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  • HTML 5 <video> tag vs Flash video. What are the pros and cons?

    - by Vilx-
    Seems like the new <video> tag is all the hype these days, especially since Firefox now supports it. News of this are popping up in blogs all over the place, and everyone seems to be excited. But what about? As much as I searched I could not find anything that would make it better than the good old Flash video. In fact, I see only problems with it: It will still be some time before all the browsers start supporting it, and much more time before most people upgrade; Flash is available already and everyone has it; You can couple Flash with whatever fancy UI you want for controlling the playback. I gather that the tag will be controllable as well (via JavaScript probably), but will it be able to go fullscreen? The only two pros for a <video> tag that I can see are: It is more "semantic" - which probably holds no importance to a whole lot of people, including me; It is not dependent on a single commercial 3rd party entity (Adobe) - which I also don't see as a compelling reason to switch, because free players and video converters are already available, and Adobe is not hindering the whole process in any way (it's not in their interests even). So... what's the big deal? Added: OK, so there is one more Pro... maybe. Support for mobile devices. Hard to say though. A number of thoughts race through my head about the subject: How many mobile devices are actually able to decode video at a decent speed anyway, Flash or otherwise? How long until mainstream mobile devices get the <video> support? Even if it is available through updates, how many people actually do that? How many people watch videos on web pages on their mobile phones at all? As for the semantics part - I understand that search engines might be able to detect videos better now, but... what will they do with them anyway? OK, so they know that there is a video in the page. And? They can't index a video! I'd like some more arguments here. Added: Just thought of another Cons. This opens up a whole new area of cross-browser incompatibility. HTML and CSS is quite messy already in this aspect. Flash at least is the same everywhere. But it's enough for at least one major browser vendor to decide against the <video> tag (can anyone say "Internet Explorer"?) and we have a nice new area of hell to explore. Added: A Pro just came in. More competition = more innovation. That's true. Giving Adobe more competition will probably force them to improve Flash in areas it has been lacking so far. Linux seems to be a weak spot for it, cited by many.

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  • Permission Denied error in IE when closing popups

    - by Kenia
    Hi everyone! I have a simple web testing application which is supposed to open and close several popups by itself (without user interaction). For this purpose i have a javascript function to access the variable where the popup reference is stored and close it if it´s not null, fairly simple. However I get random errors in IE (in FF it works as expected, all popups are closed correctly) like Message: No such interface supported Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js and Message: Permission denied Line: 86 Char: 3 Code: 0 URI: http://10.10.0.61:10000/savmailer/adm/tests/common_tests_code.js The line 86 references exactly the point at which I do popup.close(); in the following function function closePopupWindow(popup){ if (popup != null) { popup.close(); popup = null; } } I have googled and it seems this permission denied error is quite common to come through among IE developers, however there´s no clear solution for it, it´s just a matter of changing the code slightly "to please" IE, so to speak. However i have no idea how to change mine since it´s just 3 lines! Tried also to change the security browser settings by adding my domain to the trusted zone, but nothing, doesn't help either. If anyone has any helpful idea or notices something i might be forgetting, please, reply to this! Thanks in advance, Kenia

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  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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  • Skip subdirectory in python import

    - by jstaab
    Ok, so I'm trying to change this: app/ - lib.py - models.py - blah.py Into this: app/ - __init__.py - lib.py - models/ - __init__.py - user.py - account.py - banana.py - blah.py And still be able to import my models using from app.models import User rather than having to change it to from app.models.user import User all over the place. Basically, I want everything to treat the package as a single module, but be able to navigate the code in separate files for development ease. The reason I can't do something like add for file in __all__: from file import * into init.py is I have circular references between the model files. A fix I don't want is to import those models from within the functions that use them. But that's super ugly. Let me give you an example: user.py ... from app.models import Banana ... banana.py ... from app.models import User ... I wrote a quick pre-processing script that grabs all the files, re-writes them to put imports at the top, and puts it into models.py, but that's hardly an improvement, since now my stack traces don't show the line number I actually need to change. Any ideas? I always though init was probably magical but now that I dig into it, I can't find anything that lets me provide myself this really simple convenience.

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  • Displaying data from linked tables in netbeans JTable

    - by Darc
    I have been writing in java for a few months now and have just started using netbeans. I have spent all day today trying to work out how to connect to an SQL database and display data from 2 tables (ie display the data from from a select statement with an inner join) in a JTable. I have tried using JPQL with the following statment SELECT j, cust.name FROM Job j JOIN j.jobnumber cust where the job table has a field called customer that references id in the customer table. This throws the exception: Caused by: Exception [TOPLINK-8029] (Oracle TopLink Essentials - 2.0.1 (Build b09d-fcs (12/06/2007))): oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.EJBQLException Exception Description: Error compiling the query [SELECT j, cust.name FROM Job j JOIN j.jobnumber cust], line 1, column 11: invalid navigation expression [cust.name], cannot navigate expression [cust] of type [java.lang.Integer] inside a query. at oracle.toplink.essentials.exceptions.EJBQLException.invalidNavigation(EJBQLException.java:430) What am i doing wrong? Can anyone point me to some examples of how to make a linked table java application? I am still in the very early stages of development so a complete change is not out of the question if using a mysql database isnt the best way to go about things thanks

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  • Is it possible to modify the value of a record's primary key in Oracle when child records exist?

    - by Chris Farmer
    I have some Oracle tables that represent a parent-child relationship. They look something like this: create table Parent ( parent_id varchar2(20) not null primary key ); create table Child ( child_id number not null primary key, parent_id varchar2(20) not null, constraint fk_parent_id foreign key (parent_id) references Parent (parent_id) ); This is a live database and its schema was designed long ago under the assumption that the parent_id field would be static and unchanging for a given record. Now the rules have changed and we really would like to change the value of parent_id for some records. For example, I have these records: Parent: parent_id --------- ABC123 Child: child_id parent_id -------- --------- 1 ABC123 2 ABC123 And I want to modify ABC123 in these records in both tables to something else. It's my understanding that one cannot write an Oracle update statement that will update both parent and child tables simultaneously, and given the FK constraint, I'm not sure how best to update my database. I am currently disabling the fk_parent_id constraint, updating each table independently, and then enabling the constraint. Is there a better, single-step way to update this content?

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  • MySQL query problem

    - by Luke
    Ok, I have the following problem. I have two InnoDB tables: 'places' and 'events'. One place can have many events, but event can be created without entering place. In this case event's foreign key is NULL. Simplified structure of the tables looks as follows: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `events` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, `places_id` int(9) unsigned DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `fk_events_places` (`places_id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; ALTER TABLE `events` ADD CONSTRAINT `events_ibfk_1` FOREIGN KEY (`places_id`) REFERENCES `places` (`id`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE NO ACTION; CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `places` ( `id` int(9) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_bin NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), ) ENGINE=InnoDB; Question is, how to construct query which contains name of the event and name of the corresponding place (or no value, in case there is no place assigned?). I am able to do it with two queries, but then I am visibly separating events which have place assigned from the ones that are without place. Help really appreciated.

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  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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  • CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

    - by PaulJ
    I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

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  • if a JAR is placed on app servers's classpath how do we reference it from JSP

    - by Omnipresent
    On our application we are getting an error saying: PWC6117: File "/struts-tags" not found code in the file thats giving error is: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> This file is in struts2-core.jar which is placed on the classpath of the app server (Sun 9.1). The code will work fine and not complain when the jar is actually in WEB-INF/lib of the application, compared to being on classpath of the appserver. But we can not change that. it has to be on appservers classpath. But how should we change our code so that this error goes away? I can create mapping in my web.xml so that tag uri's are change. but what should taglib-location be changed to? so that it references to app servers classpath? <taglib> <taglib-uri>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-uri> <taglib-location>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-location> </taglib>

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  • Overhead of calling tiny functions from a tight inner loop? [C++]

    - by John
    Say you see a loop like this one: for(int i=0; i<thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE).count(); ++i) { thing.getData().insert( thing.GetData().Count(), thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE)[i].getName() ); } if this was Java I'd probably not think twice. But in performance-critical sections of C++, it makes me want to tinker with it... however I don't know if the compiler is smart enough to make it futile. This is a made up example but all it's doing is inserting strings into a container. Please don't assume any of these are STL types, think in general terms about the following: Is having a messy condition in the for loop going to get evaluated each time, or only once? If those get methods are simply returning references to member variables on the objects, will they be inlined away? Would you expect custom [] operators to get optimized at all? In other words is it worth the time (in performance only, not readability) to convert it to something like: ElementContainer &source = thing.getParent().getObjectModel().getElements(SOME_TYPE); int num = source.count(); Store &destination = thing.getData(); for(int i=0;i<num;++i) { destination.insert(thing.GetData().Count(), source[i].getName(); } Remember, this is a tight loop, called millions of times a second. What I wonder is if all this will shave a couple of cycles per loop or something more substantial? Yes I know the quote about "premature optimisation". And I know that profiling is important. But this is a more general question about modern compilers, Visual Studio in particular.

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  • Does ReleaseStringUTF do more than free memory?

    - by Bayou Bob
    Consider the following C code segments. Segment 1: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; retString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); return retString; } void useSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jobject jobj, char *mName) { jclass cl = (*env)->GetObjectClass(env, jobj); jmethodId mId = (*env)->GetMethodID(env, cl, mName, "()Ljava/lang/String;"); jstring jstr = (*env)->CallObjectMethod(env, obj, id, NULL); char * myString = getSomeString(env, jstr); /* ... use myString without modifing it */ free(myString); } Because myString is freed in useSomeString, I do not think I am creating a memory leak; however, I am not sure. The JNI spec specifically requires the use of ReleaseStringUTFChars. Since I am getting a C style 'char *' pointer from GetStringUTFChars, I believe the memory reference exists on the C stack and not in the JAVA heap so it is not in danger of being Garbage Collected; however, I am not sure. I know that changing getSomeString as follows would be safer (and probably preferable). Segment 2: char * getSomeString(JNIEnv *env, jstring jstr) { char * retString; char * intermedString; intermedString = (*env)->GetStringUTFChars(env, jstr, NULL); retString = strdup(intermedString); (*env)->ReleaseStringUTFChars(env, jstr, intermedString); return retString; } Because of our 'process' I need to build an argument on why getSomeString in Segment 2 is preferable to Segment 1. Is anyone aware of any documentation or references which detail the behavior of GetStringUTFChars and ReleaseStringUTFChars in relation to where memory is allocated or what (if any) additional bookkeeping is done (i.e. local Reference Pointer to the Java Heap being created, etc). What are the specific consequences of ignoring that bookkeeping. Thanks in advance.

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  • Zimbra Problems

    - by Imax Satria
    I have a problem with my Zimbra Server, yahoo mail can't reply to my Zimbra Server, this the failure notice from yahoo : Sorry, we were unable to deliver your message to the following address. : No MX or A records for imaxsatria.25u.com --- Below this line is a copy of the message. Received: from [106.10.166.123] by nm17.bullet.mail.sg3.yahoo.com with NNFMP; 30 Aug 2012 00:06:07 -0000 Received: from [106.10.151.252] by tm12.bullet.mail.sg3.yahoo.com with NNFMP; 30 Aug 2012 00:06:07 -0000 Received: from [127.0.0.1] by omp1001.mail.sg3.yahoo.com with NNFMP; 30 Aug 2012 00:06:07 -0000 X-Yahoo-Newman-Property: ymail-3 X-Yahoo-Newman-Id: [email protected] Received: (qmail 46619 invoked by uid 60001); 30 Aug 2012 00:06:07 -0000 DKIM-Signature: v=1; a=rsa-sha256; c=relaxed/relaxed; d=yahoo.com; s=s1024; t=1346285167; bh=JOd9hQyuDhBSxyuVvYQwIVOo6Dp7C1wsnvprDYxGUn8=; h=X-YMail-OSG:Received:X-Mailer:References:Message-ID:Date:From:Reply-To:Subject:To:In-Reply-To:MIME-Version:Content-Type; ................... Can you help me?

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  • Does this code depend on string interning to work?

    - by Nick Gotch
    I'm creating a key for a dictionary which is a structure of two strings. When I test this method in a console app, it works, but I'm not sure if the only reason it works is because the strings are being interned and therefore have the same references. Foo foo1 = new Foo(); Foo foo2 = new Foo(); foo1.Key1 = "abc"; foo2.Key1 = "abc"; foo1.Key2 = "def"; foo2.Key2 = "def"; Dictionary<Foo, string> bar = new Dictionary<Foo, string>(); bar.Add(foo1, "found"); if(bar.ContainsKey(foo2)) System.Console.WriteLine("This works."); else System.Console.WriteLine("Does not work"); The struct is simply: public struct Foo { public string Key1; public string Key2; } Are there any cases which would cause this to fail or am I good to rely on this as a unique key?

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  • Sorting text and attached images in MFMailCompositeViewController?

    - by eOgas
    In the app I'm currently writing I'd like to populate the message body of an e-mail with a combination of text and images. It took me forever to find out that in order to get an embedded image, you had to have bold tags in the message body (...uhhh, yeah), otherwise the image just shows up as an attachment. But now I have the problem that all of the images just go to the end of the body, and I can't programmatically put text after or in between any of the attachments. So far I've tried: Adding images as part of the body string using tags and a base64 string. This would have worked, but most e-mail clients reject images embedded in this manner. Using normal tags with a references to the attached files, using the assigned filenames. Didn't work at all. Attaching images normally, but also attaching blocks of text to the e-mail. The text is not embedded in the same manner as the images. Turns out to be an attached txt file on the receiving end. Apple has restricted their MFMailComposieViewController class to the point of ridiculousness, but I know there has to be a way to do this, because they add in their stupid "Sent from my *apple device name here*" message at the end of every e-mail. So does anyone have any ideas?

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  • [Rails3] How to do multiple many to many relationships between the same two tables.

    - by Kurt
    Hi. I have a model of a club where I want to model the two entities Meeting and Member. There are actually two many-to-many relationships between these entities though, as for any meeting a Member can either be a Speaker or a Guest. Now I am an OO thinker, so would normally just create the two classes and each one would just have two arrays of the other inside, but rails is making me think a bit more data centric here, so I realise I need to break these M2M relationships up with join tables Speakers and Guests which I have done, but now I am having trouble describing the relationships in the models. The two join table models both have "belongs_to :meeting" and "belongs_to :member" and I think that should be sufficient. I am not however sure about the Meeting and Member models though. Each one has "has_many :guests" and "has_many: speakers" but I am not sure if I also want to go: has_many :members, :through = :guests has_many :members, :through = :speakers But I suspect that this is like declaring two "members" that will clash. I also thought about: has_many :guests, :through = :guests has_many :speakers, :through = :speakers Does that make sense? How would ActiveRecord know that they are in fact Members? I have found heaps of examples of polymorphic m2m relationships and m2m relationships where 1 table references itself, but no good examples to help me mode this situation where two separate tables have two different m2m relationships. Anyone got any tips?

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  • Why won't JPA delete owned entities when the owner entity loses the reference to them?

    - by Nick
    Hi! I've got a JPA entity "Request", that owns a List of Answers (also JPA entities). Here's how it's defined in Request.java: @OneToMany(cascade= CascadeType.ALL, mappedBy="request") private List<Answer> answerList; And in Answer.java: @JoinColumn(name = "request", referencedColumnName="id") @ManyToOne(optional = false) private Request request; In the course of program execution, the Request's List of Answers may have Answers added or removed from it, or the actual List object may be replaced. My problem is thus: when I merge a Request to the database, the Answer objects that used to be in the List are kept in the database -- that is, Answer objects that the Request no longer holds a reference to (indirectly, via a List) are not deleted. This is not the behaviour I desire, as if I merge a Request to the database, and then fetch it again, its Answers List may not be the same. Am I making some programming mistake? Is there an annotaion or setting that will ensure that the Answers in the database are exactly the Answers in the Request's List? A solution is to keep references to the original Answers List and then use the EntityManager to remove each old Answer before merging the Request, but it seems like there should be a cleaner way. Thank you!

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  • JQuery Checkbox with Textbox Validation

    - by Volrath
    I am using Jorn's validation plugin. I have a a group of checkboxes beside a group of textboxes. The textboxes are disabled by default and will enable when the matching checkbox is checked. At least 1 checkbox has to be checked which is not a problem. However, when I check more than 2 checkboxes only 1 textbox validates. The form still submits even when the second checkbox is empty. $count = 0; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($rs)) { ?> <tr> <td> <label> <input type="checkbox" name="tDays[]" id="tDays<?php echo $count; ?>" value="<?php echo $row['promoDayID'];?>" onClick="enableTxt();" <?php if((isset($arrTDays) && in_array_THours($row['promoDayID'], $arrTDays)) || (!empty($arrSelectedTHours) && in_array_THours($row['promoDayID'], $arrSelectedTHours))) { echo "checked='checked'"; }?> validate="required:true" /> <?php echo $row['promoDay'];?>: </label> </td> <td align="right"> <input type="textbox" size="45" style="font-size:12px" name="tHours[]" id="tHours<?php echo $count; ?>" <?php if(isset($arrTDays) && in_array_THours($row['promoDayID'], $arrTDays)) { echo "value='" .getHours($row['promoDayID'], $arrTDays) ."'"; } elseif (!empty($arrSelectedTHours) && in_array_THours($row['promoDayID'], $arrSelectedTHours)) { echo "value='" .getHours($row['promoDayID'], $arrSelectedTHours). "'"; } else { echo "value='' disabled='disabled'"; }?> class="required" /> <label for="tHours[]" class="error" id="tHourserror<?php echo $count; ?>">Please enter the Trading Hour.</label> </td> </tr> <?php $count++; }//while ?> This is done using javascript: function enableTxt() { for (i = 0; i <= 7; i++) { if (document.getElementById("tDays" + i) != null && document.getElementById("tDays" + i).checked == true) { document.getElementById('tHours' + i).disabled = false; document.getElementById('tHourserror' + i).style.visibility = "visible"; } else if (document.getElementById("tDays" + i) != null) { document.getElementById('tHours' + i).disabled = "disabled"; document.getElementById('tHours' + i).value = ""; document.getElementById('tHourserror' + i).style.visibility = "hidden"; } } } Please kindly advise in detail as to how this problem can be solved. I am fairly weak in JQuery.

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  • Android Notepadv1 Tutorial - Persistent mNoteNumber?

    - by Chris L.
    So I did the Notepadv1 tutorial. It worked great. No problems. I would however like some explanation on why the mNoteNumber remembers the last number of the item I created. So the class starts as follows: public class Notepadv1 extends ListActivity { private int mNoteNumber = 1; That's fine, I understand that. The only other time the mNoteNumber variable is used is when you add an item it creates a note with that number and then increments it to the next number as follows: private void createNote() { String noteName = "Note " + mNoteNumber++; Those are the only two references to the variable mNoteNumber. When I press the Home button and then reopen the app, I add a new note but instead of adding a second "Note 1" it remembers that the last note I added as "Note 3" so it makes "Note 4". So I don't get it. Does Java/Android remember the last state of variables? If anyone could give me some explanation that would be great THANKS!

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  • Using NHibernate's HQL to make a query with multiple inner joins

    - by Abu Dhabi
    The problem here consists of translating a statement written in LINQ to SQL syntax into the equivalent for NHibernate. The LINQ to SQL code looks like so: var whatevervar = from threads in context.THREADs join threadposts in context.THREADPOSTs on threads.thread_id equals threadposts.thread_id join posts1 in context.POSTs on threadposts.post_id equals posts1.post_id join users in context.USERs on posts1.user_id equals users.user_id orderby posts1.post_time where threads.thread_id == int.Parse(id) select new { threads.thread_topic, posts1.post_time, users.user_display_name, users.user_signature, users.user_avatar, posts1.post_body, posts1.post_topic }; It's essentially trying to grab a list of posts within a given forum thread. The best I've been able to come up with (with the help of the helpful users of this site) for NHibernate is: var whatevervar = session.CreateQuery("select t.Thread_topic, p.Post_time, " + "u.User_display_name, u.User_signature, " + "u.User_avatar, p.Post_body, p.Post_topic " + "from THREADPOST tp " + "inner join tp.Thread_ as t " + "inner join tp.Post_ as p " + "inner join p.User_ as u " + "where tp.Thread_ = :what") .SetParameter<THREAD>("what", threadid) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean(typeof(MyDTO))) .List<MyDTO>(); But that doesn't parse well, complaining that the aliases for the joined tables are null references. MyDTO is a custom type for the output: public class MyDTO { public string thread_topic { get; set; } public DateTime post_time { get; set; } public string user_display_name { get; set; } public string user_signature { get; set; } public string user_avatar { get; set; } public string post_topic { get; set; } public string post_body { get; set; } } I'm out of ideas, and while doing this by direct SQL query is possible, I'd like to do it properly, without defeating the purpose of using an ORM. Thanks in advance! EDIT: The database looks like this: http://i41.tinypic.com/5agciu.jpg (Can't post images yet.)

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  • How to know the type of an object in a list?

    - by nacho4d
    Hi, I want to know the type of object (or type) I have in my list so I wrote this: void **list; //list of references list = new void * [2]; Foo foo = Foo(); const char *not_table [] = {"tf", "ft", 0 }; list[0] = &foo; list[1] = not_table; if (dynamic_cast<LogicProcessor*>(list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("Foo was found\n"); } if (dynamic_cast<char*> (list[0])) { //ERROR here ;( printf("char was found\n"); } but I get : error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'class Foo*' (source is not a pointer to class) error: cannot dynamic_cast '* list' (of type 'void*') to type 'char*' (target is not pointer or reference to class) Why is this? what I am doing wrong here? Is dynamic_cast what I should use here? Thanks in advance EDIT: I know above code is much like plain C and surely sucks from the C++ point of view but is just I have the following situation and I was trying something before really implementing it: I have two arrays of length n but both arrays will never have an object at the same index. Hence, or I have array1[i]!=NULL or array2[i]!=NULL. This is obviously a waste of memory so I thought everything would be solved if I could have both kind of objects in a single array of length n. I am looking something like Cocoa's (Objective-C) NSArray where you don't care about the type of the object to be put in. Not knowing the type of the object is not a problem since you can use other method to get the class of a certain later. Is there something like it in c++ (preferably not third party C++ libraries) ? Thanks in advance ;)

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  • How can I pass an array resulting from a Perl method by reference?

    - by arareko
    Some XML::LibXML methods return arrays instead of references to arrays. Instead of doing this: $self->process_items($xml->findnodes('items/item')); I want to do something like: $self->process_items(\$xml->findnodes('items/item')); So that in process_items() I can dereference the original array instead of creating a copy: sub process_items { my ($self, $items) = @_; foreach my $item (@$items) { # do something... } } I can always store the results of findnodes() into an array and then pass the array reference to my own method, but let's say I want to try a reduced version of my code. Is that the correct syntax for passing the method results or should I use something different? Thanks! EDIT: Now suppose I want to change process_items() to process_item() so I can do stuff on a single element of the referenced array inside a loop. Something like: $self->process_item($_) for ([ $xml->findnodes('items/item') ]); This doesn't work as process_item() is executed only once because a single value is passed to the for loop (the reference to the array from findnodes()). What's the proper way of using $_ in this case?

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  • What's the steps for SQL optimization and changes without reflect live system ?

    - by Space Cracker
    we have a big portal that build using SharePoint 2007 , asp.net 3.5 , SQL Server 2005 .. many developers work in it since 01/2008 and we are now doing huge analysis for current SQL Databases [not share-point DB ] to optimize and enhance it. The main db have about 330 table and 1720 stored procedure (SP) created from 01/2008 till now Many table names / Columns is very long and we want to short it we found SP names is written in 25 format :( , some of them are very complex and also we want to rename many SP parameters need to be renamed one of the biggest table is Registered user table, that will be spitted in more than one table for some optimization, many columns name will be changed I searched for the way that i can rename table names ,columns and i found SQL refactor tool but i still trying it .. my questions : Is SQl Refactor is the best tool for renaming ? or is there any other one ? if i want to make it manually, is there any references or best practice for that ? How can i do such changes in fast and stable way .. i search for recommendations and case studies if exist ?

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  • Storing same type but still getting an ArrayStoreException

    - by Firefoxx Pwnass
    I have strange problem. I have three classes. Book ( abstract ), and two subclasses ( Fiction, Nonfiction). I have created array of Book references. That array can hold both subclasse's objects. I'have following code for Fiction class. public class Fiction extends Book{ public Fiction(String title) { super(title); setPrice(); } public void setPrice() { super.price = 24.99; } } And the "same" code for Nonfiction class public class Nonfiction extends Book{ public Nonfiction(String title) { super(title); setPrice(); } public void setPrice() { super.price = 37.99; } } And this is Main program. import javax.swing.JOptionPane; public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { Book[] book = new Fiction[6]; for(int i = 0; i<book.length; i++) { if(i<4) { String title = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter fiction book, no "+i); book[i] = new Fiction(title); } else { String title = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter non fiction book, no "+i); book[i] = new Nonfiction(title); } } for(int x = 0; x<book.length; x++) { System.out.println("Book named "+book[x].getTitle()+" costs "+book[x].getPrice()); } } } For any reason i'm getting ArrayStoreException on this line.. book[i] = new Nonfiction(title); But same code works for Fiction class. I checked java documentation and it says that this exception is thrown when i'm trying to store different objects in array ( like String and Int ), but in this case they are all the same objects. Both classes are children of superclass, that means, they are of the same type. I'm confsued. A little help here please?

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  • Ruby on Rails or PHP... Somehow uncertain

    - by Clamm
    Hi everybody... I've been thinking about this a long time now but i wanna hear your opinion because i always received the ebst answers here. So in advance... thank you guys. Right now i have to make this decision: Shift a prototype webservice to production quality. Choose either Ruby or PHP... (Background: A friend of mine is joining the project and prefers rails) I've already played around a bit with RoR (only basic stuff) but i am really disappointed about the documentation of Rails and Ruby. In relation to PHP i find only fragments or hard to use references. At the end i am a bit scared. I dont wanna waste my time realizing that i am not capable of doing s.th in Ruby what i could with PHP. Maybe only because i am too stupid and don't find a proper explanation ;-) Did anyone experience this shift and can tell me how easy/hard it was to switch from PHP to Ruby? E.G. would you recommend programming it in PHP and using MVC as a base pattern? Thanks for your opinion!!!

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