Search Results

Search found 4343 results on 174 pages for 'man in the middle'.

Page 160/174 | < Previous Page | 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167  | Next Page >

• Implementing a scalable and high-performing web app

  - by Christopher McCann

  I have asked a few questions on here before about various things relating to this but this is more of a consolidation question as I would like to check I have got the gist of everything. I am in the middle of developing a social media web app and although I have a lot of experience coding in Java and in PHP I am trying things a bit different this time. I have modularised each component of the application. So for example one component of the application allows users to private message each other and I have split this off into its own private messaging service. I have also created a user data service the purpose of which is to return data about the user for example their name, address, age etc etc from the database. Their is also another service, the friends service, which will work off the neo4j database to create a social graph. My reason for doing all this is to allow me up to update seperate modules when I need to - so while they mostly all run off MySQL right now I could move one to Cassandra later if I thought it approriate. The actual code of the web app is really just used for the final construction. The modules behind it dont really follow any strict REST or SOAP protocol. Basically each method on our API is turned into a PHP procedural script. This then may make calls to other back-end code which tends to be OO. The web app makes CURL requests to these pages and POSTs data to them or GETs data from them. These pages then return JSON where data is required. I'm still a little mixed up about how I actually identify which user is logged in at that moment. Do I just use sessions for that? Like if we called the get-messages.php script which equates to the getMessages() method for that user - returning all the private messages for that user - how would the back-end code know which user it is as posting the users ID to the script would not be secure. Anyone could do that and get all the messages. So I thought I would use sessions for it. Am I correct on this? Can anyone spot any other problems with what I am doing here? Thanks

  Read the article

• Algorithm to split an article without breaking the reading flow or HTML code

  - by Victor Stanciu

  Hello, I have a very large database of articles, of varying lengths. The articles have HTML elements in them. I have to insert some ads (simple <script> elements) in the body of each article when it is displayed (I know, I hate ads that interrupt my reading too). Now, the problem is that each ad must be inserted at about the same position in each article. The simplest solution is to simply split the article on a fixed number of characters (without breaking words), and insert the ad code. This, however, runs the risk of inserting the ad in the middle of a HTML tag. I could go the regex way, but I was thinking about the following solution, using JS: Establish a character count threshold. For example, "the add should be inserted at about 200 words" Set accepted deviations in each direction, say -20, +20 characters. Loop through each text node inside the article, and while doing so, keep count of the total number of characters so far Once the count exceeds the threshold, make the following decision: 4.1. If count exceeds the threshold by a value lower that the positive accepted deviation (for example, 17 characters), insert the ad code just after the current text node. 4.2. If the count is greater than the sum of the threshold and the deviation, roll back to the previous text node, and make the same decision, only this time use the previous count and check if it's lower than the difference between the threshold and the deviation, and if not, insert the ad between the current node and the previous one. 4.3. If the 4.1 and 4.2 fail (which means that the previous node reached a too low character count and the current node a too high one), insert the ad after whatever character count is needed inside the current element. I know it's convoluted, but it's the first thing out of my mind and it has the advantage that, by trying to insert the ad between text nodes, perhaps it will not break the flow of the article as bad as it would if I would just stick it in (like the final 4.3 case) Here is some pseudo-code I put together, I don't trust my english-explaining skills: threshold = 200 deviation = 20 current_count = 0 for each node in article_nodes { previous_count = current_count current_count = current_count + node.length if current_count < threshold { continue // next interation } if current_count > threshold + deviation { if previous_count < threshdold - deviation { // insert ad in current node } else { // insert ad between the current and previous nodes } } else { // insert ad after the current node } break; } Am I over-complicating stuff, or am I missing a simpler, more elegant solution?

  Read the article

• How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

  - by Ivan

  I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

  Read the article

• How to preserve sibling element position when one sibling is absolutely positioned?

  - by Casey

  In the snippet below, the child div is normally positioned until it is :hovered , when it becomes absolutely positioned. The reasoning behind this markup is to simulate a popup style in a limited environment where I can't use a <select> (among other limitations). When child is hovered, the sibling elements jump around, which is expected, as the contents of the block have changed. But how can I preserve their positioning? That is, what CSS can I add to prevent the siblings from jumping around when child is hovered. Javascript is also not allowed, so please no answers using JS. HTML: <div class="container"> <div class="child"> <span class="d4"></span> <label><input type="radio" name="radio" value="1"/>One</label> <label><input type="radio" name="radio" value="2"/>Two</label> </div> <input type="text" name="sibling"/> <button name="sibling2">Button</button> </div> CSS: .container, .child, button { display:inline-block; } .child { vertical-align: middle; width: 35px; height: 35px; } .child:hover { background: gray; position:absolute; width: 100px; height: auto; } .child:hover > .d4 { display: none; } .child label { display:none; } .child:hover label { display: inline-block; } .d4 { background-position: -411px -1px; width: 35px; height: 35px; background-image: url("https://i.imgur.com/zkgyBOi.png"); background-repeat: no-repeat; color: transparent; display: inline-block; } Here's a fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/cpctZ/1/

  Read the article

• What classes should I map against with NHibernate?

  - by apollodude217

  Currently, we use NHibernate to map business objects to database tables. Said business objects enforce business rules: The set accessors will throw an exception on the spot if the contract for that property is violated. Also, the properties enforce relationships with other objects (sometimes bidirectional!). Well, whenever NHibernate loads an object from the database (e.g. when ISession.Get(id) is called), the set accessors of the mapped properties are used to put the data into the object. What's good is that the middle tier of the application enforces business logic. What's bad is that the database does not. Sometimes crap finds its way into the database. If crap is loaded into the application, it bails (throws an exception). Sometimes it clearly should bail because it cannot do anything, but what if it can continue working? E.g., an admin tool that gathers real-time reports runs a high risk of failing unnecessarily instead of allowing an admin to even fix a (potential) problem. I don't have an example on me right now, but in some instances, letting NHibernate use the "front door" properties that also enforce relationships (especially bidi) leads to bugs. What are the best solutions? Currently, I will, on a per-property basis, create a "back door" just for NHibernate: public virtual int Blah {get {return _Blah;} set {/*enforces BR's*/}} protected virtual int _Blah {get {return blah;} set {blah = value;}} private int blah; I showed the above in C# 2 (no default properties) to demonstrate how this gets us basically 3 layers of, or views, to blah!!! While this certainly works, it does not seem ideal as it requires the BL to provide one (public) interface for the app-at-large, and another (protected) interface for the data access layer. There is an additional problem: To my knowledge, NHibernate does not give you a way to distinguish between the name of the property in the BL and the name of the property in the entity model (i.e. the name you use when you query, e.g. via HQL--whenever you give NHibernate the name (string) of a property). This becomes a problem when, at first, the BR's for some property Blah are no problem, so you refer to it in your O/R mapping... but then later, you have to add some BR's that do become a problem, so then you have to change your O/R mapping to use a new _Blah property, which breaks all existing queries using "Blah" (common problem with programming against strings). Has anyone solved these problems?!

  Read the article

• SSL Authentication with Certificates: Should the Certificates have a hostname?

  - by sixtyfootersdude

  Summary JBoss allows clients and servers to authenticate using certificates and ssl. One thing that seems strange is that you are not required to give your hostname on the certificate. I think that this means if Server B is in your truststore, Sever B can pretend to be any server that they want. (And likewise: if Client B is in your truststore...) Am I missing something here? Authentication Steps (Summary of Wikipeida Page) Client Server ================================================================================================= 1) Client sends Client Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - list of cipher suites - compression methods 2) Sever Hello ENCRIPTION: None - highest TLS protocol supported - random number - choosen cipher suite - choosen compression method 3) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None - 4) ServerHelloDone ENCRIPTION: None 5) Certificate Message ENCRIPTION: None 6) ClientKeyExchange Message ENCRIPTION: server's public key => only server can read => if sever can read this he must own the certificate - may contain a PreMasterSecerate, public key or nothing (depends on cipher) 7) CertificateVerify Message ENCRIPTION: clients private key - purpose is to prove to the server that client owns the cert 8) BOTH CLIENT AND SERVER: - use random numbers and PreMasterSecret to compute a common secerate 9) Finished message - contains a has and MAC over previous handshakes (to ensure that those unincripted messages did not get broken) 10) Finished message - samething Sever Knows The client has the public key for the sent certificate (step 7) The client's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the server's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Client Knows The server has the public key for the sent certificate (step 6 with step 8) The server's certificate is valid because either: it has been signed by a CA (verisign) it has been self-signed BUT it is in the client's truststore It is not a replay attack because presumably the random number (step 1 or 2) is sent with each message Potential Problem Suppose the client's truststore has certs in it: Server A Server B (malicous) Server A has hostname www.A.com Server B has hostname www.B.com Suppose: The client tries to connect to Server A but Server B launches a man in the middle attack. Since server B: has a public key for the certificate that will be sent to the client has a "valid certificate" (a cert in the truststore) And since: certificates do not have a hostname feild in them It seems like Server B can pretend to be Server A easily. Is there something that I am missing?

  Read the article

• List of checkboxes

  - by Andrea Girardi

  Hi all, Happy New Year to all. I'm a newbie in VB.NET and ASP.NET. This is my problem: I retrieve a list of records from DB and, for every row, I need to show 4 checkboxes. I can use a checkboxlist for every rows, but it's not so clear how I can process the results after the submit. I've some object and some operations available for that object. From database I extract a list of object with all operations. For every operation I want to show a check box to enable or disable the operation. The result is something like that: OBJ1 - url - [] [x] [] OBJ2 - url - [] [x] [x] On url I've an href to another page created using the Id retrieved from DB. To create that I used this code: <td class="column-filename"> <strong> <asp:Label runat="server" Text='<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "GroupName")%>'></asp:Label> </strong> </td> <td align="left"> <span style="vertical-align:middle"> <asp:CheckBoxList runat="server" ID="operations" RepeatDirection="Horizontal" RepeatLayout="Table"> <asp:ListItem Text="View"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="Upload"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="Move"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="Delete"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="Rename"></asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Text="Replace"></asp:ListItem> </asp:CheckBoxList> </span> </td> </asp> </asp> my problem is: how can I parse all checkboxes? could you help me or send me a link or any other resources to solve my issue? many thanks! Andrea

  Read the article

• Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

  - by abszero

  I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Flexslider position of previous and next slides

  - by TJ15

  I am using the basic flexslider, I wantto display some of the previous and next , so if slide 2 is showing you will see part of slide 1 to the left and part of slide 3 to the right. <!DOCTYPE html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="flexslider.css" type="text/css"> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <style> .container {overflow: hidden; width: 100%} .flexslider {max-width: 500px; width: 500px; margin: 0 auto} .content {background: #f2f2f2; max-width: 500px; display: block; margin: 0 auto} .flex-viewport {overflow: visible !important} </style> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>Untitled Document</title> </head> <body> <div class="container"> <div class="flexslider"> <ul class="slides"> <li><img src="785.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="785.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="785.jpg" /></li> <li><img src="785.jpg" /></li> </ul> </div> </div> <script src="jquery.flexslider.js"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { // You can use the locally-scoped $ in here as an alias to jQuery. $(window).load(function() { $('.flexslider').flexslider(); }); }); </script> </body> </html> I have reduced the image to 70% and positioned it in the middle of the page. I want to have the next and previous slides visible on either side of the main pic but no idea where to make the appropriate changes (I assume in the js file). I thought this was a margin issue but setting this to 0 in styles makes no difference. Has anyone done this and can provide some advice?

  Read the article

• How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

  - by Gonan

  I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

  Read the article

• Downloading large file with php

  - by Alessandro

  Hi, I have to write a php script to download potentially large files. The file I'm reporting here works fine most of the times. However, if the client's connection is slow the request ends (with status code 200) in the middle of the downloading, but not always at the very same point, and not at the very same time. I tried to overwrite some php.ini variables (see the first statements) but the problem remains. I don't know if it's relevant but my hosting server is SiteGround, and for simple static file requests, the download works fine also with slow connections. I've found Forced downloading large file with php but I didn't understand mario's answer. I'm new to web programming. So here's my code. <?php ini_set('memory_limit','16M'); ini_set('post_max_size', '30M'); set_time_limit(0); include ('../private/database_connection.php'); $downloadFolder = '../download/'; $fileName = $_POST['file']; $filePath = $downloadFolder . $fileName; if($fileName == NULL) { exit; } ob_start(); session_start(); if(!isset($_SESSION['Username'])) { // or redirect to login (remembering this download request) $_SESSION['previousPage'] = 'download.php?file=' . $fileName; header("Location: login.php"); exit; } if (file_exists($filePath)) { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); //header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.$fileName); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"$fileName\""); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); //header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($filePath)); ob_clean(); flush(); // download // 1 // readfile($filePath); // 2 $file = @fopen($filePath,"rb"); if ($file) { while(!feof($file)) { print(fread($file, 1024*8)); flush(); if (connection_status()!=0) { @fclose($file); die(); } } @fclose($file); } exit; } else { header('HTTP/1.1 404 File not found'); exit; } ?>

  Read the article

• Displaying an Image in an activity using URI

  - by evkwan

  Hi, I'm writing an application that uses Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE) to capture and image. On the process of capturing the image, I noted the output of the image's URI. Right after finishing the camera activity, I wish to display the image using this specific URI. The method I used to capture images is: private void saveFullImage() { Intent intent = new Intent(MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); File file = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(), "test.jpg"); outputFileUri = Uri.fromFile(file); intent.putExtra(MediaStore.EXTRA_OUTPUT, outputFileUri); startActivityForResult(intent, TAKE_PICTURE); } Which is a method taken from Reto Meier's book Professional Android 2 Application Development. The method works fine, and I assume that the URI of the picture I just took is stored in the outputFileUri variable. Then at this point of the code is where I want to display the picture: @Override protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { if (requestCode == TAKE_PICTURE) { //I want to display the picture I just took here //using the URI } } I'm not sure how to do it. I tried creating a new layout object and a new ImageView object using the method setImageURI(outputFileUri). My main layout (xml) did not have a ImageView object. But even when I set the contentView to the new layout with the ImageView attached to it, it doesn't display anything. I tried creating a Bitmap object from the URI and set it to the ImageView, but I get an unexpected error and forced exit. I have seen examples from here here which creates a Bitmap from URI, but it's not displaying it? My question is just how to display an image in the middle of a running activity? Do I need to get the File Path (like this) in order to display it? If I make a Bitmap out of the URI, how do I display the Bitmap? I'm just probably missing something simple...so any help would be a greatly appreciated! Also additional question for thought: If I were to take multiple pictures, would you recommend me to use the SimpleCursorAdapter instead? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

  - by user349043

  I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

  Read the article

• What are some things you'd like fresh college grads to know?

  - by bradhe

  So I proposed this to the Reddit community and I'd like to get SO's perspective on this. This is pretty much the copypasta of what I put there. I was thinking about this last night and thought it would be neat to compile a list. I'm still a pretty fresh college grad -- been in industry for 2 years -- but I think that I might have a few interesting things to lend. You don't know as much as you think you do. Somehow, college students think they know a lot more than they do (or maybe that was just me). Likewise, they think they can do more than they actually can. You should fairly assess your skills. QA people are not out to get you. Humans introduce bugs to code. It's not (nescessarily) a personal reflection on you and your skills if your code has a bug and it's caught by the QA/testing team. Listen to your senior (developers). They are not actually fuddy duddies who don't know about the new L337 hax in Ruby (okay, sometimes they are, but still...). They have a wealth of knowledge that you can learn from and it's in your best interest to do so. You will most likely not be doing what you want to for a while. This is mostly true in the corporate world -- startups are a different matter. Also, this is due to more than just the economy, man! Junior devs need to earn their keep, so to speak. Everyone wants to be lead dev on the next project and there are a lot of people in line ahead of you! For every elite developer there are 100 average developers. Joel Spolsky, I'm looking at you. Somehow this concept of ninja coders has really ingrained itself in our culture. While I encourage you to be the best you can be don't be disappointed if people aren't writing blog posts about you in the near future. Anyone else have anything they would see added to this list?

  Read the article

• jquery function call with parameters

  - by Kaushik Gopal

  Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

  Read the article

• Hidden divs for "lazy javascript" loading? Possible security/other issues?

  - by xyld

  I'm curious about people's opinion's and thoughts about this situation. The reason I'd like to lazy load javascript is because of performance. Loading javascript at the end of the body reduces the browser blocking and ends up with much faster page loads. But there is some automation I'm using to generate the html (django specifically). This automation has the convenience of allowing forms to be built with "Widgets" that output content it needs to render the entire widget (extra javascript, css, ...). The problem is that the widget wants to output javascript immediately into the middle of the document, but I want to ensure all javascript loads at the end of the body. When the following widget is added to a form, you can see it renders some <script>...</script> tags: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </script>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output What I'm proposing is that if someone uses a <div class=".lazy-js">...</div> with some css (.lazy-js { display: none; }) and some javascript (jQuery('.lazy-js').each(function(index) { eval(jQuery(this).text()); }), you can effectively force all javascript to load at the end of page load: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<div class="lazy-js"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </div>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output Nevermind all the details of my specific implementation (the specific media involved), I'm looking for a consensus on whether the method of using lazy-loaded javascript through hidden a hidden tags can pose issues whether security or other related? One of the most convenient parts about this is that it follows the DRY principle rather well IMO because you don't need to hack up a specific lazy-load for each instance in the page. It just "works". UPDATE: I'm not sure if django has the ability to queue things (via fancy template inheritance or something?) to be output just before the end of the </body>?

  Read the article

• fancybox image sometimes renders outside box

  - by Colleen

  I have the following django template: <script type="text/javascript" src="{{ STATIC_URL }}js/ jquery.fancybox-1.3.4.pack.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="{{ STATIC_URL }}css/ jquery.fancybox-1.3.4.css" type="text/css" media="screen" /> {% include "submission-form.html" with section="photos" %} <div class="commentables"> {% load thumbnail %} {% for story in objects %} <div class="image {% if forloop.counter|add:"-1"| divisibleby:picsinrow %}left{% else %}{% if forloop.counter| divisibleby:picsinrow %}right{% else %}middle{% endif %}{% endif %}"> {% if story.image %} {% thumbnail story.image size crop="center" as full_im %} <a rel="gallery" href="{% url post slug=story.slug %}"> <img class="preview" {% if story.title %} alt="{{ story.title }}" {% endif %} src="{{ full_im.url }}" full- image="{% if story.image_url %}{{ story.image_url }}{% else %} {{ story.image.url }}{% endif %}"> </a> {% endthumbnail %} {% else %} {% if story.image_url %} {% thumbnail story.image_url size crop="center" as full_im %} <a rel="gallery" href="{% url post slug=story.slug %}"> <img class="preview" {% if story.title %} alt="{{ story.title }}" {% endif %} src="{{ full_im.url }}" full- image="{{ story.image_url }}"> </a> {% endthumbnail %} {% endif %} {% endif %} </div> {% endfor %} {% if rowid != "last" %} <br style="clear: both" /> {% endif %} {% if not no_more_button %} <p style="text-align: right;" class="more-results"><a href="{% url images school_slug tag_slug %}">more...</a></p> {% endif %} </div> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ function changeattr(e){ var f = $(e.clone()); $(f.children()[0]).attr('src', $(f.children() [0]).attr("full-image")); $(f.children()[0]).attr('height', '500px'); return f[0].outerHTML; } $('.image a').each(function(idx, elem) { var e = $(elem); e.fancybox({ title: $(e.children()[0]).attr('alt'), content: changeattr(e) }); }); }); </script> and I'm occasionally getting weird display errors where the box will either not render anything at all (so it will show up as just a thin white bar, basically) or it will render only about 30 px wide, and position itself halfway down the page. In both cases, if I inspect element, I can see the "shadow" of the full picture, at the right size, with the right url. Image source doesnt' seem to make a difference, I'm getting no errors, and this is happening in both chrome and firefox. Does anyone have any ideas?

  Read the article

• mysql - combining columns and tables

  - by Phil Jackson

  Hi, I'm not much of a SQL man so I'm seeking help for this one. I have a site where I have a database for all accounts and whatnot, and another for storing actions that the user has done on the site. Each user has their own table but I want to combine the data of each user group ( all users that are "linked together" ) and order that data in the time the actions took place. Heres what I have; <?php $query = "SELECT `TALKING_TO` FROM `nnn_instant_messaging` WHERE `AUTHOR` = '" . DISPLAY_NAME . "' AND `TALKING_TO` != ''"; $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { $table_str = ""; $select_ref_clause = "( "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "( "; while( $row = mysql_fetch_array( $query ) ) { $table_str .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . "`, "; $select_ref_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause .= "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . $row['TALKING_TO'] . ".TIME_STAMP`, "; } $table_str = $table_str . "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = substr($select_ref_clause, 0, -2) . ") AS `REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = substr($select_time_stamp_clause, 0, -2) . " ) AS `TIME_STAMP`"; }else{ $table_str = "`actvbiz_networks`.`" . DISPLAY_NAME . "`"; $select_ref_clause = "`REF`, "; $select_time_stamp_clause = "`TIME_STAMP`"; } $where_clause = $select_ref_clause . $select_time_stamp_clause; $query = "SELECT " . $where_clause . " FROM " . $table_str . " ORDER BY TIME_STAMP"; die($query); $query = mysql_query( $query, $CON ) or die( "_error_ " . mysql_error()); if( mysql_num_rows( $query ) != 0 ) { }else{ ?> <p>Currently no actions have taken place in your network.</p> <?php } ?> The code above returns the sql statement: SELECT ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.REF`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.REF`) AS `REF`, ( `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe.TIME_STAMP`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson.TIME_STAMP` ) AS `TIME_STAMP` FROM `actvbiz_networks`.`john_doe`, `actvbiz_networks`.`Emmalene_Jackson`, `actvbiz_networks`.`act_web_designs` ORDER BY TIME_STAMP I really am learning on my feet with SQL. Its not the PHP I have a problem with ( I can quite happly code away with PHP ) I'ts just help with the SQL statement. Any help much appreciated, REgards, Phil

  Read the article

• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

  Read the article

• Pure sine wave inverter

  - by Nick

  Not exactly programming (sorry) but I think it's pretty close and can be of interest to other programmers. I'm trying to setup a battery power station so that I can work from anywhere. I go surfing a lot and my idea is to be able to work from wherever I can park my car (given there's coverage). So, I'm getting a deep cycle battery, a 240V charger (I'm in Australia), and an inverter. At the back of my laptop it says 19V and 4.62A. From the people I've spoken to that means it consumes about 90W at most. So my inverter needs to be able to output about 100W. Most of them seem to be 200W and up so this shouldn't be a problem. I want to be able run my laptop for 10 hours (plus the 2 hours I get from the laptop battery) straight. According to the people I've spoken to and from what I gather online I need a battery that has the amp hours for my "amp draw". I have no idea how to calculate this but I've been guesstimating. Most deep cycle batteries seem to be classified using amp hours (Ah)... 35Ah, 50Ah, 75Ah, 100Ah, and so on. However the amp hours on those batteries is for a 240V and I seem to be using 19V. According to an expert I spoke to you'd need a 100Ah battery to power a 5A appliance at 240V for 10 hours (you only get about 50% useful power). That to me is 5A * 240V = 100Ah battery. So, naive as I might be I take 240V and divide that by my 19V and reach the conclusion that I can get away with a battery that's about 12 times smaller than that 100Ah. The expert told me I needed a 50Ah battery so that's probably what I'll be getting, but it would be interesting to know what I theoretically would need to power my laptop for 10 hours. As for charging the battery the expert I spoke to said I needed a 3-5A charger to be able to charge that 50Ah battery from flat to full in about 10 hours (I will just leave it plugged in over night). Now to my question. The expert said it's not a matter of "if" more like a guaranteed "when" my computer will stuff up if I don't use a "pure sine wave inverter". From what I gather the power that comes out of that battery is not as clean as the power we get in the socket at home. Apparently it's "square" and the one in the socket is nice and smooth. I've already got an inverter, but it's not "pure". Do I really need to buy the $200-300 pure sine wave inverter or can I get away with something else? Perhaps the laptop adapter that sits in the middle of my laptop power cable already fixes that wave to be nice and smooth? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

  - by Amit

  Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

  Read the article

• ScrollViewer in a ListBox not working. WPF.

  - by guest

  Hi, I have the following defined in my control: <local:TestListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border x:Name="eventBorder" Width="{Binding ElementName=eventsLbx, Path=ActualWidth,BorderBrush="{Binding Color}" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="4"> <Border.Background> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop x:Name="StartGradient" Color="#FFFFFFFF" Offset="0"/> <GradientStop x:Name="EndGradient" Color="{Binding Color}" Offset="1"/> </LinearGradientBrush> </Border.Background> <Border.ToolTip> <ToolTip Content="{Binding Text}"/> </Border.ToolTip> <TextBlock TextTrimming="CharacterEllipsis" HorizontalAlignment="Center" FontSize="12" Text="{Binding Text}" /> </Border> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="True"> <Setter TargetName="eventBorder" Property="Background" Value="#FFE4EBF5"/> </Trigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> --> </DataTemplate> </local:TestListBox.ItemTemplate> </local:TestListBox> </ScrollViewer.Content> </ScrollViewer> </Grid> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger SourceName="eventsLbx" Property="HasItems" Value="False"> <Setter TargetName="eventsLbx" Property="Visibility" Value="Hidden"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> Now if there are more items than are visible, then the scrollviewer appears properly but the user CANNOT drag the scrollviewer middle button for scrolling. The user can click on the arrows at the end of the scrollviewer to scroll but he cannot click the bar that appears on the scrollbar and drag it to actually scroll the contents. I cannot figure out why this is happening...

  Read the article

• NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

  - by Brent Traut

  I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

  Read the article

• how to set footer image in this video screen?

  - by bala

  hi my problem is how to create footer image in this video screen while playing.... how to create this format. now i am give my description: • 1) Header image, a stretched background image. The location of this external image comes from the application xml; • 2) Footer image, a stretched background image. The location of this external image comes from the application xml; 2.a) the copyright, disclaimer and buy block, this block contains links to popup windows that contain a copyright and or disclaimer. And an option to buy the application for the advertisement less version. The content of this block is fed trough the application XML feed. The color of the text is fed by the application xml plus the popup links and texts itself; • 3) Carousel image, a stretched background image. The location of this external image comes from the application xml; 3.a) the carousel contains objects that can flow from right to left, possibly trough a animation (a soft break of the slide). The first object is centered in the middle of the carousel. This is the first element in the video feed. All the subsequent video object are added to the right of the centered object; 4) Total Video object, this object links to window two with the corresponding video of this object. This object is visually build out of the following sub parts:o 4.a) Thumb object (possible playing video thumb); 4.b) Reflection of the Thumb; 4.c) Textual Explanation of Thumb. 1) Video stream, this is the video stream coming from a external server streamed to the television (maybe up scaled) as 720p stream; 2) Advertisement, the type of advertisement shown overlaid on the video is based on previous settings in the video feed. This could mean that Admob, Adsense or a third party image plus URL could be shown. When the advertisement is selected trough navigation (it will highlight in a different color as a border around the advertisement. The color an thickness can be managed trough the application xml), when clicked a browser will open with the associated site (the application will be pushed to the background process, when the user is finished it will return to the app); 3) A back button, an image and navigational element. The location of the image comes from the application xml. The button is only shown when a cursor is moved (a button is pressed on the remote) it will highlight when selected and when pressed will forward the screen to the main window. When the main window is opened the video will be removed from cache and memory and cannot be start from the point it was exited. please give me your idea....

  Read the article

• Loosely coupled implicit conversion

  - by ltjax

  Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167  | Next Page >