Search Results

Search found 12404 results on 497 pages for 'native types'.

Page 162/497 | < Previous Page | 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169  | Next Page >

  • Problem with Active Record

    - by kshchepelin
    Hello everyone. Lets assume we have a User model. And user can plan some activities. The number of types of activities is about 50. All activities have common properties, such as start_time, end_time, user_id, etc. But each of them has some unique properties. Now we have each activity living in its own table in DB. And thats why we have such terrible sql queries like SELECT * FROM `first_activities_table` WHERE (`first_activity`.`id` IN (17,18)) SELECT * FROM `second_activities_table` WHERE (`second_activity`.`id` = 17) ..... SELECT * FROM `n_activities_table` WHERE (`n_activity`.`id` = 44) About 50 queries. That's terrible. There are different ways to solve this. Choose the activity type with the biggest number of properties, create the table 'Activities' and have STI model. But this way we must name our columns in uncomfortable way and often the record in that table would have some NULL fields. Also STI model, but having columns, common for all of activity types and some blob column with serialized properties. But we have to do some search on activities - there can be a problem. And serialization is quite slow. Please help me dealing with this. Maybe my problem has quite different solution that will fit my needs. Thanks for help.

    Read the article

  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

    Read the article

  • Azure Table Storage rejects an entity with a Property whose value is an Interface

    - by Andrew B Schultz
    I have a type called "Comment" that I'm saving to Azure Table Storage. Since a comment can be about any number of other types, I created an interface which all of these types implement, and then put a property of type ICommentable on the comment. So Comment has a property called About of type ICommentable. When I try to save a Comment to Azure Table Storage, if the Comment.About property has a value, I get the worthless invalid input error. However, if there is no value for Comment.About, I have no problem. Why would this be? Comment.About is not the only property that is a reference type. For example, Comment.From is a reference type, but the Comment.About is the only property of a type that is an interface. Fails: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It fails!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Works: var comment = new Comment(); comment.CommentText = "It works!"; comment.PartitionKey = "TEST"; comment.RowKey = "TEST123"; //comment.About = sow1; comment.From = person1; Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • Redirecting to frontpage after 404 error in PHP

    - by Saif Bechan
    I have a php web page that now uses custom error pages when a page is not found. The custom error pages are included in PHP. So when somebody types in an URL that does not exists I just include an error page, and the error page starts with: <?php header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not> Found"); ?> This also tells crawlers that the page does not exist. Now I have set up a new system. When a user types a wrong url, the user is sent back to the frontpage and a message is displayed on the frontpage. I redirect to the frontpage like this: header('Location:' . __TINY_URL . '/'); Now the problem is PHP just sends back a 200 code, page found. How can I mix these two to create a 404 code on the frontpage. And is this overall a nice way of presenting and error page.

    Read the article

  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

    Read the article

  • How can you pre-define a variable that will contain an anonymous type?

    - by HitLikeAHammer
    In the simplified example below I want to define result before it is assinged. The linq queries below return lists of anonymous types. result will come out of the linq queries as an IEnumerable<'a but I can't define it that way at the top of the method. Is what I am trying to do possible (in .NET 4)? bool large = true; var result = new IEnumerable(); //This is wrong List<int> numbers = new int[]{1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10}.ToList<int>(); if (large) { result = from n in numbers where n > 5 select new { value = n }; } else { result = from n in numbers where n < 5 select new { value = n }; } foreach (var num in result) { Console.WriteLine(num.value); } EDIT: To be clear I know that I do not need anonymous types in the example above. It is just to illustrate my question with a small, simple example.

    Read the article

  • Conditionally Summing the same Column multiple times in a single select statement?

    - by btollett
    I have a single table that shows employee deployments, for various types of deployment, in a given location for each month: ID | Location_ID | Date | NumEmployees | DeploymentType_ID As an example, a few records might be: 1 | L1 | 12/2010 | 7 | 1 (=Permanent) 2 | L1 | 12/2010 | 2 | 2 (=Temp) 3 | L1 | 12/2010 | 1 | 3 (=Support) 4 | L1 | 01/2011 | 4 | 1 5 | L1 | 01/2011 | 2 | 2 6 | L1 | 01/2011 | 1 | 3 7 | L2 | 12/2010 | 6 | 1 8 | L2 | 01/2011 | 6 | 1 9 | L2 | 12/2010 | 3 | 2 What I need to do is sum the various types of people by date, such that the results look something like this: Date | Total Perm | Total Temp | Total Supp 12/2010 | 13 | 5 | 1 01/2011 | 10 | 2 | 1 Currently, I've created a separate query for each deployment type that looks like this: SELECT Date, SUM(NumEmployees) AS "Total Permanent" FROM tblDeployment WHERE DeploymentType_ID=1 GROUP BY Date; We'll call that query qSumPermDeployments. Then, I'm using a couple of joins to combine the queries: SELECT qSumPermDeployments.Date, qSumPermDeployments.["Total Permanent"] AS "Permanent" qSumTempDeployments.["Total Temp"] AS "Temp" qSumSupportDeployments.["Total Support"] AS Support FROM (qSumPermDeployments LEFT JOIN qSumTempDeployments ON qSumPermDeployments.Date = qSumTempDeployments.Date) LEFT JOIN qSumSupportDeployments ON qSumPermDeployments.Date = qSumSupportDeployments.Date; Note that I'm currently constructing that final query under the assumption that a location will only have temp or support employees if they also have permanent employees. Thus, I can create the joins using the permanent employee results as the base table. Given all of the data I currently have, that assumption holds up, but ideally I'd like to move away from that assumption. So finally, my question. Is there a way to simplify this down to a single query or is it best to separate it out into multiple queries - if for no other reason that readability.

    Read the article

  • C# algorithm for figuring out different possible combinations...

    - by ttomsen
    I have 10 boxes, each box can hold one item from a group/type of items, each 'group' type only fits in one of the 10 box types. The pool can have n number of items. The groups have completely distinct items. Each item has a price, i want an algorithm that will generate all the different possibilities, so i can figure out different price points. so a smaller picture of the problem BOX A - can have item 1,2,3,4 in it BOX B - can have item 6,7,8,9,10,11,12 BOX C - can have item 13,15,16,20,21 The items are stored in a db, they have a column which denotes which box they can go in. All box types are stored in an array, and I can put the items in a generic list. Anyone see a straightforward way to do this. I have tried doing 10 nested foreach's to see if i could find a simpler way. The nested loops will take MANY hours to run. the nested for each's basically pull all combinations, then calculate a rank for each combination, and store the top 10 ranked combination of items for output

    Read the article

  • Pass Linq Expression to a function

    - by Kushan Hasithe Fernando
    I want to pass a property list of a class to a function. with in the function based on property list I'm going to generate a query. As exactly same functionality in Linq Select method. Here I'm gonna implement this for Ingress Database. As an example, in front end I wanna run a select as this, My Entity Class is like this public class Customer { [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name="Id",IsPrimaryKey=true)] public string Id { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Address")] public string Address { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Email")] public string Email { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Mobile")] public string Mobile { get; set; } } I wanna call a Select function like this, var result = dataAccessService.Select<Customer>(C=>C.Name,C.Address); then,using result I can get the Name and Address properties' values. I think my Select function should looks like this, ( *I think this should done using Linq Expression. But im not sure what are the input parameter and return type. * ) Class DataAccessService { // I'm not sure about this return type and input types, generic types. public TResult Select<TSource,TResult>(Expression<Func<TSource,TResult>> selector) { // Here using the property list, // I can get the ColumnAttribute name value and I can generate a select query. } } This is a attempt to create a functionality like in Linq. But im not an expert in Linq Expressions. There is a project call DbLinq from MIT, but its a big project and still i couldn't grab anything helpful from that. Can someone please help me to start this, or can someone link me some useful resources to read about this.

    Read the article

  • Encapsulating user input of data for a class (C++)

    - by Dr. Monkey
    For an assignment I've made a simple C++ program that uses a superclass (Student) and two subclasses (CourseStudent and ResearchStudent) to store a list of students and print out their details, with different details shown for the two different types of students (using overriding of the display() method from Student). My question is about how the program collects input from the user of things like the student name, ID number, unit and fee information (for a course student) and research information (for research students): My implementation has the prompting for user input and the collecting of that input handled within the classes themselves. The reasoning behind this was that each class knows what kind of input it needs, so it makes sense to me to have it know how to ask for it (given an ostream through which to ask and an istream to collect the input from). My lecturer says that the prompting and input should all be handled in the main program, which seems to me somewhat messier, and would make it trickier to extend the program to handle different types of students. I am considering, as a compromise, to make a helper class that handles the prompting and collection of user input for each type of Student, which could then be called on by the main program. The advantage of this would be that the student classes don't have as much in them (so they're cleaner), but also they can be bundled with the helper classes if the input functionality is required. This also means more classes of Student could be added without having to make major changes to the main program, as long as helper classes are provided for these new classes. Also the helper class could be swapped for an alternative language version without having to make any changes to the class itself. What are the major advantages and disadvantages of the three different options for user input (fully encapsulated, helper class or in the main program)?

    Read the article

  • Boost's "cstdint" Usage

    - by patt0h
    Boost's C99 stdint implementation is awfully handy. One thing bugs me, though. They dump all of their typedefs into the boost namespace. This leaves me with three choices when using this facility: Use "using namespace boost" Use "using boost::[u]<type><width>_t" Explicitly refer to the target type with the boost:: prefix; e.g., boost::uint32_t foo = 0; Option ? 1 kind of defeats the point of namespaces. Even if used within local scope (e.g., within a function), things like function arguments still have to be prefixed like option ? 3. Option ? 2 is better, but there are a bunch of these types, so it can get noisy. Option ? 3 adds an extreme level of noise; the boost:: prefix is often = to the length of the type in question. My question is: What would be the most elegant way to bring all of these types into the global namespace? Should I just write a wrapper around boost/cstdint.hpp that utilizes option ? 2 and be done with it? Also, wrapping the header like so didn't work on VC++ 10 (problems with standard library headers): namespace Foo { #include <boost/cstdint.hpp> using namespace boost; } using namespace Foo; Even if it did work, I guess it would cause ambiguity problems with the ::boost namespace.

    Read the article

  • Abstract factory pattern on top of IoC?

    - by Sergei
    I have decided to use IoC principles on a bigger project. However, i would like to get something straight that's been bothering me for a long time. The conclusion that i have come up with is that an IoC container is an architectural pattern, not a design pattern. In other words, no class should be aware of its presence and the container itself should be used at the application layer to stitch up all components. Essentially, it becomes an option, on top of a well designed object-oriented model. Having said that, how is it possible to access resolved types without sprinkling IoC containers all over the place (regardless of whether they are abstracted or not)? The only option i see here is to utilize abstract factories which use an IoC container to resolve concrete types. This should be easy enough to swap out for a set of standard factories. Is this a good approach? Has anyone on here used it and how well did it work for you? Is there anything else available? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Database abstraction/adapters for ruby

    - by Stiivi
    What are the database abstractions/adapters you are using in Ruby? I am mainly interested in data oriented features, not in those with object mapping (like active record or data mapper). I am currently using Sequel. Are there any other options? I am mostly interested in: simple, clean and non-ambiguous API data selection (obviously), filtering and aggregation raw value selection without field mapping: SELECT col1, col2, col3 = [val1, val2, val3] not hash of { :col1 = val1 ...} API takes into account table schemas 'some_schema.some_table' in a consistent (and working) way; also reflection for this (get schema from table) database reflection: get list of table columns, their database storage types and perhaps adaptor's abstracted types table creation, deletion be able to work with other tables (insert, update) in a loop enumerating selection from another table without requiring to fetch all records from table being enumerated Purpose is to manipulate data with unknown structure at the time of writing code, which is the opposite to object mapping where structure or most of the structure is usually well known. I do not need the object mapping overhead. What are the options, including back-ends for object-mapping libraries?

    Read the article

  • how to get child members value from dynamically casted class?

    - by Baka-Maru Lama
    Well I'm tring to get class members values from a dynamically casted class but I'm unable to find its child class members values. Right now I'm getting TotalWeight members property, but I also want to get child member property of AnotherClass like AnotherClass.child. How can I get those members? string ClassName="something"; Type types = Type.GetType(ClassName, false); var d = from source in types.GetMembers().ToList() where source.MemberType == MemberTypes.Property select source; List<MemberInfo> members = d.Where(memberInfo => d.Select(c => c.Name) .ToList() .Contains(memberInfo.Name)) .ToList(); PropertyInfo propertyInfo; object value; foreach (var memberInfo in members) { propertyInfo = typeof(T).GetProperty(memberInfo.Name); if (myobj.GetType().GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) != null) { value = myobj.GetType() .GetProperty(memberInfo.Name) .GetValue(myobj, null); //how to get child members value here? } } //Where class something has member public class something { private decimal _totalWeight; private Anotherclass _another; public decimal TotalWeight { get { return this._totalWeight; } set { this._totalWeight = value; } } public Anotherclass Another { get { return this._another; } set { this._another= value; } } }

    Read the article

  • C two functions in one with casts

    - by Favolas
    I have two functions that do the exact same thing but in two different types of struct and this two types of struct are very similar. Imagine I have this two structs. typedef struct nodeOne{ Date *date; struct nodeOne *next; struct nodeOne *prev; }NodeOne; typedef struct nodeTwo{ Date *date; struct nodeTwo *next; struct nodeTwo *prev; }NodeTwo; Since my function to destroy each of the list is almost the same (Just the type of the arguments are different) I would like to make just one function to make the two thins. I have this two functions void destroyListOne(NodeOne **head, NodeOne **tail){ NodeOne *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } and this one: void destroyListTwo(NodeTwo **head, NodeTwo **tail){ NodeTwo *aux; while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } Since they are very similar I thought making something like this: void destroyList(void **ini, void **end, int listType){ if (listType == 0) { NodeOne *aux; NodeOne head = (NodeOne) ini; NodeOne tail = (NodeOne) ed; } else { NodeTwo *aux; NodeTwo head = (NodeTwo) ini; NodeTwo tail = (NodeTwo) ed; } while (*head != NULL){ aux = *head; *head = (*head)->next; free(aux); } *tail = NULL; } As you may now this is not working but I want to know if this is possible to achieve. I must maintain both of the structs as they are.

    Read the article

  • Can someone confirm how Microsoft Excel 2007 internally represents numbers?

    - by Jon
    I know the IEEE 754 floating point standard by heart as I had to learn it for an exam. I know exactly how floating point numbers are used and the problems that they can have. I can manually do any operation on the binary representation of floating point numbers. However, I have not found a single source which unambiguously states that excel uses 64 bit floating point numbers to internally represent every single cell "type" in excel except for text. I have no idea whether some of the types use signed or unsigned integers and some use 64 bit floating point. I have found literally trillions of articles which 1) describe floating point numbers and then 2) talk about being careful with excel because of floating point numbers. I have not found a single statement saying "all types are 64 bit floating point numbers except text". I have not found a single statement which says "changing the type of a cell only changes its visual representation and not its internal representation, unless you change the type from text to some other type which is not text or you change some other type which is not text to text". This is literally all I want to know, and it's so simple and axiomatic that I am amazed that I can find trillions of articles and pages which talk around these statements but do not state them directly.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't java.lang.Number implement Comparable?

    - by Julien Chastang
    Does anyone know why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable? This means that you cannot sort Numbers with Collections.sort which seems to me a little strange. Post discussion update: Thanks for all the helpful responses. I ended up doing some more research about this topic. The simplest explanation for why java.lang.Number does not implement Comparable is rooted in mutability concerns. For a bit of review, java.lang.Number is the abstract super-type of AtomicInteger, AtomicLong, BigDecimal, BigInteger, Byte, Double, Float, Integer, Long and Short. On that list, AtomicInteger and AtomicLong to do not implement Comparable. Digging around, I discovered that it is not a good practice to implement Comparable on mutable types because the objects can change during or after comparison rendering the result of the comparison useless. Both AtomicLong and AtomicInteger are mutable. The API designers had the forethought to not have Number implement Comparable because it would have constrained implementation of future subtypes. Indeed, AtomicLong and AtomicInteger were added in Java 1.5 long after java.lang.Number was initially implemented. Apart from mutability, there are probably other considerations here too. A compareTo implementation in Number would have to promote all numeric values to BigDecimal because it is capable of accommodating all the Number sub-types. The implication of that promotion in terms of mathematics and performance is a bit unclear to me, but my intuition finds that solution kludgy.

    Read the article

  • callbacks via objective-c selectors

    - by codemonkey
    I have a "BSjax" class that I wrote that lets me make async calls to our server to get json result sets, etc using the ASIHTTPRequest class. I set it up so that the BSjax class parses my server's json response, then passes control back to the calling view controller via this call: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(bsRequestFinished:) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "bsRequestFinished" is the callback method in the calling view controller. This all worked fine and well until I realized that some pages are going to need to make different types of requests... i.e. I'll want to do different types of things in that callback function depending on which type of request was made. To me it seems like being able to pass different callback function names to my BSjax class would be the cleanest fix... but I'm having trouble (and am not even sure if it's possible) to pass in a variable that holds the callback function name and then replace the call above with something like this: [[self delegate] performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(self.variableCallbackFunctionName) withObject:self waitUntilDone:YES]; ... where "self.variableCallbackFunctionName" is set by the calling view controller when it calls BSjax to make a new request. Is this even possible? If so, advisable? If not, alternatives? EDIT: Note that whatever fix I arrive at will need to take into account the reality that this class is making async requests... so I need to make sure that the callback function processing is correctly tied to the specific requests... as I can't rely on FIFO processing sequence.

    Read the article

  • Getting User input with Scanner

    - by Giannis
    I am trying to have a scanner take input in a loop. Once the user wants to finish he can exit this loop. I have tried many different ways to do it but there is always some problem. This is the code: Scanner sc = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println("Continue?[Y/N]"); while (sc.hasNext()&& (sc.next().equals("Y"))) { System.out.println("Enter first name"); String name = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println("Enter surname"); String surname = sc.nextLine(); . . . System.out.println("Continue?[Y/N]"); } } The problem with the code above, which also happens on different methods I tried, is that when the user types Y, the scanner will skip the first input for first name,and jump to the surname. If the user types N the loop stops correctly. Someone can explain the reason this happens, and how to overcome using scanner class? p.s: Doing something like while(sc.nextLine().equals("Y")), will cause the loop to terminate before getting input from user after first run of the loop.

    Read the article

  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

    Read the article

  • Can I get the amount of time for which a key is pressed on a keyboard

    - by Adi
    Dear all, I am working on a project in which I have to develop bio-passwords based on user's keystroke style. Suppose a user types a password for 20 times, his keystrokes are recorded, like holdtime : time for which a particular key is pressed. digraph time : time it takes to press a different key. suppose a user types a password " COMPUTER". I need to know the time for which every key is pressed. something like : holdtime for the above password is C-- 200ms O-- 130ms M-- 150ms P-- 175ms U-- 320ms T-- 230ms E-- 120ms R-- 300ms The rational behind this is , every user will have a different holdtime. Say a old person is typing the password, he will take more time then a student. And it will be unique to a particular person. To do this project, I need to record the time for each key pressed. I would greatly appreciate if anyone can guide me in how to get these times. Editing from here.. Language is not important, but I would prefer it in C. I am more interested in getting the dataset.

    Read the article

  • How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

    - by devoured elysium
    When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

    Read the article

  • redirecting the root domain - SEO and other issues, need some guidance!

    - by Jim Sp
    I'm not familiar with some of these forwarding methods and I need help. My issue is this: I have a site hosted on discountasp.net. My domain was registered through 1&1 and I redirected the DNS to what discountasp.net wanted. So when a user types www.mydomain.com, he/she sees the ASP.NET site hosted on discountasp.net, which is all fine My main page is Index.aspx, I really suck at html page design and I don't have time or the talent to fiddle with it (or money to get it done by a pro). The rest of the pages are fine. I want to use a good theme from tumblr or bloggr - one of the blog sites and create a page that I want to use as the first page - directly on blogger or tumblr - say yyy.blogspot.com (I have many reasons, so for now please don't bash my decision - let's just say that's what I want). That means when a user types www.mydomain.com, it should redirect it to the blogger or tumblr page. Everything else stays the sme - the links on the blogger page will say www.mydomain.com/xxxx and show up what's on the hosted website. I have setup the IIS rewrite rules etc. etc. so that all works just fine The bottom line is I want to show an external site's web page as my root page. I suppose I'm struggling to even explain what I want! I can of course do a response.redirect on the Index.aspx page - which is the simplest way to manage this, but the big question is will this hurt SEO in some way? If not, that would be what I do and leave the rest of the infrastructure intact (I have already done this to test and it works fine) Thank you very much j

    Read the article

  • MySQL Database is Indexed at Apache Solr, How to access it via URL

    - by Wasim
    data-config.xml <dataConfig> <dataSource encoding="UTF-8" type="JdbcDataSource" driver="com.mysql.jdbc.Driver" url="jdbc:mysql://localhost:3306/somevisits" user="root" password=""/> <document name="somevisits"> <entity name="login" query="select * from login"> <field column="sv_id" name="sv_id" /> <field column="sv_username" name="sv_username" /> </entity> </document> </dataConfig> schema.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <schema name="example" version="1.5"> <fields> <field name="sv_id" type="string" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true" multiValued="false" /> <field name="username" type="string" indexed="true" stored="true" required="true"/> <field name="_version_" type="long" indexed="true" stored="true" multiValued="false"/> <field name="text" type="string" indexed="true" stored="false" multiValued="true"/> </fields> <uniqueKey>sv_id</uniqueKey> <types> <fieldType name="string" class="solr.StrField" sortMissingLast="true" /> <fieldType name="long" class="solr.TrieLongField" precisionStep="0" positionIncrementGap="0"/> </types> </schema> Solr successfully imported mysql database using full http://[localSolr]:8983/solr/#/collection1/dataimport?command=full-import My question is, how to access that mysql imported database now?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169  | Next Page >