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• Clickonce redirect

  - by David Hagan

  Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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• Where do I put javaassist code?

  - by DutrowLLC

  I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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• How do I patch a Windows API at runtime so that it to returns 0 in x64?

  - by Jorge Vasquez

  In x86, I get the function address using GetProcAddress() and write a simple XOR EAX,EAX; RET; in it. Simple and effective. How do I do the same in x64? bool DisableSetUnhandledExceptionFilter() { const BYTE PatchBytes[5] = { 0x33, 0xC0, 0xC2, 0x04, 0x00 }; // XOR EAX,EAX; RET; // Obtain the address of SetUnhandledExceptionFilter HMODULE hLib = GetModuleHandle( _T("kernel32.dll") ); if( hLib == NULL ) return false; BYTE* pTarget = (BYTE*)GetProcAddress( hLib, "SetUnhandledExceptionFilter" ); if( pTarget == 0 ) return false; // Patch SetUnhandledExceptionFilter if( !WriteMemory( pTarget, PatchBytes, sizeof(PatchBytes) ) ) return false; // Ensures out of cache FlushInstructionCache(GetCurrentProcess(), pTarget, sizeof(PatchBytes)); // Success return true; } static bool WriteMemory( BYTE* pTarget, const BYTE* pSource, DWORD Size ) { // Check parameters if( pTarget == 0 ) return false; if( pSource == 0 ) return false; if( Size == 0 ) return false; if( IsBadReadPtr( pSource, Size ) ) return false; // Modify protection attributes of the target memory page DWORD OldProtect = 0; if( !VirtualProtect( pTarget, Size, PAGE_EXECUTE_READWRITE, &OldProtect ) ) return false; // Write memory memcpy( pTarget, pSource, Size ); // Restore memory protection attributes of the target memory page DWORD Temp = 0; if( !VirtualProtect( pTarget, Size, OldProtect, &Temp ) ) return false; // Success return true; } This example is adapted from code found here: http://www.debuginfo.com/articles/debugfilters.html#overwrite .

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• CGContextDrawImage returning bad access

  - by Marcelo

  Hello guys, I've been trying to blend two UIImage for about 2 days now and I've been getting some BAD_ACCESS errors. First of all, I have two images that have the same orientation, basically I'm using the CoreGraphics to do the blending. One curious detail, everytime I modify the code, the first time I compile and run it on device, I get to do everything I want without any sort of trouble. Once I restart the application, I get error and the program shuts down. Can anyone give me a light? I tried accessing the baseImage sizes dynamically, but it gives me bad access too. Here's a snippet of how I'm doing the blending. UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(CGSizeMake(320, 480)); CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, 480); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0, -1.0); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [baseImage CGImage]); CGContextSetBlendMode(context, kCGBlendModeOverlay); CGContextDrawImage(context, rect, [tmpImage CGImage]); [transformationView setImage:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext()]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext();

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• Animation is slow on iPhone

  - by Anthony Chan

  I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

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• Keeping cached browser data inside ASP update panel textboxes/dropdowns for browser back click

  - by pmlevere

  I'm new in VB.net/asp and am running a VB web application in a visual database program called IronSpeed designer. I'm primarily using IronSpeed in this case for its login/role security features. I have a basic two page setup for this app. The user logs in then is taken to AccountEntry.aspx, they enter data into textboxes and select some dropdown values that are linked to a sql database, then they click "submit" to move to Results.aspx. On Results.aspx, the user can change data and then generate several types of reports (PDF, Excel, etc). I'm used to setting up ASP controls inside ASPContent areas, and in these areas if a user performs a browser back click the previously entered data will still be on the page for potential user modification. However in this web app, IronSpeed is setting up the page and asp controls inside an asp update panel. It appears inside an asp update panel, cached values can't be seen on a browser back click. In this case, it's important that the orginally entered values still be there for the user experience if the user advances to Results.aspx then clicks browser back to modify a value on AccountEntry.aspx. If I have to I'll setup Session Variables and disable browser clicking, but that is last resort. Is there any way to save cached data inside an asp update panel and have it there for a browser back click?

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• Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

  - by Lily

  I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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• __toString magic and type coercion

  - by TomcatExodus

  I've created a Template class for managing views and their associated data. It implements Iterator and ArrayAccess, and permits "sub-templates" for easy usage like so: <p><?php echo $template['foo']; ?></p> <?php foreach($template->post as $post): ?> <p><?php echo $post['bar']; ?></p> <?php endforeach; ?> Anyways, rather than using inline core functions, such as hash() or date(), I figured it would be useful to create a class called TemplateData, which would act as a wrapper for any data stored in the templates. This way, I can add a list of common methods for formatting, for example: echo $template['foo']->asCase('upper'); echo $template['bar']->asDate('H:i:s'); //etc.. When a value is set via $template['foo'] = 'bar'; in the controllers, the value of 'bar' is stored in it's own TemplateData object. I've used the magic __toString() so when you echo a TemplateData object, it casts to (string) and dumps it's value. However, despite the mantra controllers and views should not modify data, whenever I do something like this: $template['foo'] = 1; echo $template['foo'] + 1; //exception It dies on a Object of class TemplateData could not be converted to int; Unless I recast $template['foo'] to a string: echo ((string) $template['foo']) + 1; //outputs 2 Sort of defeats the purpose having to jump through that hoop. Are there any workarounds for this sort of behavior that exist, or should I just take this as it is, an incidental prevention of data modification in views?

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• Access modifiers - Property on business objects - getting and setting

  - by Mike

  Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• How do I use a jQuery not selector to select relative URLs?

  - by Matt

  I'm working on a little jQuery script to add Google Analytics pageTracker onclick data to all relative URLs on my forum, allowing me to track clicks to external sites. I don't want to add the onclick to internal links on forum.sitename or sitename, and I don't want to add them to any hrefs marked # or that start with /. My script below works nicely, but for one minor problem! All of the forum's URLs are relative and don't start with /. I appear to have no way to change that, so need to modify the jQuery below to prevent it adding the onclick to links like as it currently does. What I want to do, is to write a .not() function like .not("[href!^=http") to prevent jQuery from adding the onclick to any hrefs which do not start with http. However, .not() appears not to support this. I'm new to jQuery and can't figure this out. Any pointers would be massively appreciated. $(document).ready(function(){ // Get URL from a href var URL = $("a").attr('href'); // Add pageTracker data for GA tracking $("a") .not("[href^=#]") .not("[href^=http://forum.sitename]") .not("[href^=http://www.sitename]") .attr("onclick","pageTracker._trackEvent('Outgoing_Links', 'Forum', " + URL + ");") ; }); Thanks!

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• Drupal Studs help me with my form_alter hook ( I am almost there)

  - by user363036

  So I think I am almost there conceptually but need some missing pointers. Objective is to add a few more fields to the normal user registration form, style it a little, then submit it with storing the extra fields in a table. This is what I have so far. Can someone give me the final nudge and get me going. Please help me. Also how do I apply some minor styling like aligning the new form fields ? Thank you so much !!!!!!!!! function module_menu() { $items = array(); $items['school/registration'] = array( 'title' = 'Upgraded Registration Form', 'page callback' ='module_school_register', 'type' = MENU_CALLBACK ); return $items; }//end of the function function module_school_register(){ return drupal_get_form('form_school_register'); }//end of the function function module_school_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) { dsm($form_id); if ($form_id == 'user_registration_form') { // modify the "#submit" form property by prepending another submit handler array $form['#submit'] = array_merge( array('_module_registration_submit' = array()), $form['#submit'] ); } } function _module_registration_submit($form_id, $form_values) { // store extra data in different table } function module_registration_validate($form, &$form_state) { $error=0; //Validation stuff here, set $error to true if something went wrong, or however u want to do this. Completely up to u in how u set errors. if ($error) { form_set_error('new_field_name', 'AHH SOMETHING WRONG!'); } }

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• View results of affine transform

  - by stckjp

  I am trying to find out the reason why when I apply affine transformations on an image in OpenCV, the result of it is not visible in the preview window, but the entire window is black.How can I find workaround for this problem so that I can always view my transformed image (the result of the affine transform) in the window no matter the applied transformation? Update: I think that this happens because all the transformations are calculated with respect to the origin of the coordinate system (top left corner of the image). While for rotation I can specify the center of the rotation, and I am able to view the result, when I perform scaling I am not able to control where the transformed image goes. Is it possible to somehow move the coordinate system to make the image fit in the window? Update2: I have an image which contains only ROI at some position in it (the rest of the image is black), and I need to apply a set of affine transforms on it. To make things simpler and to see the effect of each individual transform, I applied each transform one by one. What I noticed is that, whenever I move (translate) the image such that the center of the ROI is in the center of the coordinate system (top left corner of the view window), all the affine transforms perform correctly without moving. However, by translating the center of ROI at the center of the coordinate system, the upper and the left part of the ROI remain cut out of the current view window. If I move ROI's central point to another point in the view window (for example the window center), an affine transform of type: A=[a 0 0; 0 b 0] (A is 2x3 matrix, parameter of the warpAffine function) moves the image (ROI), outside of the view window (which doesn't happen if the ROI's center is in the top-left corner). How can I modify the affine transform so the image doesn't move out of its place (behaves the same way as when the ROI center is in the center of the coordinate system)?

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• PHP's openssl_sign generates different signature than SSCrypto's sign

  - by pascalj

  I'm writing an OS X client for a software that is written in PHP. This software uses a simple RPC interface to receive and execute commands. The RPC client has to sign the commands he sends to ensure that no MITM can modify any of them. However, as the server was not accepting the signatures I sent from my OS X client, I started investigating and found out that PHP's openssl_sign function generates a different signature for a given private key/data combination than the Objective-C SSCrypto framework (which is only a wrapper for the openssl lib): SSCrypto *crypto = [[SSCrypto alloc] initWithPrivateKey:self.localPrivKey]; NSData *shaed = [self sha1:@"hello"]; [crypto setClearTextWithData:shaed]; NSData *data = [crypto sign]; generates a signature like CtbkSxvqNZ+mAN... The PHP code openssl_sign("hello", $signature, $privateKey); generates a signature like 6u0d2qjFiMbZ+... (For my certain key, of course. base64 encoded) I'm not quite shure why this is happening and I unsuccessfully experimented with different hash-algorithms. As the PHP documentation states SHA1 is used by default. So why do these two functions generate different signatures and how can I get my Objective-C part to generate a signature that PHPs openssl_verify will accept? Note: I double checked that the keys and the data is correct!

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• Membership.Updateuser not really updating the database.

  - by Shimrod

  Hi everybody, I'm currently working on a membership system for my web application, which is based on forms authentication from the framework. I created some users with the integrated tool, and the login is perfectly working. But now what I want to do is to give administrator the capability to create, modify, delete users. So here is what I've got right now: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim muc As MembershipUserCollection = Membership.GetAllUsers() ComboBox1.DataSource = muc ComboBox1.DataValueField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataTextField = "UserName" ComboBox1.DataBind() End Sub Protected Sub ComboBox1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles ComboBox1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) Dim userRoles As String() = Roles.GetRolesForUser(userName) tbComments.Text = mu.Comment tbEmail.Text = mu.Email lblUserName.Text = mu.UserName End Sub Protected Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim userName As String = ComboBox1.SelectedValue Dim mu As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser(userName) If Not mu Is Nothing Then Try mu.Comment = tbComments.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.Email = tbEmail.Text Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu.IsApproved = True Membership.UpdateUser(mu) mu = Nothing Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()) End Try End If DetailPanel.Visible = False End Sub The problem is that the record doesn't seem to be updated in the database. I made the multiple calls to Membership.UpdateUser after reading this blog entry, but it didn't change anything. A strange think I noticed while debugging, is that when I enter the Button1_Click method, Membership.GetUser(userName) returns me values from my precedent attempt ! I don't really understand what I'm missing. Does someone have a clue ? Thanks in advance !

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• Java Concurrency in practice sample question

  - by andy boot

  I am reading "Java Concurrency in practice" and looking at the example code on page 51. According to the book this piece of code is at risk of of failure if it has not been published properly. Because I like to code examples and break them to prove how they work. I have tried to make it throw an AssertionError but have failed. (Leading me to my previous question) Can anyone post sample code so that an AssertionError is thrown? Rule: Do not modify the Holder class. public class Holder{ private int n; public Holder(int n){ this.n = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } I have modified the class to make it more fragile but I still can not get an AssertionError thrown. class Holder2{ private int n; private int n2; public Holder2(int n) throws InterruptedException{ this.n = n; Thread.sleep(200); this.n2 = n; } public void assertSanity(){ if (n != n2) { throw new AssertionError("This statement is false"); } } } Is it possible to make either of the above classes throw an AssertionError? Or do we have to accept that they may occasionally do so and we can't write code to prove it?

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• What is the process involved in viewing a webservice in a browser from within visual studio?

  - by Sam Holder

  I have created a new VS2008 ASP.Net Web service project, with the default name WebService1. If I right click on the Service1.asmx file and select 'View in Browser' what are the processes that go on to make this happen? I am asking because I have a situation where when I run this from a visual studio project started in our development shell (which sets up a common build environment) I cannot get the web service to show up in the browser. It starts the asp.net development server and creates a single file: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c43ddc22\268ae91b\hash\hash.web but when I start it from a stand alone project i get a whole slew of files in here: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\App_Web_defaultwsdlhelpgenerator.aspx.cdcab7d2.vicgkf94.dll C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\service1.asmx.cdcab7d2.compiled etc etc I am trying to debug this but not really getting anywhere. i have inspected the output from VS but the only option I get is for the build output, which is basic and doesn't really contain any information that is useful. I have tried running both versions with DebugView running but no output there either. I would like to know if there are any log files I could look at, or if anyone has any suggestions on how I might be able to debug what is going wrong here? For completeness the output I get when it doesn't work is: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'WebService1.Service1'. Source Error: Line 1: Source File: /Service1.asmx Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082

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• how to change ASP.NET Configuration tool connection string

  - by Zviadi

  Hello, how can I change ASP.NET Configuration tool-s connection string name? (Which connection string will ASP.NET Configuration tool will use) I'm learning ASP.NET and everywhere and in book that I'm reading now theres connection string named: LocalSqlServer. I want to use my local sql server database instead of sql express to store Roles, Membership and other data. I have used aspnet_regsql.exe to create needed data structures in my database. after that I changed my web.config to look like: <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> but when I run ASP.NET Configuration tool it says that: "The connection name 'ApplicationServices' was not found in the applications configuration or the connection string is empty." ASP.NET Configuration tool uses connection string named: ApplicationServices not LocalSqlServer. cause of that I have to modify web.config to: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Server=(LOCAL); Database=MyDatabase;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> and everything works fine. I wish to know why the hell my web site uses connection string named: ApplicationServices and all books and online documentations uses LocalSqlServer? and how to change it to LocalSqlServer? I have: Windows 7 Sql Server 2008 R2 Visual Studio 2010 Premium Project type is website

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• Visitor Pattern can be replaced with Callback functions?

  - by getit

  Is there any significant benefit to using either technique? In case there are variations, the Visitor Pattern I mean is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visitor_pattern And below is an example of using a delegate to achieve the same effect (at least I think it is the same) Say there is a collection of nested elements: Schools contain Departments which contain Students Instead of using the Visitor pattern to perform something on each collection item, why not use a simple callback (Action delegate in C#) Say something like this class Department { List Students; } class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student> actionDelegate) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu); } } } } School A = new School(); ...//populate collections A.Visit((student)=> { ...Do Something with student... }); *EDIT Example with delegate accepting multiple params Say I wanted to pass both the student and department, I could modify the Action definition like so: Action class School { List Departments; VisitStudents(Action<Student, Department> actionDelegate, Action<Department> d2) { foreach(var dep in this.Departments) { d2(dep); //This performs a different process. //Using Visitor pattern would avoid having to keep adding new delegates. //This looks like the main benefit so far foreach(var stu in dep.Students) { actionDelegate(stu, dep); } } } }

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• .NET: Control Invoke() in Reflector

  - by sheepsimulator

  So, I was getting back into some .NET programming, and through a new feature in VS.NET 2010, it detected a case where I was trying to modify a control from a thread that didn't create that control, and pointed me to an article on MSDN about how you do this correctly... ' HOW TO WRITE TO A FORM CONTROL FROM A THREAD THAT DIDN'T CREATE THE CONTROL ' =========================================================================== ' Say you need to write to a UI text box that logs stuff... Delegate Sub WriteLogDelegate(ByVal [text] As String) Private Sub WriteLog(ByVal [text] As String) If Me.rtfLog.InvokeRequired Then ' We are not in the same thread! ' Create new WriteLogDelegate and invoke it on the same thread Dim d As New WriteLogDelegate(AddressOf WriteLog) Me.rtfLog.Invoke(d, New Object() {[text]}) Else ' We are totally in the same thread... ' Call AppendText like normal! Me.rtfLog.AppendText([text]) End If End Sub AND I WAS SO EXCITED BECAUSE I HAVE BEEN PUZZLED BY HOW TO DO THIS FOR LIKE 5 YEARS BECAUSE PREVIOUS VERSIONS OF VS.NET DIDN'T FLAG THIS SINCE I WAS AN UNDERGRAD ON A PROJECT AND... Umm... Sorry bout that. Composure regained. Anyway, now that I know this bit of .NET-fu, I'd like to learn more about what's going on and how it works. Where can I find the code for Invoke() in .NET Reflector?

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• Precompile assets for a rails engine

  - by Peter Ehrlich

  In a standard app, I have this line in my production.rb, which creates endpoints for non-default precompiled assets: config.assets.precompile += %w( mobile.css ) My rails engine is a standard Sinatra app. It has its own assets. When on development, these assets are served fine, presumably the web requests are handled by rails and sprockets. On production I'm getting 404s on the assets, and think I have to manually tell sprockets to provide the files. How can this be done without tightly linking? It isin't evident how to set up env-specific initializers for engines. Is this done? Not only, for example, is config/development.rb within the engine not loaded, but there's no way to get the application class itself without knowing its name, in order to modify configuration. And even if there was, it seems that having any engine able to reconfigure the main app would be very bad idea. So maybe its better to let assets handling be done by sinatra itself? Or another instance of sprockets for the engine? How do other engines handle this?

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• VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

  - by Julien Lebosquain

  The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

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• jboss cache as hibernate 2nd level - cluster node doesn't persist replicated data

  - by Sergey Grashchenko

  I'm trying to build an architecture basically described in user guide http://www.jboss.org/file-access/default/members/jbosscache/freezone/docs/3.2.1.GA/userguide_en/html/cache_loaders.html#d0e3090 (Replicated caches with each cache having its own store.) but having jboss cache configured as hibernate second level cache. I've read manual for several days and played with the settings but could not achieve the result - the data in memory (jboss cache) gets replicated across the hosts, but it's not persisted in the datasource/database of the target (not original) cluster host. I had a hope that a node might become persistent at eviction, so I've got a cache listener and attached it to @NoveEvicted event. I found that though I could adjust eviction policy to fully control it, no any persistence takes place. Then I had a though that I could try to modify CacheLoader to set "passivate" to true, but I found that in my case (hibernate 2nd level cache) I don't have a way to access a loader. I wonder if replicated data persistence is possible at all by configuration tuning ? If not, will it work for me to create some manual peristence in CacheListener (I could check whether the eviction event is local, and if not - persist it to hibernate datasource somehow) ? I've used mvcc-entity configuration with the modification of cacheMode - set to REPL_ASYNC. I've also played with the eviction policy configuration. Last thing to mention is that I've tested entty persistence and replication in project that has been generated with Seam. I guess it's not important though.

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• adding virtual function to the end of the class declaration avoids binary incompatibility?

  - by bob

  Could someone explain to me why adding a virtual function to the end of a class declaration avoids binary incompatibility? If I have: class A { public: virtual ~A(); virtual void someFuncA() = 0; virtual void someFuncB() = 0; virtual void other1() = 0; private: int someVal; }; And later modify this function to: class A { public: virtual ~A(); virtual void someFuncA(); virtual void someFuncB(); virtual void someFuncC(); virtual void other1() = 0; private: int someVal; }; I get a coredump from another .so compiled against the previous declaration. But if I put someFuncC() at the end of the class declaration (after "int someVal"), I don't see coredump anymore. Could someone tell me why this is? And does this trick always work? PS. compiler is gcc, does this work with other compilers?

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• Adding class constraints to typeclass instance

  - by BleuM937

  I'm trying to implement the Cantor Pairing Function, as an instance of a generic Pair typeclass, as so: module Pair (Pair, CantorPair) where -- Pair interface class Pair p where pi :: a -> a -> p a k :: p a -> a l :: p a -> a -- Wrapper for typing newtype CantorPair a = P { unP :: a } -- Assume two functions with signatures: cantorPair :: Integral a => a -> a -> CantorPair a cantorUnpair :: Integral a => CantorPair a -> (a, a) -- I need to somehow add an Integral a constraint to this instance, -- but I can't work out how to do it. instance Pair CantorPair where pi = cantorPair k = fst . cantorUnpair l = snd . cantorUnpair How can I add the appropriate Integral constraint to the instance? I have a vague feeling I might need to modify the Pair interface itself, but not sure how to go about this.

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• EPL (Eclipse Public Licence) for commercial usage

  - by code-gijoe

  Hi, I'm developing an application which requires a third party framework which is under an Eclipse Public Licence (EPL). The application is a server-side commercial application which will be running on my servers. The EPL software is distributed as binaries (jar files). I'm only using the packages and am not making any contribution, i.e. not making any changes to the source. Under EPL I believe I'm not a "Contributor" nor am I making a "Contribution". But if I want to make my software available to be installed at some offsite server I'm having trouble with REQUIREMENTS of EPL: b.iv - "states that source code for the Program is available from such Contributor, and informs licensees how to obtain it in a reasonable manner on or through a medium customarily used for software exchange". Does this mean that if I where to modify the source code of the 3rd party framework for my own purposes I would need to distribute all of my source code? EPL is supposed to be commercially friendly but it doesn't seem that way to me. Thank you.

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