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• sitemesh vs jsp-config (<include-prelude>)

  - by Nrj

  Please help clarifying : In web.xml I have the following <jsp-config> <jsp-property-group> <url-pattern>*.jsp</url-pattern> <el-ignored>false</el-ignored> <page-encoding>utf-8</page-encoding> <include-prelude>/jstlTaglibs.jspf</include-prelude> </jsp-property-group> </jsp-config> Also in decorators.xml I have <decorator name="footer" page="footer.jsp"> <pattern>*.action</pattern> </decorator> which is used via sitemesh.xml. The footer.jsp which says ... <decorator:body /> <@include .. "footer.jsp"/> So what I gather is, both of the codes above in a sense inject some jspf. Please help highlighting the differences and benefits of both the approaches. Also which one is more used across industry ?

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• Sync Vs. Async Sockets Performance in C#

  - by Michael Covelli

  Everything that I read about sockets in .NET says that the asynchronous pattern gives better performance (especially with the new SocketAsyncEventArgs which saves on the allocation). I think this makes sense if we're talking about a server with many client connections where its not possible to allocate one thread per connection. Then I can see the advantage of using the ThreadPool threads and getting async callbacks on them. But in my app, I'm the client and I just need to listen to one server sending market tick data over one tcp connection. Right now, I create a single thread, set the priority to Highest, and call Socket.Receive() with it. My thread blocks on this call and wakes up once new data arrives. If I were to switch this to an async pattern so that I get a callback when there's new data, I see two issues The threadpool threads will have default priority so it seems they will be strictly worse than my own thread which has Highest priority. I'll still have to send everything through a single thread at some point. Say that I get N callbacks at almost the same time on N different threadpool threads notifying me that there's new data. The N byte arrays that they deliver can't be processed on the threadpool threads because there's no guarantee that they represent N unique market data messages because TCP is stream based. I'll have to lock and put the bytes into an array anyway and signal some other thread that can process what's in the array. So I'm not sure what having N threadpool threads is buying me. Am I thinking about this wrong? Is there a reason to use the Async patter in my specific case of one client connected to one server?

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• Putting a versioned-but-not-via-source control project in source control

  - by Emilio

  I have some old code (an old but still maintained VB6 application) that from a source control point of view is the ultimate example of the plumber's plumbing (or cobbler's shoes). It's been version controlled by the approach of making a new directory for each version. Are there any major downsides to taking the following approach? Do the initial check-in of all files Erase all files from the working directory, then copy all files from the next version to the working directory Check them in Goto #2 until done Note that I have a general change log text file which I'd grab the comments from for each version I check in/commit. I don't have (or really care about at this point) comments on a per-file- basis. I don't really know at this point what files have changed between versions, and being lazy I figured I could avoid doing file compares between versions to find out, so that's why I'm taking the approach above. Not to mention that erasing all the files first allows file deletions to be detected. I specifically haven't mentioned which version control tool I'm using since I'm hoping (also assuming, but maybe very incorrectly) that the answer is fairly independent. When I use terms like "check-in" I use them in the general sense, not specific to a tool.

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• beginning oop php question: do constructors take the place of getter?

  - by Joel

  I'm working through this tutorial: http://www.killerphp.com/tutorials/object-oriented-php/php-objects-page-3.php At first he has you create a setter and getter method in the class: <?php class person{ var $name; function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } php?> And then you create the object and echo the results: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); ?> Works as expected, and I understand. Then he introduces constructors: class person{ var $name; function __construct($persons_name) { $this->name = $persons_name; } function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } And returns like so: <?php $joel = new person("Joel"); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?> This is all fine and makes sense. Then I tried to combine the two and got an error, so I'm curious-is a constructor always taking the place of a "get" function? If you have a constructor, do you always need to include an argument when creating an object? Gives errors: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $joel = new person("Joel Laviolette"); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?>

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• overriding the Home Key Long press in a category.HOME activity.

  - by Profete162

  Hello all, I just created my own "Home" to replace the stock android one or Sense. All is working fine and I get all I want. My only problem is to replace to long press on home key ( that usually show the last 6 activities you launched) by my own launcher. I successfully replace the long press on MENU button with this code: @Override public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //Log.i(TAG,"Keycode: "+keyCode); if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_MENU) { // this tells the framework to start tracking for // a long press and eventual key up. it will only // do so if this is the first down (not a repeat). event.startTracking(); return true; } (...) and this part part for the long press: @Override public boolean onKeyLongPress(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { //Log.i(TAG,"LONG"+keyCode); Toast.makeText(Launcher.this,"LONG "+keyCode, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); if (keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_MENU) { (...) But the problem is that I wasn't able to replace the KeyEvent.KEYCODE_MENU with KeyEvent.KEYCODE_HOME is that something locked in the code that avoid user to use a Home long press? Thank a lot for all the information you woulg give me.

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• Pointing non-www to a spcific sub-directory

  - by Ben Sinclair

  I might be going about this all wrong so let me know if I am. I am creating software that allows people to sign up and have their own sub-domain on my website. So say my website is ben.com, they could have their own sub-domain called juice.ben.com. When they type their sub-domain juice.ben.com in their address bar, it will load the contents in a root directory. I have also set-up a .htaccess redirect to redirect www.ben.com to ben.com. Not sure if this matters with my question but I thought I'd mention it. Ok, so basically what I think I need to do is put the software they they've signed up to in the root directory. So when someone goes to juice.ben.com, they will be pointed to the root directory (I beleive I cans et-up wild card sub-domains with my host) and the software will then analyse their sub-domain and then display their account. Now, if someone just types in ben.com into their browser, I want it to show the contents of the ben.com/_website/ folder but still show in the address bar that they are still in the root directory. Hopefully I am making sense :) Is this possible with htaccess? If so, what do I need to do?

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• How to authenticate a Windows Mobile client calling web services in a Web App

  - by cdonner

  I have a fairly complex business application written in ASP.NET that is deployed on a hosted server. The site uses Forms Authentication, and there are about a dozen different roles defined. Employees and customers are both users of the application. Now I have the requirement to develop a Windows Mobile client for the application that allows a very specialized set of tasks to be performed from a device, as opposed to a browser on a laptop. The client wants to increase productivity with this measure. Only employees will use this application. I feel that it would make sense to re-use the security infrastructure that is already in place. The client does not need offline capability. My thought is to deploy a set of web services to a folder of the existing site that only the new role "web service" has access to, and to use Forms Authentication (from a Windows Mobile 5/.Net 3.5 client). Can I do that, is that a good idea, and are there any code examples/references that you can point me to?

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• WPF Dispatcher.UnhandledException within a ShowDialog call.

  - by Eric

  It appears that ShowDialog() invokes the Dispatcher message handling loop within. Thus, you have a stack that looks something like: Outer-most Dispatcher message loop ... x.ShowDialog() Inner Dispatcher message loop ... I am using the Dispatcher.UnhandledException to catch exceptions not handled by my code. However, it appears that the Inner Dispatcher message loop, above, is undesirably catching exceptions that my code would catch. Example: Outer-most Dispatcher message loop try/catch FooException ... x.ShowDialog() Inner Dispatcher message loop ... throw FooException What I would like is for the thrown FooException to get caught by the try/catch. However. It gets caught first by the (inner) Dispatcher.UnhandledException. I see there are ways to filter the exception. However, those filters will apply to both the inner and outer most handlers. What I am looking for is to have my Dispatcher.UnhandledException code run only on the outer-most dispatcher message loop. Does that make sense? I could, of course, reflect the call stack from within my handler to see if this is the outer-most dispatcher, but that seems a bit fragile. Other ideas? Thanks! Eric

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• solve a classic map-reduce problem with opencl?

  - by liuliu

  I am trying to parallel a classic map-reduce problem (which can parallel well with MPI) with OpenCL, namely, the AMD implementation. But the result bothers me. Let me brief about the problem first. There are two type of data that flow into the system: the feature set (30 parameters for each) and the sample set (9000+ dimensions for each). It is a classic map-reduce problem in the sense that I need to calculate the score of every feature on every sample (Map). And then, sum up the overall score for every feature (Reduce). There are around 10k features and 30k samples. I tried different ways to solve the problem. First, I tried to decompose the problem by features. The problem is that the score calculation consists of random memory access (pick some of the 9000+ dimensions and do plus/subtraction calculations). Since I cannot coalesce memory access, it costs. Then, I tried to decompose the problem by samples. The problem is that to sum up overall score, all threads are competing for few score variables. It keeps overwriting the score which turns out to be incorrect. (I cannot carry out individual score first and sum up later because it requires 10k * 30k * 4 bytes). The first method I tried gives me the same performance on i7 860 CPU with 8 threads. However, I don't think the problem is unsolvable: it is remarkably similar to ray tracing problem (for which you carry out calculation that millions of rays against millions of triangles). Any ideas?

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• Using Jquery UI Tab control in ASP.NET MVC

  - by mike3333

  I am new to jquery and am trying out UI plugins. For some reason this following code does not work, in the sense, it does not render the tabs and it's just a bunch of text. But when I copy the page source and paste it in the html page, and put it in the views folder, everything looks great, so , I assume all the js paths are good. Any ideas? <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> Details $(document).ready(function() { $("#tabs").tabs(); }); <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="#tabs-1">Text 1</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-2">Text 2</a></li> <li><a href="#tabs-3">Text 3</a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <div>tab1 content - adsfadfadsf</div> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <div>tab 2 content -adfadfadf </div> </div> <div id="tabs-3"> <div>tab 3 content -adfadfadfadf</div> </div> </div> </div>

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• How Do I Use jQuery/JavaScript To Open A Popup Window/Tab (ASPX Login Page) & Then Pass Values To Op

  - by Terry Robinson

  Hi All, We currently have two asp.net 2.x web applications and we need to perform the following functionality: From one application, we want to auto-login to the other web application automatically in a new tab; using the same browser instance/window. So the process is: Open New Window/Tab With Second System URL/Login Page Wait For Popup Window/Tab Page To Load (DOM Ready?) OnPopupDomReady { Get Usename, Password, PIN Controls (jQuery Selectors) and Populate In Code Then Click Login Button (All Programatically). } I am currently using JavaScript to Open the window as follows: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href')); return false; }); }); </script> I would like to use jQuery chaining functionality if possible to extent the method above so that I can attach a DOM Ready event to the popped up page and then use that event to call a method on the code behind of the popped up page to automatically login. Something similar to this (Note: The Following Code Sample Does Not Work, It Is Here To Try And Help Illustrate What We Are Trying To Achieve)... <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('a[rel="external"]').click(function () { window.open($(this).attr('href').ready(function () { // Use JavaScript (Pref. jQuery Partial Control Name Selectors) To Populate Username/Password TextBoxes & Click Login Button. }) }); }); </script> Our Architecture Is As Follows: We have the source for both products (ASP.NET WebSite[s]) and they are run under different app. pools in IIS. I hope this all makes sense, and if my plan is not going to work, please provide hints ;) Thanks All/Kind Regards, Terry Robinson.

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• C#: Sum of even fibonacci numbers

  - by user300484

  Hello you all! im developping an application that will find the sum of all even terms of the fibonacci sequence. The last term of this sequence is 4,000,000 . There is something wrong in my code but I cannot find the problem since it makes sense to me. Can you please help me? using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { long[] arr = new long [1000000] ; long i= 2; arr[i-2]=1; arr[i-1]=2; long n= arr[i]; long s=0; for (i=2 ; n <= 4000000; i++) { arr[i] = arr[(i - 1)] + arr[(i - 2)]; } for (long f = 0; f <= arr.Length - 1; f++) { if (arr[f] % 2 == 0) s += arr[f]; } Console.Write(s); Console.Read(); } } }

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• Content Management System Where the Content needs to reside

  - by lee

  Hi, We are developing a Online Ordering Website and we are planning to be completely flexible in the sense Layout can be changed, Color, Font , and in a page a component(div) can be added. In this case whether we need to store all our View Code for example <div id="MenuContent"> <div> <h4> Your Order</h4> <hr /> <%if (Model != null) { %> <table width="100%"> <thead> <tr> <th> Item </th> <th> Quantity </th> <th> Price </th> <th> Remove </th> <th> Total </th> </tr> </thead> ...... in the database or we can just store the div id and based on that load a view which is avalaible in the file system. Any Pointers is greatly appreciated.

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• Create your own custom browser

  - by ShoX

  Hi, I want to shape my own browser or at least modify a existing one so far that it meets my needs. I want a fast browser (starting and running, not necessarily faster rendering) without any stuff I don't use and simple productive navigation (like Firefox + Vimperator + Tree Style Tab), only much more integrated into each other and a different GUI. I was thinking about just looking into the current two top browsers chrome and firefox (open-source wise) and branch my own smaller version out of it. By just using WebKit or Gecko I will have to implement all the Connection-stuff, too, but I really am not interested in doing that. So my questions are: Does it make sense to start off with a current browser and strip off certain features and the frontend and replace it with my own code? Chrome or Firefox? Which one is less complex? I don't care much about Plugins and Extensions, so they aren't they pretty much even in features otherwise? Thanks for your answers p.s.: It's a just-for-fun at-home project, so please no "just use the browsers..."-stuff...

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• XmlDocument SelectNodes(Xpath): Order of result

  - by crauscher

  This is an example xml from MSDN <?xml version="1.0"?> <!-- A fragment of a book store inventory database --> <bookstore xmlns:bk="urn:samples"> <book genre="novel" publicationdate="1997" bk:ISBN="1-861001-57-8"> <title>Pride And Prejudice</title> </book> <book genre="novel" publicationdate="1992" bk:ISBN="1-861002-30-1"> <title>The Handmaid's Tale</title> </book> <book genre="novel" publicationdate="1991" bk:ISBN="1-861001-57-6"> <title>Emma</title> </book> <book genre="novel" publicationdate="1982" bk:ISBN="1-861001-45-3"> <title>Sense and Sensibility</title> </book> </bookstore> When I select all book nodes using the following code, which order will these nodes have? XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load("booksort.xml"); var nodeList =doc.SelectNodes("bookstore/book"); Will the order of the items in the nodelist be the same as the order in the xml? Is this order guaranteed?

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• How does the recursion here work?

  - by David

  code 1: public static int fibonacci (int n){ if (n == 0 || n == 1) { return 1; } else { return fibonacci (n-1) + fibonacci (n-2); } } how can you use fibonacci if you haven't gotten done explaining what it is yet? I've been able to understand using recursion in other cases like this: code two: class two { public static void two (int n) { if (n>0) { System.out.println (n) ; two (n-1) ; } else { return ; } } public static void main (String[] arg) { two (12) ; } } In the case of code 2 though n will eventualy reach a point at which it doesnt satisfy n0 and the method will stop calling itself recursivly. in the case of code 2 though i don't see how it would be able to get itself from 1 if n=1 was the starting point to 2 and 3 and 5 and so on. Also i don't see how the line `return fibonacci (n-1) + fibonacci (n-2) would work since fibbonacci n-2 has to contain in some sense fibonacci n-1 in order to wrok but it isn't there yet. I know my question is worded poorly but looking at this is making my mind explode. the book i'm looking at says it will work. how does it work? `

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• Does Google Maps API v3 allow larger zoom values ?

  - by Dr1Ku

  If you use the satellite GMapType using this Google-provided example in v3 of the API, the maximum zoom level has a scale of 2m / 10ft , whereas using the v2 version of another Google-provided example (had to use another one since the control-simple doesn't have the scale control) yields the maximum scale of 20m / 50ft. Is this a new "feature" of v3 ? I have to mention that I've tested the examples in the same GLatLng regions - so my guess is that tile detail level doesn't influence it, am I mistaken ? As mentioned in another question, v3 is to be considered of very Labs-y/beta quality, so use in production should be discouraged for the time being. I've been drawn to the subject since I have to "increase the zoom level of a GMap", the answers here seem to suggest using GTileLayer, and I'm considering GMapCreator, although this will involve some effort. What I'm trying to achieve is to have a larger zoom level, a scale of 2m / 10ft would be perfect, I have a map where the tiles aren't that hi-res and quite a few markers. Seeing that the area doesn't have hi-res tiles, the distance between the markers is really tiny, creating some problematic overlapping. Or better yet, how can you create a custom Map which allows higher zoom levels, as by the Google Campus, where the 2m / 10ft scale is achieved, and not use your own tileserver ? I've seen an example on a fellow Stackoverflower's GMaps sandbox , where the tiles are manually created based on the zoom level. I don't think I'm making any more sense, so I'm just going to end this big question here, I've been wondering around trying to find a solution for hours now. Hope that someone comes to my aid though ! Thank you in advance !

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• Which pattern should be used for editing properties with modal view controller on iPhone?

  - by Matthew Daugherty

  I am looking for a good pattern for performing basic property editing via a modal view on the iPhone. Assume I am putting together an application that works like the Contacts application. The "detail" view controller displays all of the contact's properties in a UITableView. When the UITableView goes into edit mode a disclosure icon is displayed in the cells. Clicking a cell causes a modal "editor" view controller to display a view that allows the user to modify the selected property. This view will often contain only a single text box or picker. The user clicks Cancel/Save and the "editor" view is dismissed and the "detail" view is updated. In this scenario, which view is responsible for updating the model? The "editor" view could update the property directly using Key-Value Coding. This appears in the CoreDataBooks example. This makes sense to me on some level because it treats the property as the model for the editor view controller. However, this is not the pattern suggested by the View Controller Programming Guide. It suggests that the "editor" view controller should define a protocol that the "detail" controller adopts. When the user indicates they are done with the edit, the "detail" view controller is called back with the entered value and it dismisses the "editor" view. Using this approach the "detail" controller updates the model. This approach seems problematic if you are using the same "editor" view for multiple properties since there is only a single call-back method. Would love to get some feedback on what approach works best.

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• Clear UIWebView content upon dismissal of modal view (iPhone OS 3.0)

  - by Ricky

  I currently have a UIWebView that is displayed within a modal view. It is basically a detail view that provides a view of a page when the user clicks a link. When the view is dismissed and then brought up again (when the user clicks another link), the previously-loaded content is still visible and the new content loads "on top" of the last content. This makes sense because the instance of the UIWebView persists between sessions and is only released when the memory is needed. However, I would like to completely clear the UIWebView when the modal view is dismissed so that 1) content is cleared and 2) memory is freed. Thus far my research and attempts have not found an answer. These links haven't worked for me: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2184688/is-it-possible-to-free-memory-of-uiwebview http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2311564/reused-uiwebview-showing-previous-loaded-content-for-a-brief-second-on-iphone I've tried [[NSURLCache sharedURLCache] removeAllCachedResponses]; and setting the webView to nil and manually releasing the webView upon modal-view-dismiss to no avail. Any thoughts from the wizened masses?

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• When to use custom exceptions vs. existing exceptions vs. generic exceptions

  - by Ryan Elkins

  I'm trying to figure out what the correct form of exceptions to throw would be for a library I am writing. One example of what I need to handle is logging a user in to a station. They do this by scanning a badge. Possible things that could go wrong include: Their badge is deactivated They don't have permission to work at this station The badge scanned does not exist in the system They are already logged in to another station elsewhere The database is down Internal DB error (happens sometimes if the badge didn't get set up correctly) An application using this library will have to handle these exceptions one way or another. It's possible they may decide to just say "Error" or they may want to give the user more useful information. What's the best practice in this situation? Create a custom exception for each possibility? Use existing exceptions? Use Exception and pass in the reason (throw new Exception("Badge is deactivated.");)? I'm thinking it's some sort of mix of the first two, using existing exceptions where applicable, and creating new ones where needed (and grouping exceptions where it makes sense).

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• Cast exception when trying to create new Task Schedueler task.

  - by seaneshbaugh

  I'm attempting to create a new task in the Windows Task Scheduler in C#. What I've got so far is pretty much a copy and paste of http://bartdesmet.net/blogs/bart/archive/2008/02/23/calling-the-task-scheduler-in-windows-vista-and-windows-server-2008-from-managed-code.aspx Everything compiles just fine but come run time I get the following exception: Unable to cast COM object of type 'System.__ComObject' to interface type 'TaskScheduler.ITimeTrigger'. This operation failed because the QueryInterface call on the COM component for the interface with IID '{B45747E0-EBA7-4276-9F29-85C5BB300006}' failed due to the following error: No such interface supported (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004002 (E_NOINTERFACE)). Here's all the code so you can see what I'm doing here without following the above link. TaskSchedulerClass Scheduler = new TaskSchedulerClass(); Scheduler.Connect(null, null, null, null); ITaskDefinition Task = Scheduler.NewTask(0); Task.RegistrationInfo.Author = "Test Task"; Task.RegistrationInfo.Description = "Just testing this out."; ITimeTrigger Trigger = (ITimeTrigger)Task.Triggers.Create(_TASK_TRIGGER_TYPE2.TASK_TRIGGER_DAILY); Trigger.Id = "TestTrigger"; Trigger.StartBoundary = "2010-05-12T06:15:00"; IShowMessageAction Action = (IShowMessageAction)Task.Actions.Create(_TASK_ACTION_TYPE.TASK_ACTION_SHOW_MESSAGE); Action.Id = "TestAction"; Action.Title = "Test Task"; Action.MessageBody = "This is a test."; ITaskFolder Root = Scheduler.GetFolder("\\"); IRegisteredTask RegisteredTask = Root.RegisterTaskDefinition("Background Backup", Task, (int)_TASK_CREATION.TASK_CREATE_OR_UPDATE, null, null, _TASK_LOGON_TYPE.TASK_LOGON_INTERACTIVE_TOKEN, ""); The line that is throwing the exception is this one ITimeTrigger Trigger = (ITimeTrigger)Task.Triggers.Create(_TASK_TRIGGER_TYPE2.TASK_TRIGGER_DAILY); The exception message kinda makes sense to me, but I'm afraid I don't know enough about COM to really know where to begin with this. Also, I should add that I'm using VS 2010 and I had to set the project to either be for x86 or x64 CPU's instead of the usual "Any CPU" because it kept giving me a BadImageFormatException. I doubt that's related to my current problem, but just in case I thought I might as well mention it.

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• WPF: Textbox not firing onTextInput event

  - by Kay Ell

  So basically, I have a bunch of TextBoxes that the user gets to fill out. I've got a button that I want to keep disabled until all the TextBoxes have had text entered in them. Here is a sample XAML TextBox that I'm using: <TextBox Name="DelayedRecallScore" TextInput="CheckTextBoxFilled" Width="24" /> And here is the function that I'm trying to trigger: //Disables the OK button until all score textboxes have content private void CheckTextBoxFilled(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { /* foreach (TextBox scorebox in TextBoxList) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(scorebox.Text)) { Ok_Button.IsEnabled = false; return; } } Ok_Button.IsEnabled = true; */ MessageBox.Show("THIS MAKES NO SENSE"); } The MessageBox is not showing up when TextInput should be getting triggered. As an experiment I tried triggering CheckTextBoxFilled() on PreviewTextInput, and it worked fine then, meaning that for whatever reason, the function just isn't getting called. I also have a validation function that is triggered by PreviewTextInput, which works as it should. At first I thought PreviewTextInput might somehow be interfering with TextInput, so I took PreviewTextInput off the TextBox, but that hasn't managed to fix anything. I'm completely befuddled by why this might happen, so any help would be appreciated.

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• Populating array of input fields as alternate fields using jQuery UI datepicker

  - by Micor

  I am using jquery ui datepicker in order to populate start and end dates for multiple events on the same page, the number of events is dynamic and I need to post day, month and year as separate fields, so I have something like this: <input type="text" name="event[0].startDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_day" class="startDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_month" class="startDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].startDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> <input type="text" name="event[0].endDate" class="date"/> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_day" class="endDate_day" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_month" class="endDate_month" /> <input type="hidden" name="event[0].endDate_year" class="startDate_year" /> event[1]... event[2]... I started working on jQuery functionality and this is what I have so far, which will populate alternate fields for startDate by class, of course it will not do what I need because I need to populate by field name rather then class: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('.startDate_month').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('.startDate_day').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('.startDate_year').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); I need help figuring out how can I get the name of the input field within datepicker function so the alternate field assignment done by that field name + _day, month, year so this function can work for all the events on the page, making function above look more like: $(".date").datepicker({ onClose: function(dateText,picker) { $('input[' + $name + '_month' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[0] ); $('input[' + $name + '_day' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[1] ); $('input[' + $name + '_year' + ']').val( dateText.split(/\//)[2] ); }}); Hope that makes sense :) Thanks

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• Castle Windsor with ASP.NET MVC 2 Areas

  - by Doug Shontz

  Been lurking for a few months and decided to jump in with a question. I am very new to Windsor and IoC in general. I can get Windsor to work with my MVC2 project with no problem. The project I am working on is a "portal" of multiple applications under one MVC2 project using the new Areas concept. In this scenario, each Area will actually be a separate application inside the "portal". We are doing this to effectively share a LOT of common code, views, authentication, and cross-application functionality. Many of our apps link to one another, so it made sense after discussing it to combine them into one project. What I am wondering how to do is actually allow different Areas to inject different concrete classes? In my limited understanding, the Application_Start is governing building the container and assigning it as the controller factory. I don't necessarily want to do all the injection at the application level. We have a config system where we have a config.xml at the root of every Area and those settings override any root settings. I would like to continue that trend by having the injections for each Area be read by the Area's config.xml (an inheritance similar to Webforms web.config where the config in a lower folder overrides settings in a parent folder). Example: I would have an ILogHandler which would need a different concrete implementation depending on which Area of the application I am in. So I would need to inject something different depending on where I am at in the application. I can easily do this using factories since each area could have it's own set of factories, but I am attempting to take this opportunity to learn about IoC and what the benefits/drawbacks are. Any help would be appreciated.

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• Resolving ambiguous this pointer in C++

  - by Paul Tevis

  I'm trying to derive a new class from an old one. The base class declaration looks like this: class Driver : public Plugin, public CmdObject { protected: Driver(); public: static Driver* GetInstance(); virtual Engine& GetEngine(); public: // Plugin methods... virtual bool InitPlugin (Mgr* pMgr); virtual bool Open(); virtual bool Close(); // CmdObject virtual bool ExecObjCmd(uint16 cmdID, uint16 nbParams, CommandParam *pParams, CmdChannelError& error); Mgr *m_pMgr; protected: Services *m_pServices; Engine m_Engine; }; Its constructor looks like this: Driver::Driver() : YCmdObject("Driver", (CmdObjectType)100, true), m_Engine("MyEngine") { Services *m_pServices = NULL; Mgr *m_pMgr = NULL; } So when I created my derived class, I first tried to simply inherit from the base class: class NewDriver : public Driver and copy the constructor: NewDriver::NewDriver() : CmdObject("NewDriver", (EYCmdObjectType)100, true), m_Engine("MyNewEngine") { Services *m_pServices = NULL; Mgr *m_pMgr = NULL; } The compiler (VisualDSP++ 5.0 from Analog Devices) didn't like this: ".\NewDriver.cpp", line 10: cc0293: error: indirect nonvirtual base class is not allowed CmdObject("NewDriver", (EYCmdObjectType)100, true), That made sense, so I decided to directly inherit from Plugin and CmdObject. To avoid multiple inheritance ambiguity problems (so I thought), I used virtual inheritance: class NewDriver : public Driver, public virtual Plugin, public virtual CmdObject But then, in the implementation of a virtual method in NewDriver, I tried to call the Mgr::RegisterPlugin method that takes a Plugin*, and I got this: ".\NewDriver.cpp", line 89: cc0286: error: base class "Plugin" is ambiguous if (!m_pMgr->RegisterPlugin(this)) How is the this pointer ambiguous, and how do I resolve it? Thanks, --Paul

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