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  • Attachment_fu file saving problem

    - by Anand
    Attachment_fu plugin is kind of old, but I have to modify an old app and I can't use another plugin like paperclip etc. So here's the code without further ado Submissions table structure --------------------------- | content_type | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL | filename | varchar(255) | YES | | NULL app/models/submission.rb ------------------------ has_attachment :storage => :file_system, :path_prefix => 'public/submissions', :max_size => 2.megabytes, :content_type => ['application/pdf', 'application/msword', 'text/plain'] app/models/user.rb ------------------ has_one :submission, :dependent => :destroy app/views/user/some_action.html.erb ----------------------------------- <% form_for :user, :url => { :action => "some_action" }, :html => {:multipart => true} do |f| %> .... <%= file_field_tag "submission[uploaded_data]" %> <%end%> app/controllers/user_controller.rb ---------------------------------- @user = User.find_user(session[:user_id]) @submission = @user.submission if request.post? @submission.uploaded_data = params[:submission][:uploaded_data] end When the form is submitted, the database fields "content_type" and "filename" get updated and display the correct values, but the file does not appear in public/submissions/ directory. I have checked the permissions on the submissions directory. What am I missing? Many Thanks

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  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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  • Having issue Deserializing array from an XML string

    - by LeeHull
    I'm having issues trying to deserializing my xml string that was from a dataset.. Here is the XML layout.. <DataSet> <User> <UserName>Test</UserName> <Email>[email protected]</Email> <Details> <ID>1</ID> <Name>TestDetails</Name> <Value>1</Value> </Details <Details> <ID>2</ID> <Name>Testing</Name> <Value>3</Value> </Details </User> </DataSet> Now I am able to deserialize the "UserName" and "Email" when doing public class User { public string UserName {get;set;} public string Email {get;set;} public Details[] Details {get;set;} } public class Details { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public string Value {get;set;} } This deserializes fine when I just get the user node, the Details isnt null but has no items in it.. i know I am suppose to have between all the details but I rather not modify the XML, anyways to get this to deserialize properly without recreating the XML after I get it?

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  • How to deal with "partial" dates (2010-00-00) from MySQL in Django?

    - by Etienne
    In one of my Django projects that use MySQL as the database, I need to have a date fields that accept also "partial" dates like only year (YYYY) and year and month (YYYY-MM) plus normal date (YYYY-MM-DD). The date field in MySQL can deal with that by accepting 00 for the month and the day. So 2010-00-00 is valid in MySQL and it represent 2010. Same thing for 2010-05-00 that represent May 2010. So I started to create a PartialDateField to support this feature. But I hit a wall because, by default, and Django use the default, MySQLdb, the python driver to MySQL, return a datetime.date object for a date field AND datetime.date() support only real date. So it's possible to modify the converter for the date field used by MySQLdb and return only a string in this format 'YYYY-MM-DD'. Unfortunately the converter use by MySQLdb is set at the connection level so it's use for all MySQL date fields. But Django DateField rely on the fact that the database return a datetime.date object, so if I change the converter to return a string, Django is not happy at all. Someone have an idea or advice to solve this problem? How to create a PartialDateField in Django ? EDIT Also I should add that I already thought of 2 solutions, create 3 integer fields for year, month and day (as mention by Alison R.) or use a varchar field to keep date as string in this format YYYY-MM-DD. But in both solutions, if I'm not wrong, I will loose the special properties of a date field like doing query of this kind on them: Get all entries after this date. I can probably re-implement this functionality on the client side but that will not be a valid solution in my case because the database can be query from other systems (mysql client, MS Access, etc.)

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  • Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found - how to correct?

    - by Ash Kim
    Eclipse STS is reporting I have problem with my spring project. It's a fresh project generated from the Spring Web MVC Project Template (File-New-Spring Template Project-Spring Web MVC ). When I create the project it has no problems - it's only once I modify the pom (by adding the hibernate dependencies) that STS then picks up the spring problem. Strangely if I revert the pom the problem remains. Also I can run the project on a spring tc server and all works correctly. Any ideas how I can satisfy this problem report? "Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found" mvc-config.xml /src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/spring line 9 Spring Beans Problem mvc-config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- <= PROBLEMATIC LINE REPORTED BY STS --> <!-- Resolves view names to protected .jsp resources within the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • [Android]problem when delete contacts,please help me

    - by Enchor
    I have been working with Android contacts. I am able to show them, update but when I want to delete any, it is not deleted completely. In Contacts application is shown as (Unknown) without any data. Here is my example: ArrayList ops = new ArrayList(); ops.add(ContentProviderOperation.newDelete(Data.CONTENT_URI) .withSelection(Data.CONTACT_ID + "=?", new String[]{selectedid}) .build()); getContentResolver().applyBatch(ContactsContract.AUTHORITY, ops); Should I do anything else to delete contact entirely? It seems that these code delete info in table ContactsContract.Data but it does not delete element related in table ContactsContract.Contacts or ContactsContract.RawContacts.how can i do to delete an contact completely? ============================================================================ also, i tried deprecated method. It dose work, but i do not want to do so. Here is the sample code: ContentResolver contentResolver = m_cContent.getContentResolver(); contentResolver.delete(People.CONTENT_URI, People.NAME + "=?", new String[] { SelectedName }); and if i modify this code to ContentResolver contentResolver = m_cContent.getContentResolver(); contentResolver.delete(ContactsContract.Contacts, ContactsContract.Contacts._ID + "=?", new String[] { Selectedid }); It has no effect. Does it mean that one can only delete a contact by name instead of by its id? What on earth can i do to delete contact? Thanks, Enchor

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  • When is someone else's code I use from the internet "mine"?

    - by robault
    I'm building a library from methods that I've found on the internet. Some are free to use or modify with no requirements, others say that if I leave a comment in the code it's okay to use, others say when I use the code I have to attribute the use of someone's code in my application (in the credits for my app I guess). What I've been doing is reorganizing classes, renaming methods, adding descriptions (code comments), renaming the parameters and names inside the methods to something meaningful, optimizing loops if applicable, changing return types, adding try/catch/throw blocks, adding parameter checks and cleaning up resources in the methods. For example; I didn't come up with the algorithm for blurring a Bitmap but I've taken the basic example of iterating through the pixels and turned it into a decent library method (applying the aforementioned modifications). I understand how to go about building it now myself but I didn't actually hit the keystrokes to make it and I couldn't have come up with it before learning from their example. What about code people get in answers on Stackoverflow or examples from Codeproject? At what point can I drop their requirements because at n% their code became mine? FWIW I intend on using the libraries to create products that I will sell.

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  • Changing the parameters of a Javascript function using GreaseMonkey

    - by Dave
    There are a lot of questions here about Greasemonkey, but I didn't see anything directly related to my question. I'm on a website that uses a text editor control, and it's really annoying that they don't allow horizontal resizing (only vertical). So if you are using a cheapo projector that only supports 1024x768, the text runs off of the screen and there's nothing you can do about it. I looked at the page source, and found the section of code that I want Greasemonkey to modify: <script type="text/javascript"> // TinyMCE instance type: CD_TinyMCE tinyMCE.init({ convert_urls : "", mode : "specific_textareas", editor_selector : "rte", theme : "advanced", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location : "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing : true, **theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false**, ... I just want to change the boldfaced value to true. I tried to approach this the brute force way and replace the text this way: function allowHorizontalResize() { var search_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : false"; var replace_string = "theme_advanced_resize_horizontal : true"; var doc_text = document.body.innerHTML; document.body.innerHTML = doc_text.replace( search_string, replace_string); } ...but it doesn't work. However, I know the basic search and replace part works because I can use this script to replace text within the editor -- I just can't change the javascript code that initializes the text editor. Can someone explain what I'm doing wrong? Is this even possible?

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  • How to transform vertical table into horizontal table?

    - by avivo
    Hello, I have one table Person: Id Name 1 Person1 2 Person2 3 Person3 And I have its child table Profile: Id PersonId FieldName Value 1 1 Firstname Alex 2 1 Lastname Balmer 3 1 Email [email protected] 4 1 Phone +1 2 30004000 And I want to get data from these two tables in one row like this: Id Name Firstname Lastname Email Phone 1 Person1 Alex Balmer [email protected] +1 2 30004000 What is the most optimized query to get these vertical (key, value) values in one row like this? Now I have a problem that I done four joins of child table to parent table because I need to get these four fields. Some optimization is for sure possible. I would like to be able to modify this query in easy way when I add new field (key,value). What is the best way to do this? To create some StoreProcedure? I would like to have strongly types in my DB layer (C#) and using LINQ (when programming) so it means when I add some new Key, Value pair in Profile table I would like to do minimal modifications in DB and C# if possible. Actually I am trying to get some best practices in this case.

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  • Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

    - by tags2k
    I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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  • Intellisense for custom config section problem with namespaces

    - by Quick Joe Smith
    I have just rolled a custom configuration section, created an accompanying schema document for Intellisense and added it to the Web.config's Schemas property as per Michael Stum's answer to another similar question. Unfortunately, and possibly due to me creating the XSD by hand with limited knowledge, the Intellisense relies on an xmlns attribute pointing to my XSD file's namespace being present in the custom config element. However, when running the project I get an Unrecognized attribute 'xmlns'. Note that attribute names are case-sensitive error. I could probably just modify my XSD file to define the xmlns attribute for that element, however I am wondering if this is just a bandaid fix to a larger problem. I must confess I don't have a very good understanding of XML namespaces so this might be an oppportunity to set me straight on a few things. Here is the attributes for my XSD file's root xs:schema element: <xs:schema id="awesomeConfig" targetNamespace="http://awesome.com/schemas" xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas" elementFormDefault="qualified" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> ... </xs:schema> And on creating the element in the Web.config file, Visual Studio 2008 automatically appends: <awesomeConfig xmlns="http://awesome.com/schemas"></awesomeConfig> So have I misunderstood the meaning of the xs:schema attributes at all, or is the proper solution as simple as it seems?

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  • ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

    - by Joris
    Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

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  • ASP NET MVC Error In Function

    - by rah.deex
    hello it's me again... thx b4 to experts who have provided solutions to my question.. now i've got some trouble again, would you please halp me... this is my code (i've got this sample from the internet n i try to modify it) :) private void FillGridData() { //IQueryable<SVC> query = _customerService.GetQueryable(); _dataContext = new dbServiceModelDataContext(); var query = from m in _dataContext.SVCs select m; query = AddQuerySearchCriteria(query, _grid.SearchForm); int totalRows = query.Count(); _grid.Pager.Init(totalRows); if (totalRows == 0) { _grid.Data = new List<SVC>(); return; } query = AddQuerySorting(query, _grid.Sorter); query = AddQueryPaging(query, _grid.Pager); List<SVC> customers = query.ToList(); //***ERROR IN HERE***// _grid.Data = customers; } the error says "Cannot order by type 'System.Object'.", what is the matter? do you have solution for me, please...

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  • Trying to set up nested while loops using a boolean switch

    - by thorn100
    First time posting. I'm trying to set up a while loop that will ask the user for the employee name, hours worked and hourly wage until the user enters 'DONE'. Eventually I'll modify the code to calculate the weekly pay and write it to a list, but one thing at a time. The problem is once the main while loop executes once, it just stops. Doesn't error out but just stops. I have to kill the program to get it to stop. I want it to ask the three questions again and again until the user is finished. Thoughts? Please note that this is just an exercise and not meant for any real world application. def getName(): """Asks for the employee's full name""" firstName=raw_input("\nWhat is your first name? ") lastName=raw_input("\nWhat is your last name? ") fullName=firstName.title() + " " + lastName.title() return fullName def getHours(): """Asks for the number of hours the employee worked""" hoursWorked=0 while int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: hoursWorked=raw_input("\nHow many hours did the employee work: ") if int(hoursWorked)<1 or int(hoursWorked) > 60: print "Please enter an integer between 1 and 60." else: return hoursWorked def getWage(): """Asks for the employee's hourly wage""" wage=0 while float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: wage=raw_input("\nWhat is the employee's hourly wage: ") if float(wage)<6.00 or float(wage)>20.00: print ("Please enter an hourly wage between $6.00 and $20.00") else: return wage ##sentry variables employeeName="" employeeHours=0 employeeWage=0 booleanDone=False #Enter employee info print "Please enter payroll information for an employee or enter 'DONE' to quit." while booleanDone==False: while employeeName=="": employeeName=getName() if employeeName.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print "The employee's name is", employeeName while employeeHours==0: employeeHours=getHours() if employeeHours.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName, "worked", employeeHours, "this week." while employeeWage==0: employeeWage=getWage() if employeeWage.lower()=="done": booleanDone=True break print employeeName + "'s hourly wage is $" + employeeWage

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  • C# connect to domain SQL Server 2005 from non-domain machine

    - by user304582
    Hi, I asked a question a few days ago (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2795723/access-to-sql-server-2005-from-a-non-domain-machine-using-windows-authentication) which got some interesting, but not usable suggestions. I'd like to ask the question again, but make clear what my constraints are: I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I CANNOT create or modify OS or SQL Server users on either machine, and I CANNOT make any changes to permissions or impersonation, and I CANNOT make use of runas. I know that I can write Perl and Java applications that can connect to the SQL Server database using only these four parameters: server name, database name, username (in the form domain\user), and password. In C# I have tried various things around: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); and tried setting integrated security to true and false, but nothing seems to work. Is what I am trying to do simply impossible in C#? Thanks for any help, Martin

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  • MySQL table data transformation -- how can I dis-aggreate MySQL time data?

    - by lighthouse65
    We are coding for a MySQL data warehousing application that stores descriptive data (User ID, Work ID, Machine ID, Start and End Time columns in the first table below) associated with time and production quantity data (Output and Time columns in the first table below) upon which aggregate (SUM, COUNT, AVG) functions are applied. We now wish to dis-aggregate time data for another type of analysis. Our current data table design: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Event Start Time | Event End Time | Output | Time | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2008-01-24 16:19:15 | 2008-01-24 16:34:45 | 2120 | 930 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+---------------------+--------+------+ Reprocessing dis-aggregation that we would like to do would be to transform table content based on a granularity of minutes, rather than the current production event ("Event Start Time" and "Event End Time") granularity. The resulting reprocessing of existing table rows would look like: +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | User ID | Work ID | Machine ID | Production Minute | Output | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:19 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:20 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:21 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:23 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:24 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:25 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:26 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:27 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:28 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:29 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:30 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:31 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:22 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:33 | 133 | | 080025 | ABC123 | M01 | 2010-01-24 16:34 | 133 | +---------+---------+------------+---------------------+--------+ So the reprocessing would take an existing row of data created at the granularity of production event and modify the granularity to minutes, eliminating redundant (Event End Time, Time) columns while doing so. It assumes a constant rate of production and divides output by the difference in minutes plus one to populate the new table's Output column. I know this can be done in code...but can it be done entirely in a MySQL insert statement (or otherwise entirely in MySQL)? I am thinking of a INSERT ... INTO construction but keep getting stuck. An additional complexity is that there are hundreds of machines to include in the operation so there will be multiple rows (one for each machine) for each minute of the day. Any ideas would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

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  • pluto or jetspeed on google app engine?

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to build something "portlet server"-ish on the google app engine. (as open source) I'd like to use the JSR168/286 standards, but I think that the restrictions of the app engine will make it somewhere between tricky and impossible. Has anyone tried to run jetspeed or an application that uses pluto internally on the google app engine? Based on my current knowledge of portlets and the google app engine I'm anticipating these problems: A war file with portlets is from the deployment standpoint more or less a complete webapp (yes, I know that it doesn't really work without a portal server). The war file may contain it's own web.xml etc. This makes deployment on the app engine rather difficult, because the apps are not visible to each other, so all portlet containing archives need to be included in the war file of the deployed "app engine based portal server". The "portlets" are (at least in liferay) started as permanent servlet processes, based on their portlet.xmls and web.xmls which is located in the same spot for every portlet archive that is loaded. I think this may be problematic in the app engine, because everything is in one big "web app", so it may be tricky to access the portlet.xmls from each archive. This prevents a 100% compatibility in my opinion. Is here anyone who has any experience with the combination of portlets and the app engine? Do you think it's feasible to modify jetspeed, pluto or any other portlet container to be able to run it on the app engine?

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  • questions about using svn

    - by ajsie
    i have set up a svn repository in a remote ubuntu server using webdav (http://ip/svn). but i have some questions: should i create one svn repository for each project folder? so i should use "svnadmin create" 5 times for 5 projects? or should i import them to seperate folders in the svn repository? should i after i have created a svn repo, import one project folder into it with "svn import" and then DELETE my original local folder thus only having it in the svn repo in the remote ubuntu server? is this safe or should i still have a local copy for some reason (cause i wont work in that one)? i use netbeans to check out projects from svn repo, then i edit the files and commit the changes. but how should i do to update the live web server content (in /var/www)? should i in my ubuntu server use "svn checkout" and check it out to /var/www or should i use netbeans to check out to a local folder and then upload the files to /var/www with ftp or webdav (and which one of them should i use)? so i got a svn repo and lets say 4 programmers are working with it, checking out and commiting. how do i check what is happening in the repo, which one made which changes, and all the changes from day 1 to day 213? does netbeans/eclipse letting me see this kind of information or do i download another application for it? i should have one svn user for each programmer in the ubuntu server? is this accomplished by using "htpasswd" 4 times for 4 programmers? how do i couple all these users to same group so that i could modify file access specific for the svn group and all its members?

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  • Is ADO.NET Entity framework database schema update possible ?

    - by fyasar
    Hi All I'm working on proof of concept application like crm and i need your some advice. My application's data layer completely dynamic and run onto EF 3.5. When the user update the entity, change relation or add new column to the database, first i'm planning make for these with custom classes. After I rebuild my database model layer with new changes during the application runtime. And my model layer tie with tightly coupled to my project for easy reflecting model layer changes (It connected to my project via interfaces and loading onto to application domain in the runtime). I need to create dynamic entities, create entity relations and modify them during the runtime after that i need to create change database script for updating database schema. I know ADO.NET team says "we will be able to provide this property in EF 4.0", but i don't need to wait for them. How can i update database changes during the runtime via EF 3.5 ? For example, i need to create new entity or need to change some entity schema, add new properties or change property types after than how can apply these changes on the physical database schema ? Any ideas ?

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  • Fading out an article and dropping down a form at the same time?

    - by eveo
    I have an article: <article> Some paragraphs. </article> Below that I have my contact: <div id="contact"> stuff, this form is 600 px tall </div> contact is set to display:none;. I use jQuery to toggle it. What I'm trying to do is modify this script from http://tutsplus.com/lesson/slides-and-structure/ so that it fades out the article text and then slides in the contact form. Having some trouble. Code: <script> (function() { $('html').addClass('js'); var contactForm = { container: $('#contact'), article: $('article'), init: function() { $('<button></button>', { text: 'Contact Me' }) .insertAfter('article:first') .on('click', function() { console.log(this); this.show(); // contactForm.article.fadeToggle(300); // contactForm.container.show(); }) }, show: function() { contactForm.close.call(contactForm.container); contactForm.container.slideToggle(300); }, close: function() { console.log(this); $('<span class=close>X</span>') .prependTo(this) .on('click', function(){ contactForm.article.fadeToggle(300); contactForm.container.slideToggle(300); }) } }; contactForm.init(); })(); </script> The part that is not working is: .on('click', function() { console.log(this); this.show(); // contactForm.article.fadeToggle(300); // contactForm.container.show(); }) When I do .on('click', this.show); it works fine, when I put this.show in a function it does not work!

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  • Distributed Message Ordering

    - by sbanwart
    I have an architectural question on handling message ordering. For purposes of this question, the transport is irrelevant, so I'm not going to specify one. Say we have three systems, a website, a CRM and an ERP. For this example, the ERP will be the "master" system in terms of data ownership. The website and the CRM can both send a new customer message to the ERP system. The ERP system then adds a customer and publishes the customer with the newly assigned account number so that the website and CRM can add the account number to their local customer records. This is a pretty straight forward process. Next we move on to placing orders. The account number is required in order for the CRM or website to place an order with the ERP system. However the CRM will permit the user to place an order even if the customer lacks an account number. (For this example assume we can't modify the CRM behavior) This creates the possibility that a user could create a new customer, and place an order before the account number gets updated in the CRM. What is the best way to handle this scenario? Would it be best to send the order message sans account number and let it go to an error queue? Would it be better to have the CRM endpoint hold the message and wait until the account number is updated in the CRM? Maybe something completely different that I haven't thought of? Thanks in advance for any help.

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  • How to update application files using patching?

    - by Marek
    I am not interested in any auto update solution, such as ClickOnce or the MS Updater Block. For anyone feeling the urge to ask why not: I am already using these and there is nothing wrong with them, I would just like to learn about any efficient alternatives. I would like to publish patches = small differences that will modify existing files of the deployment with the smallest possible delta. Not only code needs to be patched, but also resource files. Patching the running code can be accomplished by maintaining two separate synchronized copies of the deployment (no on the fly changes to the running executable are required). The application itself can be xcopy deployed (to avoid MSI auto-correcting the modified files or breaking ClickOnce signatures). I would like to learn how to handle different versions of patches (e.g. there is a patch issued that fixes one error and later another patch that fixes another error (in the same file) - users may have any combination of these and there comes a third patch - in text files, this may be easy to implement, but how about executable files? (native Win32 code vs. .NET, any difference?) If the first problem is too hard to solve or unsolvable for executables, I would like to at least learn if there is a solution that implements simple patching with serial revisions - in order to install revision 5, user must have all previous revisions installed to ensure validity of the deployment. Are there any existing solutions to accomplish this? NOTE: There are a few questions on SO that may seem like duplicates, but none with a good answer. This question is about the Windows platform, preferably .NET.

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  • git-svn guestion about creating local branches

    - by leeed25d
    Is there a way to create a local branch, or modify an existing local branch, in such a way that it cannot be dcommit'ed to the svn repo? Here's a description of the scenario. git checkout -b local.farBranch remotes/farBranch git checkout -b patched.local.farBranch git merge local.patches <work on patched branch && test> <do not commit onto patched.local.farBranch> git checkout local.farBranch git commit -am "some changes" git rebase local.farBranch patched.local.farBranch <another work test cycle> git checkout local.farBranch git commit -am "last changes" git svn dcommit Now, I never want to dcommit patched.local.farBranch (which is tracking remotes/farBranch) because that would put my local patches into the SVN repository. This is not a fatal problem but it is a pain in the keester because the patch has to be removed when the SVN farBranch is eventally (SVN) merged onto the trunk. So what I am looking for is a way to prevent this git checkout patched.local.farBranch git svn dcommit <<== ERROR git checkout local.farBranch git svn dcommit <<== OK

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