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  • UITouch Event Propagation To Background UIViews

    - by drewww
    I'm having troubles getting any UIView that's not the foreground UIView to receive UITouch events. I'm building an all-Core Graphics-app, so I'm not using any built in UIViews or IB or anything - everything is programmatically constructed and drawn into. Here's my view hierarchy: Root View Type A Container Type A View Type A View Type A View Type B Container Type B View Type B View Type B View The containers are just vanilla UIView objects that I create programmatically and add instances of Type A and B to when they're created. I did this originally to make hitTesting easier—Type A objects can be drag-and-dropped onto Type B objects. Type A objects receive touch events fine, but Type B objects (which are contained by Type B Container which is behind Type A Container) don't receive touch events. Both containers occupy the entire screen; they're basically just convenience containers. If I pull Type B Container to the front (eg [self.view bringSubviewToFront:Type B Container]) it receives events properly, but then the Type A Container doesn't get events. How do I propagate events from the view that's on top? Both views occupy the entire screen, so it makes sense that the top-most view is catching the events, but how should I get it to pass those events on to Type B Container? I could inject some code in the container that passes the touch events back to the main ViewController which can pass them on to Type B Container but that feels really messy to me. Is there a nicer way to not have the Type A Container stop propagation? What's the best practice here?

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  • How to use walker to replace core function

    - by bellesebastien
    I want to modify the way pages are listed in the navigation, particularly the function el_start from wp-includes/classes.php. I've first modified the classes.php directly and it worked fine butnow I want to revert classes.php and move the modification out of wordpress' internal files. I wrote a walker class that I want to use but I don't know how to use it. I want to replace the current call wp_list_pages() to this: $walker_pages = new Walker_Page_CustomTitle; wp_list_pages(array('walker' => $walker_pages, 'title_li' => '', 'depth' => '1')); I've tried using a filter like so: function wp_list_pages_custom() { $walker_pages = new Walker_Page_CustomTitle; wp_list_pages(array('walker' => $walker_pages, 'title_li' => '', 'depth' => '1')); } add_filter('widget_area_primary_aside', 'wp_list_pages_custom'); But with this filter, the site won't load anymore. The tutorial here says I should put this code in header.php but that just puts my page links in the tag. I hope I'm making sense. Thanks.

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  • Db4o Mvc Application Architecture

    - by Mac
    I am currently testing out Db4o for an asp.net MVC 2 application idea but there are a few things I'm not quite sure on the best way to proceed. I want my application to use guessable routes rather than Id's for referencing my entities but I also think I need Id's of some sort for update scenarios. so for example I want /country/usa instead of /country/1 I may want to change the key name though (not perhaps on a country but on other entities) so am thinking I need an Id to use as the reference to retrieve the object prior to updating it's fields. From other comments it seems like the UUID is a bit long to be using and would prefer to use my own id's anyway for clean separation of concerns. Looking at both the KandaAlpha project I wasn't too keen on some aspects of the design and prefer something more along the lines of S#arp architecture where they use things like the [domainsignature] and EntityWithTypedId, IEntityDuplicateChecker, IHasAssignedId, BaseObject and IValidatable in their entities to control insert/update behaviour which seems cleaner and more extensible, covers validation and is encapsulated well within the core and base repository classes. So would a port of S#arp architecture to Db4o make sense of am I still thinking rmdbs in an oodb world? Also is there a best practice for managing indexes (including Unique ones as above) in Db4o? Should they be model metadata based and loaded using DI in a bootstrapper for example or should they be more loaded more like Automapper.CreateMap? Its a bit of a rambling question I know but any thoughts, ideas or suggested reading material is greatly appreciated. Thanks Mac

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  • Facebooker Causing Problems with Rails Integration Testing

    - by Eric Lubow
    I am (finally) attempting to write some integration tests for my application (because every deploy is getting scarier). Since testing is a horribly documented feature of Rails, this was the best I could get going with shoulda. class DeleteBusinessTest < ActionController::IntegrationTest context "log skydiver in and" do setup do @skydiver = Factory( :skydiver ) @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.create(@skydiver) @biz = Factory( :business, :ownership = Factory(:ownership, :skydiver = @skydiver )) end context "delete business" do setup do @skydiver_session = SkydiverSession.find post '/businesses/destroy', :id = @biz.id end should_redirect_to('businesses_path()'){businesses_path()} end end end In theory, this test seems like it should pass. My factories seem like they are pushing the right data in: Factory.define :skydiver do |s| s.sequence(:login) { |n| "test#{n}" } s.sequence(:email) { |n| "test#{n}@example.com" } s.crypted_password '1805986f044ced38691118acfb26a6d6d49be0d0' s.password 'secret' s.password_confirmation { |u| u.password } s.salt 'aowgeUne1R4-F6FFC1ad' s.firstname 'Test' s.lastname 'Salt' s.nickname 'Mr. Password Testy' s.facebook_user_id '507743444' end The problem I am getting seems to be from Facebooker only seems to happen on login attempts. When the test runs, I am getting the error: The error occurred while evaluating nil.set_facebook_session. I believe that error is to be expected in a certain sense since I am not using Facebook here for this session. Can anyone provide any insight as to how to either get around this or at least help me out with what is going wrong?

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  • People not respecting good practices at workplace

    - by VexXtreme
    Hi There are some major issues in my company regarding practices, procedures and methodologies. First of all, we're a small firm and there are only 3-4 developers, one of which is our boss who isn't really a programmer, he just chimes in now and then and tries to do code some simple things. The biggest problems are: Major cowboy coding and lack of methodologies. I've tried explaining to everyone the benefits of TDD and unit testing, but I only got weird looks as if I'm talking nonsense. Even the boss gave me the reaction along the lines of "why do we need that? it's just unnecessary overhead and a waste of time". Nobody uses design patterns. I have to tell people not to write business logic in code behind, I have to remind them not to hardcode concrete implementations and dependencies into classes and cetera. I often feel like a nazi because of this and people think I'm enforcing unnecessary policies and use of design patterns. The biggest problem of all is that people don't even respect common sense security policies. I've noticed that college students who work on tech support use our continuous integration and source control server as a dump to store their music, videos, series they download from torrents and so on. You can imagine the horror when I realized that most of the partition reserved for source control backups was used by entire seasons of TV series and movies. Our development server isn't even connected to an UPS and surge protection. It's just plugged straight into the wall outlet. I asked the boss to buy surge protection, but he said it's unnecessary. All in all, I like working here because the atmosphere is very relaxed, money is good and we're all like a family (so don't advise me to quit), but I simply don't know how to explain to people that they need to stick to some standards and good practices in IT industry and that they can't behave so irresponsibly. Thanks for the advice

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  • Can someone please explain this lazy evaluation code?

    - by Tejs
    So, this question was just asked on SO: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2740001/how-to-handle-an-infinite-ienumerable My sample code: public static void Main(string[] args) { foreach (var item in Numbers().Take(10)) Console.WriteLine(item); Console.ReadKey(); } public static IEnumerable<int> Numbers() { int x = 0; while (true) yield return x++; } Can someone please explain why this is lazy evaluated? I've looked up this code in Reflector, and I'm more confused than when I began. Reflector outputs: public static IEnumerable<int> Numbers() { return new <Numbers>d__0(-2); } For the numbers method, and looks to have generated a new type for that expression: [DebuggerHidden] public <Numbers>d__0(int <>1__state) { this.<>1__state = <>1__state; this.<>l__initialThreadId = Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId; } This makes no sense to me. I would have assumed it was an infinite loop until I put that code together and executed it myself.

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  • How to make hyperlink change text in overflow:hidden div without jumping to the div

    - by paracaudex
    I have a div element with fixed height and width and overflow:hidden, and I have a menu that causes this div to scroll to anchors in the text within the div. However, when you click on an item on this menu, it doesn't just scroll the div, it also scrolls the page to the div. How do I prevent this second from happening. That is, I just want the div to scroll without the page itself scrolling. So I have <div id="boxcontent"> <p id="id1">Some content</p> <p id="id2">Some content</p> <p id="id3">Some content</p> </div> boxcontent { width:600px; height:180px; overflow:hidden; margin-left:auto; margin-right:auto; } And then a ul with anchor links to id1, id2, etc. Does this make sense?

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  • Ant target generate empty suite xml file

    - by user200317
    I am using ant for my project and I have been trying to generate JUnit report using ant target. The problem I run in to is that at the end of the execution my TESTS-TestSuites.xml is empty. But all the other individual test xml files have data. And due to this my html reports are empty, in the sense results shows "0". Here is my ant target <!-- JUnit Reporting --> <target name="test-report" depends="build-all" description="Generate Test Results as HTML"> <taskdef name="junitreport" classname="org.apache.tools.ant.taskdefs.optional.junit.XMLResultAggregator"/> <junit printsummary="on" haltonfailure="off" haltonerror="off" fork="yes"> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${test.reports}" filtertrace="on"> <fileset dir="${build.classes}" includes="**/Test*Selenium.class"/> </batchtest> <formatter type="plain" usefile="false"/> <formatter type="xml" usefile="true"/> <classpath> <path refid="classpath"/> <path refid="application"/> </classpath> </junit> <echo message="running JUnit Report" /> <junitreport todir="${test.reports}"> <fileset dir="${test.reports}"> <include name="Test-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report format="frames" todir="${test.reports.html}" /> </junitreport> </target> This is what I get as ant print summary, [junitreport] Processing C:\YukonSelenium\reports\TESTS-TestSuites.xml to C:\DOCUME~1\user\LOCALS~1\Temp\null1848051184 [junitreport] Loading stylesheet jar:file:/C:/DevApps/apache-ant-1.7.1/lib/ant junit.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/taskdefs/optional/junit/xsl/junit-frames.xsl [junitreport] Transform time: 859ms [junitreport] Deleting: C:\DOCUME~1\user\LOCALS~1\Temp\null1848051184 Here's how junit report looks like http://www.freeimagehosting.net/image.php?43dd69d3b8.jpg Thanks in advance,

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  • During suite tests EasyMock says 0 matchers expected 1 recorded

    - by holmes
    So I've been using EasyMock's class extension for a while now. All of a sudden I'm getting this exception, but only when I run the entire test suite: java.lang.IllegalStateException: 0 matchers expected, 1 recorded. at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.createMissingMatchers(ExpectedInvocation.java:42) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:34) at org.easymock.internal.ExpectedInvocation.<init>(ExpectedInvocation.java:26) at org.easymock.internal.RecordState.invoke(RecordState.java:64) at org.easymock.internal.MockInvocationHandler.invoke(MockInvocationHandler.java:24) at org.easymock.internal.ObjectMethodsFilter.invoke(ObjectMethodsFilter.java:56) at org.easymock.classextension.internal.ClassProxyFactory$1.intercept(ClassProxyFactory.java:74) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.matrix.PositionCategoryMatrix$$EnhancerByCGLIB$$c5298a7.getPossession(<generated>) at com.protrade.soccersim.data.emulator.stats.team.PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.testDeterminePossessionHomeWin(PossessionCalculatorUnitTest.java:45) The code involved is this little beauty (trimmed a bit): @Before public void setUp() throws Exception { homeTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); awayTeam = createMock( PositionCategoryMatrix.class ); ... } @Test public void testDeterminePossessionHomeWin() { expect(homeTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.15151515 ); expect(awayTeam.getPossession()).andReturn( 0.01515152 ); replay( homeTeam, awayTeam ); ... } The exception is being thrown on the first expect. And it really doesn't make sense. It says it's getting a matcher, but the method doesn't even take an argument. And odd enough it's only during test suites! I'm creating a new mock in the @Before, so it shouldn't be inheriting anything from somewhere else (not that some other method would have a matcher on it) So, any ideas?

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  • Jquery image preview plugin issue...

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I have a problem with an image preview that comes up when you hover over a thumbnail. I can change the distance between the preview and the cursor, but if a thumbnail is close to the side of the window, the preview cant fit and you only see part of it.. hope that makes sense... is there a way to make it so that if the preview doesnt fit, it will show up on the other side of the cursor?.... Here is the script... this.imagePreview = function() { /* CONFIG */ xOffset = 10; yOffset = 30; // these 2 variable determine popup's distance from the cursor // you might want to adjust to get the right result /* END CONFIG */ $("a.preview").hover(function(e) { this.t = this.title; this.title = ""; var c = (this.t != "") ? "<br/>" + this.t : ""; $("body").append("<p id='preview'> <img src='" + this.href + "' alt='Image preview' />" + c + "</p>"); $("#preview") .css("top", (e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left", (e.pageX + yOffset) + "px") .fadeIn("slow"); }, function() { this.title = this.t; $("#preview").remove(); }); $("a.preview").mousemove(function(e) { $("#preview") .css("top", (e.pageY - xOffset) + "px") .css("left", (e.pageX + yOffset) + "px"); }); }; // starting the script on page load $(document).ready(function() { imagePreview(); }); EDIT: see what i am getting, http://img202.imageshack.us/img202/4991/browserpreviewf.jpg my image at the right corner of the page so when i hover the img my preview goes even further right that is besides the page scrollbar half the preview is available.... How to get the preview to the left of the cursor..

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  • Image Line Trace Math Help Hard To Explain

    - by Ozzy
    Hi all, sorry for the confusing title, its really hard for me to explain what i want. So i created this image :) Ok so the two RED dots are points on an image. The distance between them isnt important. What I want to do is, Using the coordinates for the two dots, work out the angle of the space between them (as shown by the black line between the red dots) Then once the angle is found, on the last red dot, create two points which cross the angle of the first line. Then from that, scan a Half semicircle and get the coordinates of every pixel of the image that the orange line passes. I dnot know if this makes any sense to you lot so i drew another picture: As you can see in the second picture, my idea is applied to a line drawn on a black canavs. The two red dots are the starting coordinates then at the end of the two dots, a less then half semicircle is created. The part that is orange shows the pixels of the image that should be recorded. I have no clue how to start this, so if anyone has any ideas on how i can or on what i need to do, any help is much appreciated :)

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  • iPad receiving memory warning with low memory use

    - by Fer
    I have an UIWebKit with a HTML, this HTML have several images and text, but just displaying it gives me the memory warning. So I did some tests: The same HTML with different images, fullsize, and after the same images but reduced 50% from it's original size, for the 50% reduced images, I went to preview and reduced all images in 50% The surprising part is the 50% test, you can see that even with 16 images, the memory peak is 4.90MB. That's really surprising. Notice that these values are not always the same, they change but there's not a huge difference between the tests. In the 50% issue, in the 8 and 16 images, although the memory is low, sometimes a memory warning appears, but the performance enhance is noticeable compared to the full size images standing still = memory after scrolling all article 1 Image = [standing still 5MB] [rotating 5.6MB] 2 Images = [standing still 6.99MB] [rotating 7.7MB] 3 Images = [standing still 9.04MB] [rotating 10.9MB] 4 Images = [standing still 10.89MB] [rotating 13.20MB] 8 Images = [standing still 23.14MB] [rotating 25.20MB] (sometimes crashes) 16 Images = [standing still 27.14MB and app crashes] 50% 1 Image = [standing still 3.2MB] [rotating 3.67MB] 2 Image = [standing still 3.2MB] [rotating 3.70MB] 3 Image = [standing still 3.3MB] [rotating 3.79MB] 4 Image = [standing still 3.3MB] [rotating 3.80MB] 8 Images = [standing still 4.29MB] [rotating 4,63MB] (sometimes crashes) 16 Images = [standing still 4.79MB] [rotating 4,90MB] (sometimes crashes) My question is: The app sometimes crashed with 16 small images. Why? The memory was much lower. What is the limit of memory use? These numbers are helpful if you also tell us the maximum. But, the maximum seemed different with the 50% size images. 13.2MB works for large images and 3.8 for small images. Anything higher sometimes crashes. That makes no sense.

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  • Returning UTF-8 from a web service

    - by Marco Shaw
    Previous: Returning info from a Web Service I thought the previous answer made 100% sense, and I though I was out of the woods, but it still fails. An app I'm working with still seems to think what is being returned from the web service is ASCII encoded. Debugging it shows: <Envelope><Body><ReturnOneResponse><ReturnOneResult>&lt;xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"&gt;&lt;Entry&gt;&lt;Symbol&gt;PACR&lt;/Symbol&gt;&lt;Company&gt;Pacer International, Inc.&lt;/Company&gt;&lt;MarketCap&gt;$229.0M&lt;/MarketCap&gt;&lt;PE&gt;18.7&lt;/PE&gt;&lt;Price&gt;6.56&lt;/Price&gt;&lt;Change&gt;0.42&lt;/Change&gt;&lt;PctChange&gt;6.84%&lt;/PctChange&gt;&lt;YTDChange&gt;107.59%&lt;/YTDChange&gt;&lt;/Entry&gt;</ReturnOneResult></ReturnOneResponse></Body></Envelope> So everything being returned from the web service seems to be changed into ASCII, and seems to refuse to read as UTF-8. Since my previous code in the above link, I also changed my string invocation: string value = @""; Still, that didn't help. Any other ideas?

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  • C# using namespace directive in nested namespaces

    - by MoSlo
    Right, I've usually used 'using' directives as follows using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace AwesomeLib { //awesome award winning class declarations making use of Linq } i've recently seen examples of such as using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace AwesomeLib { //awesome award winning class declarations making use of Linq namespace DataLibrary { using System.Data; //Data access layers and whatnot } } Granted, i understand that i can put USING inside of my namespace declaration. Such a thing makes sense to me if your namespaces are in the same root (they organized). System; namespace 1 {} namespace 2 { System.data; } But what of nested namespaces? Personally, I would leave all USING declarations at the top where you can find them easily. Instead, it looks like they're being spread all over the source file. Is there benefit to the USING directives being used this way in nested namespaces? Such as memory management or the JIT compiler?

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  • Shift-reduce: when to stop reducing?

    - by Joey Adams
    I'm trying to learn about shift-reduce parsing. Suppose we have the following grammar, using recursive rules that enforce order of operations, inspired by the ANSI C Yacc grammar: S: A; P : NUMBER | '(' S ')' ; M : P | M '*' P | M '/' P ; A : M | A '+' M | A '-' M ; And we want to parse 1+2 using shift-reduce parsing. First, the 1 is shifted as a NUMBER. My question is, is it then reduced to P, then M, then A, then finally S? How does it know where to stop? Suppose it does reduce all the way to S, then shifts '+'. We'd now have a stack containing: S '+' If we shift '2', the reductions might be: S '+' NUMBER S '+' P S '+' M S '+' A S '+' S Now, on either side of the last line, S could be P, M, A, or NUMBER, and it would still be valid in the sense that any combination would be a correct representation of the text. How does the parser "know" to make it A '+' M So that it can reduce the whole expression to A, then S? In other words, how does it know to stop reducing before shifting the next token? Is this a key difficulty in LR parser generation?

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  • NoSuchMethod exception thrown in GWT

    - by eb1
    I'm starting to get my feet wet in the latest Google Web Toolkit using the Eclipse plugin on OS X 10.5.8. So far I've been able to get the client up and running, which is great. The server, though, is a different matter. I'm trying to link to a .jar file that has some classes I want to use in a server ServiceImpl class, but it seems to have glommed onto a previous iteration of the .jar - I've added a method, rebuilt the jar, removed the jar from the libraries tab on the GWT project's build path (as well as on the exports) and reincluded the jar. No luck - I'm still getting: [WARN] Exception while dispatching incoming RPC call com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract org.gwtapplication.client.LWDocument org.gwtapplication.client.DocumentService.getDocument()' threw an unexpected exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.encodeResponseForFailure(RPC.java:378) at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.invokeAndEncodeResponse(RPC.java:581) ... Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at org.application.server.DocumentServiceImpl.getDocument(DocumentServiceImpl.java:45) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) Eclipse's code sense has no problems resolving the MyReallyValidClass.toSomething() call, and there are no errors with other calls into the externalmodel classes. Any clue where I should be looking?

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  • String.Empty in strings, need some explanation if possible :)

    - by Pabuc
    Hello all, 2 days ago, there was a question related to string.LastIndexOf(String.Empty) returning the last index of string. So I thought that; a string can always contain string.empty between characters like: "testing" == "t" + String.Empty + "e" + String.Empty +"sting" + String.Empty; After this, I wanted to test if String.IndexOf(String.Empty) was returning 0 because since String.Empty can be between any char in a string, that would be what I expect it to return and I wasn't wrong. string testString = "testing"; int index = testString.LastIndexOf(string.Empty); // index is 6 index = testString.IndexOf(string.Empty); // index is 0 It actually returned 0. I started to think that if I could split a string with String.Empty, I would get at least 2 string and those would be String.Empty and rest of the string since String.IndexOf(String.Empty) returned 0 and String.LastIndexOf(String.Empty) returned length of the string.. Here is what I coded: string emptyString = string.Empty; char[] emptyStringCharArr = emptyString.ToCharArray(); string myDummyString = "abcdefg"; string[] result = myDummyString.Split(emptyStringCharArr); The problem here is, I can't obviously convert String.Empty to char[] and result in an empty string[]. I would really love to see the result of this operation and the reason behind this. So my questions are: Is there any way to split a string with String.Empty? If it is not possible but in an absolute world which it would be possible, would it return an array full of chars like [0] = "t" [1] = "e" [2] = "s" and so on or would it just return the complete string? Which would make more sense and why? Thank you for your time.

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  • How to write an iphone application to control a device that exposes a telnet api

    - by MAC
    Hi! I have to write an iphone application that controls a device. This device exposes a telnet based interface. The application should ideally have user access control and customizability for each user. I was thinking of writing C++ classes that would communicate with the device using sockets. This functionality can then be exposed through web-services that can be called by the iphone application. However as i looked into it deeper, the api allows you to register for events using telnet and then you can receive notification when those events occur. That kinda put a spanner in the works for me. I for one dont know a "push" scenario can work with webservices. First off i have never programmed for the iphone so far. So i am not really sure what can be done. So i was thinking if instead of having a webserver to go through, why not have the application independently running on the iphone, directly communicating with the device using sockets. The question though is, is that possible and second i am thinking it would raise a security aspect. First we could control security as everything was going through our central server. Is there a way to handle security (in the sense who has access to the device) without having a central server. I am sorry that this seems like an unorganized post, but iam trying to brainstorm here. Looking forward to hear your opinions.

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  • Large scale storage for incrementally-appended documents?

    - by Ben Dilts
    I need to store hundreds of thousands (right now, potentially many millions) of documents that start out empty and are appended to frequently, but never updated otherwise or deleted. These documents are not interrelated in any way, and just need to be accessed by some unique ID. Read accesses are some subset of the document, which almost always starts midway through at some indexed location (e.g. "document #4324319, save #53 to the end"). These documents start very small, at several KB. They typically reach a final size around 500KB, but many reach 10MB or more. I'm currently using MySQL (InnoDB) to store these documents. Each of the incremental saves is just dumped into one big table with the document ID it belongs to, so reading part of a document looks like "select * from saves where document_id=14 and save_id 53 order by save_id", then manually concatenating it all together in code. Ideally, I'd like the storage solution to be easily horizontally scalable, with redundancy across servers (e.g. each document stored on at least 3 nodes) with easy recovery of crashed servers. I've looked at CouchDB and MongoDB as possible replacements for MySQL, but I'm not sure that either of them make a whole lot of sense for this particular application, though I'm open to being convinced. Any input on a good storage solution?

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  • MEF = may experience frustration?

    - by Dave
    Well, it's not THAT bad yet. :) But I do have questions after Reed has pointed me at MEF as a potential alternative to IoC (and so far it does look pretty good). Consider the following model: As you can see, I have an App, and this app uses Plugins (whoops, missed that association!). Both the App and Plugins require usage of an object of type CandySettings, which is found in yet another assembly. I first tried to use the ComposeParts method in MEF, but the only way I could get this to work was to do something like this in the plugin code. var container = new CompositionContainer(); container.ComposeParts(this, new CandySettings()); But this doesn't make any sense, because why would I want to create the instance of CandySettings in the plugin? It should be in the App. But if I put it in the App code, then the Plugin doesn't magically figure out how to get at ICandySettings, even though I am using [Import] in the plugin, and [Export] in CandySettings. The way I did it was to use MEF's DirectoryCatalog, because this allows the plugin, when constructed, to scan all of the assemblies in the current folder and automagically import everything that is marked with the [Import] attribute. So it looks like this, and potentially in every plugin: var catalog = new DirectoryCatalog( "."); var container = new CompositionContainer( catalog); container.ComposeParts( this); This totally works great, but I can't help but think that this is not how MEF was intended to be used?

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  • basic javascript question on geolocation and googlemaps

    - by ade
    hello all, Im hoping that somebody can help me out on what i feel is an easy answer but I just cant get it to work out. Im trying to trap the geolocation lat and long and place it into the google maps api so far i have var myOptions = { zoom:7, trips:1, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), myOptions); directionsDisplay.setMap(map); var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; this works fine for what i want. how ever I want to be able to change Origin to the users lat long using the following script from google.maps.api. their code is: if(navigator.geolocation) { navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); var placeMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, }); map.setCenter(initialLocation); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } else { // Browser doesn't support Geolocation handleNoGeolocation(); } function handleNoGeolocation() { initialLocation = newyork; map.setCenter(initialLocation); } I want to pull out the navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); and allocate it two 2 varibles, myLat and myLong. I then want to be able to change my orignal script from var request = { origin: 'newyork' destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; to var request = { origin: myLat,myLong destination: 'deleware', travelMode: google.maps.DirectionsTravelMode.DRIVING }; Does this make sense..? Im currently having a pig with it and as im not a JS developer its what i think should be a simple bit of coding that im losing the battle with.. any thoughts..?

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  • Base 128 or 256 Encoding for the Binary Lexical Octet Adhoc Transport Protocol?

    - by Randolpho
    I'm in the process of implementing a network driver for the Binary Lexical Octet Adhoc Transport (BLOAT) protocols in the hopes of replacing the TCP/UDP/IP stack with a much more flexible XML structure. BLOAT is detailed in RFC 3252, so if you're unfamiliar with the protocol I highly recommend you read the entire RFC before providing any comments. Don't worry, it's short and sweet; you might even enjoy it. Anyway, my problem is this: BLOAT requires that the payload be Base64 encoded which doesn't make sense to me. I mean, sure, it's the internet standard for binary payloads, but there are better, more efficient encodings available: Base128 and Base256, for example. That the RFC requires Base64 and doesn't allow for any other payload encoding really bothers me. To that end, I'm considering a small optional change to the protocol. Embrace and extend, right? Anyway, I'd like to modify the payload element to accept an encoding attribute, which can extend the encoding to Base128 or Base256, or even to other encodings I can't conceive of at the moment. If the encoding attribute isn't present, Base64 would be assumed. So my question is this: should I? I mean, BLOAT is an accepted standard, even if it isn't exactly omnipresent. If I make this change, will there be compatibility issues? I don't foresee any, but perhaps you, oh great Stack Overflow Community, can? If I do implement this change, should I contact the original RFC author? Should I offer a supplemental RFC?

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  • TDD - testing business rules/validation in ASP.NET MVC

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I am using the sharp architecture so I can easily use mocks etc. in my unit tests and/or during TDD. I have quite complicated business rules and would like to test them at the controller level. I am just wondering how other people do this? For me validation tests business rules at three levels: (1) Property level (e.g. property is required) (2) Intra property level (e.g. start date < end date) (3) Persistence level (e.g. name is unique, parent cannot be child of child) My validation framework also assigns errors to properties. I am just wondering what other people do? Do you write a test for each business rule and check whether the correct error message is assigned to the correct property (i.e. looking at the ASP.MVC ModelState)? I hope my question makes sense. Thanks a lot! Best wishes, Christian

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  • ASP.NET MVC 4 async child action

    - by ShadowChaser
    I have an ASP.NET MVC 4 application targeting .NET 4.5. One of our child actions makes a call out to a web service using HttpClient. Since we're blocking on IO waiting for the HttpClient response, it makes a great deal of sense to convert the code to the async/await pattern. However, when MVC 4 attempts to execute the child action, we get the following error message: HttpServerUtility.Execute blocked while waiting for an asynchronous operation to complete. At first glance, it appears as though MVC 4 does not support async/await within a child action. The only remaining option is to run using synchronous code and force a "Wait" on the async task. As we all know, touching .Result or .Wait() on an async task in an ASP.NET context will cause an immediate deadlock. My async logic is wrapped in a class library, so I can't use the "await blah.ConfigureAwait(false)" trick. Remember, tagging "async" on the child action and using await causes an error, and that prevents me from configuring the await. I'm painted into a corner at this point. Is there any way to consume async methods in an MVC 4 child action? Seems like a flat out bug with no workarounds.

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  • Delegates in .NET: how are they constructed ?

    - by Saulius
    While inspecting delegates in C# and .NET in general, I noticed some interesting facts: Creating a delegate in C# creates a class derived from MulticastDelegate with a constructor: .method public hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(object 'object', native int 'method') runtime managed { } Meaning that it expects the instance and a pointer to the method. Yet the syntax of constructing a delegate in C# suggests that it has a constructor new MyDelegate(int () target) where I can recognise int () as a function instance (int *target() would be a function pointer in C++). So obviously the C# compiler picks out the correct method from the method group defined by the function name and constructs the delegate. So the first question would be, where does the C# compiler (or Visual Studio, to be precise) pick this constructor signature from ? I did not notice any special attributes or something that would make a distinction. Is this some sort of compiler/visualstudio magic ? If not, is the T (args) target construction valid in C# ? I did not manage to get anything with it to compile, e.g.: int () target = MyMethod; is invalid, so is doing anything with MyMetod, e.g. calling .ToString() on it (well this does make some sense, since that is technically a method group, but I imagine it should be possible to explicitly pick out a method by casting, e.g. (int())MyFunction. So is all of this purely compiler magic ? Looking at the construction through reflector reveals yet another syntax: Func CS$1$0000 = new Func(null, (IntPtr) Foo); This is consistent with the disassembled constructor signature, yet this does not compile! One final interesting note is that the classes Delegate and MulticastDelegate have yet another sets of constructors: .method family hidebysig specialname rtspecialname instance void .ctor(class System.Type target, string 'method') cil managed Where does the transition from an instance and method pointer to a type and a string method name occur ? Can this be explained by the runtime managed keywords in the custom delegate constructor signature, i.e. does the runtime do it's job here ?

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