the clone in a dictionary? Then at commit there will be some references to the global copy and some to the clone, when in truth they should all point to the same object. I thought about providing a wrapper object that contains both the cloned list and a pointer to the global copy, but the programmer doesn't know about this wrapper, so they're not going to use the pointer at all. The wrapper would be like this: public class Wrapper<T> : T { // This would be the pointer to the global copy. The local data is contained in whatever fields the wrapper inherits from T. private T thisPtr; } I do need this wrapper for comparisons: if I have a dictionary that has an entry with the global copy as key, if I look it up with the clone, like this: dictionary[updatedCloneOfListInTheWriteLog] I need it to return the entry, that is, to think that updatedCloneOfListInTheWriteLog and the global copy are the same thing. For this, I can just override Equals, GetHashCode, operator== and operator!=, no problem. However I still don't know how to solve the case in which the programmer unknowingly inserts a reference to the clone in a dictionary. Problem #3: the wrapper must extend the class of the object it wraps (if it's wrapping MyClassA, it must extend MyClassA) so that it's accepted wherever an object of that class (MyClass) would be accepted. However, that class (MyClassA) may be final. This is pretty horrible :$. Any suggestions? I don't need to use a wrapper, anything you can think of is fine. What I cannot change is the write log (I need to have a write log) and the fact that the programmer doesn't know about the clone. I hope I've made some sense. Feel free to ask for more info if something needs some clearing up. Thanks so much!

    Read the article

  • Does a rollback still occur if I use begin...rescue and an error occurs?

    - by codeman73
    I've got some strange errors happening in my rails app and I'm trying to log better errors instead of the whole stack of passenger stuff that I don't care about. I thought I would do this with a Rescue clause and explicit error handling, like logging the params hash. But I'm concerned if this would interrupt any rollback that is happening. For that matter, I'm assuming rollbacks automatically occur when an error occurs as part of the normal rails error handling, but I haven't been able to find that documented anywhere. I'm using Dreamhost with MySQL, so I thought transactions and rollbacks were happening there.

    Read the article

  • Emulating a transaction-safe SEQUENCE in MySQL

    - by Michael Pliskin
    We're using MySQL with InnoDB storage engine and transactions a lot, and we've run into a problem: we need a nice way to emulate Oracle's SEQUENCEs in MySQL. The requirements are: - concurrency support - transaction safety - max performance (meaning minimizing locks and deadlocks) We don't care if some of the values won't be used, i.e. gaps in sequence are ok. There is an easy way to archieve that by creating a separate InnoDB table with a counter, however this means it will take part in transaction and will introduce locks and waiting. I am thinking to try a MyISAM table with manual locks, any other ideas or best practices?

    Read the article

  • Rails Rspec testing not saving a transactional model

    - by NolanDC
    I'm currently testing my Rails controllers using RSpec. In one controller, I have a model that uses transactions, so that it will not be saved unless another nested model (whose data is filled in using fields_for) is also saved correctly. The tests hit a snag when they reach the transaction. Some debugging output proves that the model is valid and ready to save. However, upon entering the transaction block, the model does not save. Even stranger, the code never reaches the else clause of "if model.save" (It does, however, enter the transaction block). I can only assume this is a problem with my testing a transactional model. Any ideas/hints/solutions?

    Read the article

  • Updating counters through Hibernate

    - by at
    This is an extremely common situation, so I'm expecting a good solution. Basically we need to update counters in our tables. As an example a web page visit: Web_Page -------- Id Url Visit_Count So in hibernate, we might have this code: webPage.setVisitCount(webPage.getVisitCount()+1); The problem there is reads in mysql by default don't pay attention to transactions. So a highly trafficked webpage will have inaccurate counts. The way I'm used to doing this type of thing is simply call: update Web_Page set Visit_Count=Visit_Count+1 where Id=12345; I guess my question is, how do I do that in Hibernate? And secondly, how can I do an update like this in Hibernate which is a bit more complex? update Web_Page wp set wp.Visit_Count=(select stats.Visits from Statistics stats where stats.Web_Page_Id=wp.Id) + 1 where Id=12345;

    Read the article

  • Does beginTransaction in Hibernate allocate a new DB connection?

    - by illscience
    Hi folks - Just wondering if beginning a new transaction in Hibernate actually allocates a connection to the DB? I'm concerned b/c our server begins a new transaction for each request received, even if that request doesn't interact with the DB. We're seeing DB connections as a major bottleneck, so I'm wondering if I should take the time narrow the scope of my transactions. Searched everywhere and haven't been able to find a good answer. The very simple code is here: SessionFactory sessionFactory = (SessionFactory) Context.getContext().getBean("sessionFactory"); sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().beginTransaction(); sessionFactory.getCurrentSession().setFlushMode(FlushMode.AUTO); thanks very much! a

    Read the article

  • Are there any benefits to using a Distributed vSwitch for iSCSI?

    - by dunxd
    I am designing our vSphere farm - we'll be migrating from ESX 3.5 to 4.1. I plan to set up a new farm using ESXi 4.1, and move the Virtual Machines on the 3.5 farm into it by shutdown, then import. In ESX 3.5 there is no distributed networking, so each host has a vSwitch connected to my SAN NICs, and a port group for the vmkernel. In vSphere (ESXi 4.1) I have the extra option to set up a distributed vSwitch and distributed port groups for vmkernel to access iSCSI storage. Is there any benefit to this, or should I stick to non-distributed networking for iSCSI.

    Read the article

  • Azure : Mobiles Services et Web Sites entrent en production, l'infrastructure stocke 8,5 trillions d'objets et gère 900 000 transactions par seconde

    Windows Azure : Mobiles Services et Web Sites entrent en production L'infrastructure stocke 8,5 trillions d'objets et gère 900 000 transactions par secondeDisponible en Preview depuis août 2012, Windows Azure Mobiles Services est passé en disponibilité générale (GA) avec Windows Azure Web Sites. Une étape qui marque l'entrée de ces services en phase de production. Pour rappel, Windows Azure Mobile Services est une plateforme Backend as a service (BaaS), qui fournit une solution clef en main dans le Cloud, permettant d'accélérer le développement d'applications connectées côté client.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't TransactionScope work with Entity Framework?

    - by NotDan
    See the code below. If I initialize more than one entity context, then I get the following exception on the 2nd set of code only. If I comment out the second set it works. {"The underlying provider failed on Open."} Inner: {"Communication with the underlying transaction manager has failed."} Inner: {"Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM component."} Note that this is a sample app and I know it doesn't make sense to create 2 contexts in a row. However, the production code does have reason to create multiple contexts in the same TransactionScope, and this cannot be changed. Edit Here is a previous question of me trying to set up MS-DTC. It seems to be enabled on both the server and the client. I'm not sure if it is set up correctly. Also note that one of the reasons I am trying to do this, is that existing code within the TransactionScope uses ADO.NET and Linq 2 Sql... I would like those to use the same transaction also. (That probably sounds crazy, but I need to make it work if possible). http://stackoverflow.com/questions/794364/how-do-i-use-transactionscope-in-c Solution Windows Firewall was blocking the connections to MS-DTC. using(TransactionScope ts = new System.Transactions.TransactionScope()) { using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { var v = (from s in o.Advertiser select s).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> By commenting out this section, it works using (DatabaseEntityModel o = new DatabaseEntityModel()) { //Exception on this next line var v = (from s1 in o.Advertiser select s1).First(); v.AcceptableLength = 1; o.SaveChanges(); } //-> ts.Complete(); }

    Read the article

  • Lost Update Anomaly in Sql Server Update Command

    - by Javed
    Hi, I am very much confused. I have a transaction in ReadCommitted Isolation level. Among other things I am also updating a counter value in it, something similar to below: Update tblCount set counter = counter + 1 My application is a desktop application and this transaction happens to occur quite frequently and concurrently. We recently noticed an error that sometimes the counter value doesn't get updated or is missed. We also insert one record on each counter update so we are sure that records have been inserted but somehow counter fails to update. This happens once in 2000 simulaneous transactions. I seriously doubt it is a lost update anomaly I am facing but if you look at the command above, it's just update the counter from its own value: if I have started a transaction and the transaction has reached this statement, it should have locked the row. This should not cause lost update, but it's happening somehow. Is the thing that this update command works in two parts? Like first it reads the counter value (during which it doesn't get the exclusive lock) and then writes the new calculated value (when it does get an exclusive lock)? Please help, I have got really confused.

    Read the article

  • how to atomically claim a row or resource using UPDATE in mysql

    - by Igor
    i have a table of resources (lets say cars) which i want to claim atomically. if there's a limit of one resource per one user, i can do the following trick: UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE user IS NULL LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM cars WHERE user IS bob that way, i claim the resource atomically and then i can see which row i just claimed. this doesn't work when 'bob' can claim multiple cars. i realize i can get a list of cars already claimed by bob, claim another one, and then SELECT again to see what's changed, but that feels hackish. What I'm wondering is, is there some way to see which rows i just updated with my last UPDATE? failing that, is there some other trick to atomically claiming a row? i really want to avoid using SERIALIZABLE isolation level. If I do something like this: 1 SELECT id FROM cars WHERE user IS NULL 2 <here, my PHP or whatever picks a car id> 3 UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE id = <the one i picked> would REPEATABLE READ be sufficient here? in other words, could i be guaranteed that some other transactions won't claim the row my software has picked during step 2?

    Read the article

  • Blocking on DBCP connection pool (open and close connnection). Is database connection pooling in OpenEJB pluggable?

    - by topchef
    We use OpenEJB on Tomcat (used to run on JBoss, Weblogic, etc.). While running load tests we experience significant performance problems with handling JMS messages (queues). Problem was localized to blocking on database connection pool getting or releasing connection to the pool. Blocking prevented concurrent MDB instances (threads) from running hence performance suffered 10-fold and worse. The same code used to run on application servers (with their respective connection pool implementations) with no blocking at all. Example of thread blocked: Name: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-23 State: BLOCKED on org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool@1ea6b4a owned by: JMS Resource Adapter-worker-19 Total blocked: 18,426 Total waited: 0 Stack trace: org.apache.commons.pool.impl.GenericObjectPool.returnObject(GenericObjectPool.java:916) org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection.close(PoolableConnection.java:91) - locked org.apache.commons.dbcp.PoolableConnection@1bcba8 org.apache.commons.dbcp.managed.ManagedConnection.close(ManagedConnection.java:147) com.xxxxx.persistence.DbHelper.closeConnection(DbHelper.java:290) .... Couple of questions. I am almost certain that some transactional attributes and properties contribute to this blocking, but MDBs are defined as non-transactional (we use both annotations and ejb-jar.xml). Some EJBs do use container-managed transactions though (and we can observe blocking there as well). Are there any DBCP configurations that may fix blocking? Is DBCP connection pool implementation replaceable in OpenEJB? How easy (difficult) to replace it with another library? Just in case this is how we define data source in OpenEJB (openejb.xml): <Resource id="MyDataSource" type="DataSource"> JdbcDriver oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleDriver JdbcUrl ${oracle.jdbc} UserName ${oracle.user} Password ${oracle.password} JtaManaged true InitialSize 5 MaxActive 30 ValidationQuery SELECT 1 FROM DUAL TestOnBorrow true </Resource>

    Read the article

  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

    Read the article

  • Spring - Transaction Readonly

    - by AAK
    Hello Gurus! Just wanted your expert opinions on declarative transaction management for Spring. Here is my setup - A. DAO Layer is Plain old JDBC using jdbcTemplete (No hibernate etc) B. Service Layer is POJO with declarative trasnactions as follows - save*, readonly=false, rollback for Throwable Things work fine with above setup. However when I say get*, readonly=true I see errors in my log file saying - Database connection cannot be marked as readonly. This happens for all get* methods in Service Layer. Now my questions - A. Do I have to say get* as readonly? All my get* methods are pure read DB operations. I do not wish to run them in any transaction context. How serious is the above error? B. When I remove the get* confiiguration, I do not see the errors, morever all my simple get* operations are performed without transactions. Is this the way to go? C. Why would anyone want to have transactional methods where readonly = true? Is there any practical significance of this configuration? Thank you! As always your resposes are much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • With NHibernate and Transaction do I rollback on commit failure or does it auto rollback on single c

    - by mattcodes
    I've built the following Dispose method for my Unit Of Work which essentially wraps the active NH session & transaction (transaction set as variable after opening session as to not be replaced if NH session gets new transaction after error) public void Dispose() { Func<ITransaction,bool> transactionStateOkayFunc = trans => trans != null && trans.IsActive && !trans.WasRolledBack; try { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(this.transaction)) { if (HasErrored) { transaction.Rollback(); } else { try { transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception) { if(transactionStateOkayFunc(transaction)) transaction.Rollback(); throw; } } } } finally { if(transaction != null) transaction.Dispose(); if(session.IsOpen) session.Close(); } I can't help feeling that code is a little bloated, will a transaction automatically rollback is a discrete Commit fails in the case of non-nested transactions? Will Commit or Rollback automatically Dipose the transaction? If not will Session.Close() automatically dispose the associated transaction?

    Read the article

  • wrapping user controls in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

    Read the article

  • wrapping aspx user controls commands in a transaction

    - by Hans Gruber
    I'm working on heavily dynamic and configurable CMS system. Therefore, many pages are composed of a dynamically loaded set of user controls. To enable loose coupling between containers (pages) and children (user controls), all user controls are responsible for their own persistence. Each User Control is wired up to its data/service layer dependencies via IoC. They also implement an IPersistable interface, which allows the container .aspx page to issue a Save command to its children without knowledge of the number or exact nature of these user controls. Note: what follows is only pseudo-code: public class MyUserControl : IPersistable, IValidatable { public void Save() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } public bool IsValid() { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } public partial class MyPage { public void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (IValidatable control in Controls) { if (!control.IsValid) { throw new Exception("error"); } } foreach (IPersistable control in Controls) { if (!control.Save) { throw new Exception("error"); } } } } I'm thinking of using declarative transactions from the System.EnterpriseService namespace to wrap the btnSave_Click in a transaction in case of an exception, but I'm not sure how this might be achieved or any pitfalls to such an approach.

    Read the article

  • Message driven bean not responding until client method is complete

    - by poijoi
    Hi, I have a MDB deployed on Jboss 4.2.2 and a client on the same server that produces messages and expects a reply from the MDB via a temporary queue created before the message is sent. When I run the client, I see that it creates the message, puts it in the queue and waits for the reply (no problem so far) ... but when I check in the logs I see that the timeout is reached and no response is received. When the timeout occurs and the client's method is complete the MDB starts processing the message that should have been processed the moment the client put it in the queue. As a consequence of this timing issue, when the MDB tries to reply to the temp queue, it fails since the client is already gone. If I run the same client from a remote server, I have no problem... The MDB picks up the message from the queue right away and the client receives its response right after the processing is complete. I'm using container managed transactions. I suspect it has something to do with that... I think the client's "send message/receive reply" might be all be considered a transaction before it commits to put the message in the queue... but I'm not sure if this is correct. If this is the case, why did I not see the same behavior from the remote client? is client managed transaction the default setting and that's what my remote server was using? Any idea how to fix this? Thanks in advance! PJ

    Read the article

  • Access DB Transaction Insert limit

    - by user986363
    Is there a limit to the amount of inserts you can do within an Access transaction before you need to commit or before Access/Jet throws an error? I'm currently running the following code in hopes to determine what this maximum is. OleDbConnection cn = new OleDbConnection( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=C:\temp\myAccessFile.accdb;Persist Security Info=False;"); try { cn.Open(); oleCommand = new OleDbCommand("BEGIN TRANSACTION", cn); oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); oleCommand.CommandText = "insert into [table1] (name) values ('1000000000001000000000000010000000000000')"; for (i = 0; i < 25000000; i++) { oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } oleCommand.CommandText = "COMMIT"; oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception ex) { } finally { try { oleCommand.CommandText = "COMMIT"; oleCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch{} if (cn.State != ConnectionState.Closed) { cn.Close(); } } The error I received on a production application when I reached 2,333,920 inserts in a single uncommited transaction was: "File sharing lock count exceeded. Increase MaxLocksPerFile registry entry". Disabling transactions fixed this problem.

    Read the article

  • Difference between SET autocommit=1 and START TRANSACTION in mysql (Have I missed something?)

    - by tkolar
    Hey there, I am reading up on transactions in mysql and am not sure whether I have grasped something specific correctly, and I want to be sure I understood that correctly, so here goes. I know what a transaction is supposed to do, I'm just not sure whether I understood the statement semantics or not. So, my question is, is anything wrong, (and, if that is the case, what is wrong) with the following: By default, autocommit mode is enabled in mysql. Now, SET autocommit=0; will begin a transaction, SET autocommit=1; will implicitly commit. It is possible to COMMIT; as well as ROLLBACK;, in both of which cases autocommit is still set to 0 afterwards (and a new transaction is implicitly started). START TRANSACTION; will basically SET autocommit=0; until a COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; takes place. In other words, START TRANSACTION; and SET autocommit=0; are equivalent, except for the fact that START TRANSACTION; does the equivalent of implicitly adding a SET autocommit=0; after COMMIT; or ROLLBACK; If that is the case, I don't understand http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.5/en/set-transaction.html#isolevel_serializable - seeing as having an isolation level implies that there is a transaction, meaning that autocommit should be off anyway? And if there is another difference (other than the one described above) between beginning a transaction and setting autocommit, what is it? Thanks a lot in advance for your help!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23  | Next Page >