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  • Should a Trim method generally in the Data Access Layer or with in the Domain Layer?

    - by jpierson
    I'm dealing with a database that contains data with inconsistencies such as white leading and trailing white space. In general I see a lot of developers practice defensive coding by trimming almost all strings that come from the database that may have been entered by a user at some point. In my oppinoin it is better to do such formating before data is persisted so that it is done only once and then the data can be in a consistent and reliable state. Unfortunatley this is not the case however which leads me to the next best solution, using a Trim method. If I trim all data as part of my data access layer then I don't have to concern myself with defensive trimming within the business objects of my domain layer. If I instead put the trimming responsibility in my business objects, such as with set accessors of my C# properties, I should get the same net results however the trim will be operating on all values assigned to my business objects properties not just the ones that come from the inconsistent database. I guess as a somewhat philisophical question that may determine the answer I could ask "Should the domain later be responsible for defensive/coercive formatting of data?" Would it make sense to have a set accessor for a PhoneNumber property on a business object accept a unformatted or formatted string and then attempt to format it as required or should this responsibility be pushed to the presentation and data access layers leaving the domain layer more strict in the type of data that it will accept? I think this may be the more fundamental question. Update: Below are a few links that I thought I should share about the topic of data cleansing. Information service patterns, Part 3: Data cleansing pattern LINQ to SQL - Format a string before saving? How to trim values using Linq to Sql?

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  • Behavior of local variables in JavaScripts with()-statement

    - by thr
    I noticed some weird (and to my knowledge undefined behavior, by the ECMA 3.0 Spec at least), take the following snippet: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); alert(bar); } alert(bar); It crashes in both Firefox and Chrome, because "bar" doesn't exist in the first alert(); statement, this is as expected. But if you add a declaration of bar inside the with()-statement, so it looks like this: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; alert(bar); } alert(bar); It will produce the following: undefined, 1, g2, undefined It seems as if you create a variable inside a with()-statement most browsers (tested on Chrome or Firefox) will make that variable exist outside that scope also, it's just set to undefined. Now from my perspective bar should only exist inside the with()-statement, and if you make the example even weirder: var foo = { bar: "1", baz: "2" }; var zoo; alert(bar); with(foo) { alert(bar); var bar = "g2"; zoo = function() { return bar; } alert(bar); } alert(bar); alert(zoo()); It will produce this: undefined, 1, g2, undefined, g2 So the bar inside the with()-statement does not exist outside of it, yet the runtime somehow "automagically" creates a variable named bar that is undefined in its top level scope (global or function) but this variable does not refer to the same one as inside the with()-statement, and that variable will only exist if a with()-statement has a variable named bar that is defined inside it. Very weird, and inconsistent. Anyone have an explanation for this behavior? There is nothing in the ECMA Spec about this.

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  • Pre-populate iPhone Safari SQLite DB

    - by Matt Rogish
    I'm working with a PhoneGap app that uses Safari local storage (SQlite DB) via Javascript: http://developer.apple.com/safari/library/documentation/iPhone/Conceptual/SafariJSDatabaseGuide/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase/UsingtheJavascriptDatabase.html On first load, the app creates the database, tables, and populates the data via a series of INSERT statements. If the user closes the app while this processing is happening, then my app database is left in an inconsistent state. What I prefer to do is deploy the SQLite DB as part of my iTunes App packaging so nothing must be populated at app cold start. However, I'm not sure if that is possible -- all of the google hits for this topic that I can find are referring to the core-data provided SQLite which is not what we're using... If it's not possible, could I wrap the entire thing in a transaction and keep re-trying it when the app is restarted? Failing that, I guess I can create a simple table with one boolean column "is_app_db_loaded?" and set it to true after I've processed all my inserts. But that's really gross... Ideas? Thanks!!

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  • Jaxb Simplify Plugin

    - by wrm
    i try to use the simplify plugin to simplify the generated code. I have a defined type: <xsd:complexType name="typeWithReferencesProperty"> <xsd:choice maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xsd:annotation> <xsd:appinfo> <simplify:as-element-property/> </xsd:appinfo> </xsd:annotation> <xsd:element name="a" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> <xsd:element name="b" type="AttributeValueIntegerType"/> </xsd:choice> </xsd:complexType> but it does not work, as it results in the following error: compiler was unable to honor this as-element-property customization. It is attached to a wrong place, or its inconsistent with other bindings. i used exactly the configuration, i also have other jaxb plugins which work, so i am not quite sure, if the plugin is broken or something? has anybody managed to get this running?

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • How to disable scaling in JFreeChart?

    - by Alex Arnon
    Hi All, We're using JFreeChart to build an engine to display graphs. This is a web service that runs on Tomcat + Java 1.5.0, and renders charts to PNGs and JPEGs (using ChartUtilities.writeChartAs{PNG,JPEG}() ). We've run into a problem where JFreeChart seems to scale everything inside the Plot area, but only by a few pixels. The result is that the graph looks inconsistent, e.g.: Minor ticks are sometimes stretched horizontally, so that they seem to be two pixels wide instead of one. We use a small image in the top-right of the plot area as a watermark. This is stretched by one pixel horizontally and vertically somewhere near (but not exactly) its middle. Background grid lines seem to appear on sub-pixel boundaries. I have not found a way to create an accurately dotted grid line. We have tried both 1.0.9 and 1.0.13, with exactly the same results (except for the minor ticks, which were not available in the older version). Also, rendering the image to a Frame instead of JPEG/PNG produced an identical result. Help is greatly appreciated, in advance :)

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  • Getting error when compiling debug mode: C++/CLI - error LNK2022

    - by Yochai Timmer
    I've got a CLI code wrapping a C++ DLL. When i try to compile it in debug mode, i get the following error: Error 22 error LNK2022: metadata operation failed (8013118D) : Inconsistent layout information induplicated types .... MSVCMRTD.lib (locale0_implib.obj) The weird thing is that on Release mode it compiles OK and works OK. The only difference i can see that causes the problem is when i change: Configuration Properties - C/C++ - Code Generation - Runtime Library When it's set to: Multi-threaded Debug DLL (/MDd) it throws the error. When it's set to: Multi-threaded DLL (/MD) it compiles fine. The same settings work for all the other DLLs in the project (CLI and C++) and they inherit the same properties. I'm using VS2010. So, how can i solve this ? And can I get some explanation to WHY this is happening ? Update: I've basically tried changing every option in the project's properties with no luck. I've read somewhere that this might be caused from duplicate declarations of a type of the same name. But in the CLI file i'm calling std::string etc. explicitly from std. Any other ideas ?

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • jQuery "best practices" is an oxymoron [closed]

    - by n00b
    jQuery "best practices", oxymoron for several reasons sadly To speak candidly, the entire jQuery library has a HIGHLY inconsistent API, and virtually no coding standards. It's basically a subset of JavaScript, a new language if you will, which is probably the most confusing part for normal javascript developers. In my opinion, use normal JavaScript where possible to save on memory consumption. Or, better yet, use a professional tool like YUI. If you already come from a javascript background, you will appreciate it much more than jQuery because it doesn't have n00b wrappers around everything. In tools like YUI, you interact directly with the native DOM to do things, instead of a super-jQuery object that tries to do everything. I'll get voted down for saying the truth. Don't get me wrong, jQuery is cool if you wanna throw something flashy up quick, but if you're going to build a larger app you're going to need a more refined tool (especially since jQuery leaks memory like no other once you start chaining too much things). jQuery does have one of the lowest learning curves, and you won't outgrow it for awhile, but when you do it will be highly apparent and tedious to merge to something else. over 60 years programming experience someone clean this up and community wiki please

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  • Does .Net use Device Dependent or Device Independent Bitmaps?

    - by Brian
    When loading an image into memory, does .Net use DDB, DIB, or something else entirely? If possible, please cite your sources. I'm wondering because we currently have a classic ASP application that is using a 3rd party component to load images that is occasionally creating a “Not enough storage is available to process this command.” error. The error is very inconsistent but tends to happen on larger images (not always, but often). After resetting IIS, processing the same file again typically works just fine. After much research I have found that DDBs tend to have this problem when processing large images because they work out of video memory. Considering that we are running on a web server with an integrated video card and limited shared memory, this could certainly be our problem. We are in the early stages of converting our app to .Net and am wondering if using .Net for this might be a viable alternative to our current method which is why I am asking the question. Any advice is welcome :) but out of curiosity if nothing else, I am really hoping for an answer to the question; does .Net use DDB or DIB?

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  • WCF Multiple Service Configuration Issue

    - by Goober
    Scenario Ignoring that fact that some of the settings might be wrong and inconsistent. Why does the program fail to compile when I try and put these 2 separate configurations for WCF Services into the same APP.CONFIG file? One was writen by myself and another by a friend, yet I cannot get the application to compile. What have I missed? ERROR Type Initialization Exception CODE <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <!--START Service 1 CONFIGURATION--> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="tcpServiceEndPoint" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:05:00" enabled="true" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="tcpServiceEndPoint" contract="ListenerService.IListenerService" name="tcpServiceEndPoint" /> </client> <!--END Service 1 CONFIGURATION-->

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  • Syncing two AS3 NetStreams

    - by Lowgain
    I'm writing an app that requires an audio stream to be recording while a backing track is played. I have this working, but there is an inconsistent gap in between playback and record starting. I don't know if I can do anything to make the sync perfect every time, so I've been trying to track what time each stream starts so I can calculate the delay and trim it server-side. This also has proved to be a challenge as no events seem to be sent when a connection starts (as far as I know). I've tried using various properties like the streams' buffer sizes, etc. I'm thinking now that as my recorded audio is only mono, I may be able to put some kind of 'control signal' on the second stereo track which I could use to determine exactly when a sound starts recording (or stick the whole backing track in that channel so I can sync them that way). This leaves me with the new problem of properly injecting this sound into the NetStream. If anyone has any idea whether or not any of these ideas will work, how to execute them, or some alternatives, that would be extremely helpful! Been working on this issue for awhile

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • Rails log shows unexpected data as to the time spent on a DB stuff

    - by Arhimed
    I'm running on WinXP + Ruby 1.8.6 + Rails 2.3.5 (frozen to the project) in development environment. Looking at development.log I observe inconsistent data as to the time spent on a database stuff. Example #1 (good): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:54) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (563.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (15.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 953ms (DB: 578) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 12:15:36) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (0.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (0.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 47ms (DB: 32) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #2 shows 32ms were spent on DB while there were just 2 sql querries and both of zero time spent. Example #3 (unexpected): Processing PagesController#index (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-05-11 11:21:24) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"index", "controller"=>"pages"} City Columns (63.0ms) SHOW FIELDS FROM `cities` City Load (62.0ms) SELECT * FROM `cities` WHERE (`cities`.`short_name` = 'NY') LIMIT 1 Redirected to http://xyz:3000/sightings Completed in 1187ms (DB: 297) | 302 Found [http://xyz/] Example #3 shows 297ms while there were querries of 63ms and 62ms (125ms in total). Can't understand it. Could someone explain? Thanks in advance.

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  • Simple question about the lunarlander example.

    - by Smills
    I am basing my game off the lunarlander example. This is the run loop I am using (very similar to what is used in lunarlander). I am getting considerable performance issues associated with my drawing, even if I draw almost nothing. I noticed the below method. Why is the canvas being created and set to null each cycle? @Override public void run() { while (mRun) { Canvas c = null; try { c = mSurfaceHolder.lockCanvas();//null synchronized (mSurfaceHolder) { updatePhysics(); doDraw(c); } } finally { // do this in a finally so that if an exception is thrown // during the above, we don't leave the Surface in an // inconsistent state if (c != null) { mSurfaceHolder.unlockCanvasAndPost(c); } } } } Most of the times I have read anything about canvases it is more along the lines of: mField = new Bitmap(...dimensions...); Canvas c = new Canvas(mField); My question is: why is Google's example done that way (null canvas), what are the benefits of this, and is there a faster way to do it?

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  • How to compensate the flipped coordinate system of core graphics for easy drawing?

    - by mystify
    It's really a pain, but always when I draw an UIImage in -drawRect:, it's upside-down. When I flip the coordinates, the image draws correctly, but at the cost of all other CG functions drawing "wrong" (flipped). What's your strategy when you have to draw images and other things? Is there any rule of thumb how to not get stuck in this problem over and over again? Also, one nasty thing when I flip the y-axis is, that my CGRect from the UIImageView frame is wrong. Instead of the origin appearing at 10,10 upper left as expected, it appears at the bottom. But at the same time, all those normal line drawing functions of CGContext take correct coordinates. drawing a line in -drawRect with origin 10,10 upper left, will really start at upper left. But at the same time that's strange, because core graphics actually has a flipped coordinate system with y 0 at the bottom. So it seems like something is really inconsistent there. Drawing with CGContext functions takes coordinates as "expected" (cmon, nobody thinks in coordinates starting from bottom left, that's silly), while drawing any kind of image still works the "wrong" way. Do you use helper methods to draw images? Or is there anything useful that makes image drawing not a pain in the butt?

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  • What is a mantainable way of saving "star rating" in a database?

    - by Montecristo
    I'll use the jQuery plugin for presenting the user with a nice interface The request is to display 5 stars, up to a total score of 10 (2 points per star). By now I thought about using 7/10 as a format for that value, but what if at some point in the future I'll receive a request like We would like to give users more choice, let's increase the total score to 20 (so that each star contributes with a maximum of 4 points) I'll end up with a table with mixed values for the "star rating" column: some will be like 7/10 while others will be like 14/20. Is it ok for you to have this difference in the database and deal with it in the logic layer to have it consistent? Or is preferred another way so that querying the table will not result in inconsistent results outside the application? Maybe floating point values could help me, is it better to store that value as a number less than or equal to one? So in each of the two examples the resulting value stored in the database would be 0,7, as a number, not a varchar, which can be queried also outside the application. What do you think?

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  • Why is T() = T() allowed?

    - by Rimo
    I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

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  • Problems with binding to Window Height and Width

    - by D.H.
    I have some problems when I try to bind the height and width of a window to properties in my view model. Here is a small sample app to illustrate the problem. This is the code in app.xaml.xs public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); MainWindow mainWindow = new MainWindow(); MainWindowViewModel mainWindowViewModel = new MainWindowViewModel(); mainWindow.DataContext = mainWindowViewModel; mainWindow.Show(); } } This is MainWindow.xaml: <Window x:Class="TestApp.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="{Binding WindowHeight}" Width="{Binding WindowWidth}" BorderThickness="{Binding WindowBorderThickness}"> </Window> And this is the view model: public class MainWindowViewModel { public int WindowWidth { get { return 100; } } public int WindowHeight { get { return 200; } } public int WindowBorderThickness { get { return 8; } } } When the program is started the getters of WindowHeight and WindowBorderThickness (but not WindowWidth) are called, so the height and the border of the window is set properly, but not the width. I then add button that will trigger PropertyChanged for all properties, so that the view model now looks like this: public class MainWindowViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; public void TriggerPropertyChanges() { if (PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowWidth")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowHeight")); PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs("WindowBorderThickness")); } } public ICommand ButtonCommand { get { return new RelayCommand(delegate { TriggerPropertyChanges(); }); } } public int WindowWidth { get { return 100; } } public int WindowHeight { get { return 200; } } public int WindowBorderThickness { get { return 8; } } } Now, when I click the button, the getter of WindowBorderThickness is called, but not the ones for WindowWidth and WindowHeight. It all just seems very weird and inconsistent to me. What am I missing?

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  • What C# container is most resource-efficient for existence for only one operation?

    - by ccornet
    I find myself often with a situation where I need to perform an operation on a set of properties. The operation can be anything from checking if a particular property matches anything in the set to a single iteration of actions. Sometimes the set is dynamically generated when the function is called, some built with a simple LINQ statement, other times it is a hard-coded set that will always remain the same. But one constant always exists: the set only exists for one single operation and has no use before or after it. My problem is, I have so many points in my application where this is necessary, but I appear to be very, very inconsistent in how I store these sets. Some of them are arrays, some are lists, and just now I've found a couple linked lists. Now, none of the operations I'm specifically concerned about have to care about indices, container size, order, or any other functionality that is bestowed by any of the individual container types. I picked resource efficiency because it's a better idea than flipping coins. I figured, since array size is configured and it's a very elementary container, that might be my best choice, but I figure it is a better idea to ask around. Alternatively, if there's a better choice not out of resource-efficiency but strictly as being a better choice for this kind of situation, that would be nice as well.

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  • jsf and eclipse setup. Lib in Explorer is different than lib in tomcat. How come?

    - by user384706
    Hi, I am starter in JSF2.0, and I have a question related to Eclipse (I am using Helios). 1)I create a Dynamic Project 2)I add JSF project facet. 3)I choose JSF user library (I have created it using MyFaces) All ok so far. I notice though that in the Project Explorer in WebContent/WEB-INF/lib the lib directory is empty instead of having MyFaces jars. The application works fine though. I looked into this and the jars are actually being placed in the corresponding lib directory of the app deployed under wtpwebapps of the Tomcat instance of eclipse in the .pluggins directory. Ok, it works but IMHO it is incorrect to have the Project Explorer inconsistent with the directories actually deployed. I.e. lib is shown empty in Project Explorer but with jars under wtpwebapps. Am I wrong to dislike this inconsistency? Is this how it should work or am I doing something wrong in the way I am setting my project? Thanks!

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  • Basic user authentication with records in AngularFire

    - by ajkochanowicz
    Having spent literally days trying the different, various recommended ways to do this, I've landed on what I think is the most simple and promising. Also thanks to the kind gents from this SO question: Get the index ID of an item in Firebase AngularFire Curent setup Users can log in with email and social networks, so when they create a record, it saves the userId as a sort of foreign key. Good so far. But I want to create a rule so twitter2934392 cannot read facebook63203497's records. Off to the security panel Match the IDs on the backend Unfortunately, the docs are inconsistent with the method from is firebase user id unique per provider (facebook, twitter, password) which suggest appending the social network to the ID. The docs expect you to create a different rule for each of the login method's ids. Why anyone using 1 login method would want to do that is beyond me. (From: https://www.firebase.com/docs/security/rule-expressions/auth.html) So I'll try to match the concatenated auth.provider with auth.id to the record in userId for the respective registry item. According to the API, this should be as easy as In my case using $registry instead of $user of course. { "rules": { ".read": true, ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "$registry == auth.id" } } } } But that won't work, because (see the first image above), AngularFire sets each record under an index value. In the image above, it's 0. Here's where things get complicated. Also, I can't test anything in the simulator, as I cannot edit {some: 'json'} To even authenticate. The input box rejects any input. My best guess is the following. { "rules": { ".write": true, "registry": { "$registry": { ".read": "data.child('userId').val() == (auth.provider + auth.id)" } } } } Which both throws authentication errors and simultaneously grants full read access to all users. I'm losing my mind. What am I supposed to do here?

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  • How often should network traffic/collisions cause SNMP Sets to fail?

    - by A. Levy
    My team has a situation where an SNMP SET will fail once every two weeks or so. Since this set happens automatically, we don't necessarily notice it immediately when it fails, and this can result in an inconsistent configuration and associated wailing and gnashing of teeth. The plan is to fix this by having our software automatically retry the SET when it fails. The problem is, we aren't sure why the failure is happening. My (extremely limited) knowledge of SNMP isn't particularly helpful in diagnosing this problem, so I thought I'd ask StackOverflow for some advice. We think that every so often a spike in network traffic will cause the SET to fail. Since SNMP uses UDP for communication, I would think it would be relatively easy for a command to be drowned out if traffic was high for a short period of time. However, I have no idea how common this is. We have a small network with a single cisco router and there are less than a dozen SNMP controlled devices on that network. In addition to the SNMP traffic, there are some status web pages being loaded from the various devices. In case it makes a difference, I believe we are using the AdventNet SNMP API version 4.0.4 for Java. Does it sound reasonable that there will be some SET commands dropped occasionally, or should we be looking for other causes?

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