Search Results

Search found 6928 results on 278 pages for 'calling'.

Page 164/278 | < Previous Page | 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171  | Next Page >

  • I want to retrieve some information based on Caller ID

    - by Hassan Al-Jeshi
    Hello, my friend has a Real Estate company that receives a lot of phone calls everyday. He wants to have a solution such that when somebody call to his company, the operator sees all the information about the person who is calling based on the database he have right now and the caller ID. Is there a ready made software or solution that can do the job?? Since I'm a software engineer myself, I would never mind developing something from scratch or built on a ready made system (with a team of course), but I need some direction on how to start?? Notes: 1- cost is not an issue 2- the customers database is there but we never mind replacing it in a format to suit the new solution Best Regards,

    Read the article

  • Increase the TCP receive window for a specific socket

    - by rursw1
    Hi, How to increase the TCP receive window for a specific socket? - I know how to do so for all the sockets by setting the registry key TcpWindowSize, but how do do that for a specific one? According to MSFT's documents, the way is Calling the Windows Sockets function setsockopt, which sets the receive window on a per-socket basis. But in setsockopt, it is mentioned about SO_RCVBUF : Specifies the total per-socket buffer space reserved for receives. This is unrelated to SO_MAX_MSG_SIZE and does not necessarily correspond to the size of the TCP receive window. So is it possible? How? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to show ajax loading gif only for a specific request?

    - by innerJL
    How do you show ajax gif only for a specific request? For example my page is calling a web-service every 30 seconds in a background, and I don't want to show the gif during this callback. On the other hand I want to show the gif, when I'am making manual ajax requests. I am using jQuery. edit: I didn't setup the global handler as shown here http://api.jquery.com/ajaxStart/, just by attaching to the .ajaxStart event. But I don't want to show/hide the gif manually on every request too. I need some generic solution.

    Read the article

  • Alternative to "assign to a function call" in a python

    - by Pythonista's Apprentice
    I'm trying to solve this newbie puzzle: I've created this function: def bucket_loop(htable, key): bucket = hashtable_get_bucket(htable, key) for entry in bucket: if entry[0] == key: return entry[1] else: return None And I have to call it in two other functions (bellow) in the following way: to change the value of the element entry[1] or to append to this list (entry) a new element. But I can't do that calling the function bucket_loop the way I did because "you can't assign to function call" (assigning to a function call is illegal in Python). What is the alternative (most similar to the code I wrote) to do this (bucket_loop(htable, key) = value and hashtable_get_bucket(htable, key).append([key, value]))? def hashtable_update(htable, key, value): if bucket_loop(htable, key) != None: bucket_loop(htable, key) = value else: hashtable_get_bucket(htable, key).append([key, value]) def hashtable_lookup(htable, key): return bucket_loop(htable, key) Thanks, in advance, for any help! This is the rest of the code to make this script works: def make_hashtable(size): table = [] for unused in range(0, size): table.append([]) return table def hash_string(s, size): h = 0 for c in s: h = h + ord(c) return h % size def hashtable_get_bucket(htable, key): return htable[hash_string(key, len(htable))] Similar question (but didn't help me): Python: Cannot Assign Function Call

    Read the article

  • How can I resolve naming conflict in given precompiled libraries?

    - by asm
    I'm linking two different libraries that have functions with exactly same name (it's opengl32.lib and libgles_cm.lib - OpenGL ES emulation under Win32 platform), and I want to be able to specify, which version I'm calling. I'm porting a game to OpenGL ES, and what I want to achieve, is a split-screen rendering, where left side is an OpenGL version, and right side is a ES version. To produce the same result, they will recieve slightly different calls, and I'll be able to visually compare them, effectively finding visual artifacts. It worked perfectly with OpenGL/DirectX at the same window, but now the problem is that both versions imports the functions with the same name, like glDrawArrays, and only one version is imported. Unfortunately, I don't have sources of any of that libraries. Is there a way to... I dont' know, wrap one library into additional namespace before linking (with calls like ES::glDrawArrays), somehow rename some of functions or do anything else? I'm using microsoft compiler now, but if there will be solution with another one (GCC/ICC), I'll switch to it.

    Read the article

  • delete data using entity framework

    - by user3474542
    The objective of the method below is to delete the data from the database using entity framework. I am populating the subscriptions entity by passing two parameters and then calling the atttach and remove method of the context class. Bureau entities is the context class. using (BUREAUEntities bureauEntities = new BUREAUEntities()) { var subscription = new SubcriptionRepository().GetSusbcriptionBySubscriptionTypeId(subscriptionTypeId, companyId); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Remove(subscription); bureauEntities.SaveChanges(); } I am getting the following error message at An entity object cannot be referenced by multiple instances of IEntityChangeTracker at line bureauEntities.Subscriptions.Attach((DataAccessLayer.DatabaseModel.Subscription)subscription); Could somebody tell me where am I going wrong ?

    Read the article

  • Make multiple lightboxes (facebox) execute one after each other.

    - by Jigs
    I have a php application that sometimes creates two lightboxes on the same page - the result is the last one to be called is the only one shown. How might I ensure that they show one after anohter? I call a facebox at the bottom of the page like so: jQuery.facebox('blah'); Currently multiple facebox's are called like so: jQuery.facebox('blah');jQuery.facebox('blah2'); But only blah2 will ever show. I need to wait for 'blah' to close before calling 'blah2'...

    Read the article

  • Where to put a recursive function when following MVC?

    - by Glibly
    Hello, I have a recursive function being used to generate a menu on my site. The function is calling a database for each level of children in the menu, and generating html for them. I've currently put this function in a Model part of the code, however, I feel that generating html in the model goes against the MVC. I didn't put it in a Controller because I didn't want to have database calls or HTML generation there. I didn't put it in a View because I didn't want database calls there either. Is the 'correct' way of tackling this problem to have a Controller call a recursive function in a Model that returns a 2d array representing the menu. Then pass the array to a view which has it's own recursive function for generating html from the array?

    Read the article

  • How to calculate number of leap years between two years in C#

    - by Vlad Bezden
    Hi All, Is there a better way to calculate number of leap years between two years. Assuming I have start date and end date. I have my code, but I think there should be more elegant way. calling code: var numberOfLeapYears = NumberOfLeapYears(startDate.Year + 1, endDate.Year - 1); function itself: private static int NumberOfLeapYears(int startYear, int endYear) { var counter = 0; for (var year = startYear; year <= endYear; year++) counter += DateTime.IsLeapYear(year) ? 1 : 0; return counter; } So if I have startDate = "10/16/2006" and endDate = "4/18/2004" I should only have 1 leap year (2000) in result. Another words startDate's Year and endDate's year should not be calculated, only years in between. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How do I get the username in Java (ie, who -m in Java) (or Jython 2.1)

    - by amertune
    Here's the situation. I have a jython 2.1 script in a shared account that needs to know who is calling it. In bash, I can simply use 'who -m' and it will give me the correct username. I haven't been able to find anything in java (or jython) that would give me a similar result. Even trying to call Runtime.getRuntime().exec("who -m") doesn't do anything. When I try to read the InputStream from the process returned by exec, the stream is empty.

    Read the article

  • Comment Author Link on Wordpress

    - by knightrider
    Hello, At the wordpress form, when you leave comment as guest, there's a website field to fill your web address. If we fill in that box, we can get the link by calling this function <?php echo get_comment_author_link(); ?> But if you are logged in and you don't add the website at your profile, when you leave comment. It doesn't have the link on your username. What I want is, if the logged-in user doesn't have the website, there will be the link which will be carry them to their profile page which is something like http://www.example.com?author=21 Is there any function that i can use out there ? Please help me out. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Issue with webview with emulator and some devices Android

    - by Yasir Khan
    I am developing an application that is focuses on on WebView i am loading map from a webpage and calling subsequent java script request on it but i do not know what is happening with Galaxy Tab 7' and my emulator too after running well first time if i visit the application again its just showing blank page. Code: mMapView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); mMapView.clearCache(true); mMapView.setScrollBarStyle(View.SCROLLBARS_INSIDE_OVERLAY); mMapView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); mMapView.loadUrl(mapurl); mMapView.setWebViewClient(new WebViewClient() { public void onPageFinished(WebView view, String url) { Log.e("Page loading","Url is :"+url); } @Override public boolean shouldOverrideUrlLoading(WebView view, String url) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub view.loadUrl(url); return true; } }); initially i thought its a cache problem and i added clearcache() without any help. :-(

    Read the article

  • how to use proxy with JSON

    - by Dele
    I have a php page called 'dataFetch.php' which sits on one webserver. On another webserver, I have a JS file which issues JSON calls to dataFetch. dataFetch connects to a database, retrieves data and puts it in a JSON format which is fed back to the calling program. In IE, this works fine. In other browsers it does not because of the cross domain restriction. To get across the cross-domain restriction, I make a call to a file, proxy.php, which then makes the call to dataFetch. My problem now is that proxy.php retrieves the file from dataFetch but the JS script file no longer sees the response from proxy.php as a JSON format and so I can't process it. Can anybody help me out?

    Read the article

  • Validating call to web service against schema before sending request

    - by Cen
    I am calling a web service (written in Java) in my web app. I use the WSDL to generate proxy classes using the wsdl.exe command line tool. Everything is working fine. However, I have found out that the web service is not doing any data validation at all when they receive a request from my app. Hence, if I happen to send one minute piece of data that isn't exactly what they want, I receive a general fault error in return, with no specifics at all of what the incorrect (if any) piece of data is. So, before I make the request, I'd like to validate my request against the schema they have provided. Is this possible, and if so, how do I go about this? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to protect access to a url?

    - by ibiza
    I would need to create a php file that will do some work on my webserver and that will be called from a program on another server over the internet. Suppose the php file that will do the work is located at www.example.com/work.php What is the best way to protect unsollicited calls to the www.example.com/work.php? What I need is some mechanism so that when the intended program accesses the url (with some query string parameters), the work gets done, but if somebody type www.example.com/work.php in their browser, access will be denied and no work will be done. The way I've thought is to add some 'token' in the querystring that would be constructed by some algorithm from the calling program, a sample result could be to append to the url : ?key=randomKeyAtEachCall&token=SomeHexadecimalResultCalculatedFromTheKey and the key and token would be validated with a reverse algorithm on the php side. Is that safe, Are there any better idea?

    Read the article

  • In WPF, how do I update the object that my custom property is bound to?

    - by Timothy Khouri
    I have a custom property that works perfectly, except when it's bound to an object. The reason is that once the following code is executed: base.SetValue(ValueProperty, value); ... then my control is no longer bound. I know this because calling: base.GetBindingExpression(ValueProperty); ... returns the binding object perfectly - UNTIL I call base.SetValue. So my question is, how do I pass the new "value" on to the object that I'm bound to?

    Read the article

  • How to add .Net3.5 dll into .Net2.0 project?

    - by macias
    I have a dll which is based on .net 3.5 -- it uses internally for example Linq, but the exposed API is straightforward, no fancy stuff. Since C# generics are resolved at compile time I assume that for calling party all it counts is API (all public parts). However when I try to use this dll from net2.0 project I get info, that the dll cannot be referenced because the dll or one of its dependencies requires a later version of .net framework. I can install any .net version I want on target computer (when entire app is installed), but I cannot change .net version for the project itself. So: how to solve this? When adding a C dll to this project I had no such problems, so are C# dlls self-contained or not?

    Read the article

  • Can I attach a .NET TraceListener to an externally running process?

    - by BBlake
    I am developing an application scheduling program that will run other applications using System.Diagnostics.Process. The external applications are of various types (some .NET and some not). For those external apps that have trace logging enabled, is there a way that I can attach the tracelistener of the parent/calling application to listen to and record all the trace output from the child/called application to the parent application's trace output? This is not primarily for debugging purposes. This is more to track trace output from all the various scheduled applications by collecting it into one place as much as possible. The scheduler app is still in the early design stages, but will be .NET, and I'm trying to clear up potential design issues before I get into it too far.

    Read the article

  • Determining Terminal lines/cols via PHP CLI

    - by eFrane
    I know that it is quite easy to figure out a terminal's size parameters via the stty -a command. When using local CLI PHP scripts, there is no problem at all on grabbing that output via system() or so. But I am trying the same thing via a php script started from an ssh command. Sadly, all that stty ever returns is: stty: standard input: Invalid argument. The calling code is: exec('stty -a | head -n 1', $query); echo $query[0]; So the question is: If I can output to the terminal and read input from it (e.g. can fread() from STDIN and fwrite() to STDOUT in PHP, shouldn't stty also have valid STDIN and STDOUT?

    Read the article

  • Method params match signature, but still getting error

    - by Jason
    I am in the midst of converting a VB library to C#. One of my methods has the following signature in VB: Private Shared Sub FillOrder(ByVal row As DataRowView, ByRef o As Order) In C# I converted it to: private static void FillOrder(DataRowView row, ref Order o) From my constructor inside my Order class, I am calling the FillOrder() method like so: DataView dv = //[get the data] if (dv.Count > 0) { FillOrder(dv[0], this); } In VB, this works: Dim dv As DataView = '[get data]' If dv.Count > 0 Then FillOrder(dv.Item(0), Me) End If However, in VS10 in the C# file I am getting a red squiggle under this call with the following error: The best overloaded method match for [the method] has some invalid arguments This was working code in VB. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How can I wait for the image to load in my new window before printing via child.print()?

    - by libertas
    $("#print").on('click', function () { var child = window.open("image.jpg", "_blank", "location=0,toolbar=0,scrollbars=1,fullscreen=1,menubar=0"); //any way to know/wait for image to load? child.print(); }); Any way for my parent window to know that the child window has completed loading the image prior to calling .print()? If they were trigger happy they would end up printing a blank page. I've tried both: child.attachEvent("onload", function () { child.print(); }); and child.attachEvent("DOMContentLoaded", function () { child.print(); }); //(found this online, apparently it's Firefox only, still didn't work)

    Read the article

  • MVC, how view should be accessed from controller?

    - by Kirzilla
    Hello, I'm just learning MVC so you could find my question rather strange... My Controller have access to different shared objects through Container object passed to Controller's constructor. To access shared objects I should do $this-container-db to access Database adapter or $this-container-memcache to access Memcached adapter. I want to know should I put View object into Container with shared objects or no? From one side it is really comfortable to take view from this container, but this way I couldn't create multiple Views instances (for example, every time I'm calling Controller's method from View I should have one more View instance). What is the solution? How should I pass View object into Controller and/or how should I create new View instances from Controller? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • JNI AttachCurrentThread NULLs the jenv

    - by Damg
    Hello all, I'm currently in the process of adding JNI functionality into a legacy delphi app. In a single-threaded environment everything works fine, but as soon as I move into multi-threaded environment, things start to become hairy. My problem is that calling JavaVM^.AttachCurrentThread( JavaVM, @JEnv, nil ); returns 0, but puts the JEnv pointer to nil. I have no idea why jvm.dll should return a NULL pointer. Is there anything I am missing? Thank you in advance -- damg PS: * Environment: WinXP + JDK 1.6 * Using JNI.pas from http://www.pacifier.com/~mmead/jni/delphi/

    Read the article

  • Triggering Quartz job from JSF (Any front end)- How to wait for the job execution to be over

    - by Maximus
    I am developing a front end to trigger a quartz job on the fly. I have a form in the JSF page whose click action will dynamically trigger a quartz job. The job is invoked by the following statement, the job is triggered and everything works fine. scheduler.triggerJob("Job1",Scheduler.DEFAULT_GROUP,jobDataMap); From what I understand the job seems to run in a separate thread and the execution of the calling function does not wait for the job to be over. Since I am invoking the job from front end, I would like to wait till the job is over before I navigate to a different JSF page. So I can display an error message if the job fails. I would also like to display a message to the user, "Processing job, please wait.." until the job is actually over. Any ideas on how to accomplish this will be appreciated. Thanks !

    Read the article

  • How to release a string created inside a method in iphone?

    - by Warrior
    I have declared a local string inside the method.I am releasing the string inside the same method.I found my code crashing if release that object.If i dont release the string,code runs successfully.I have called that method in viewdidappear so that method is called while pushing and poping.Nothing gets printed in the console. Here is my code -(void)appendString{ NSString *locStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:@""]; for (int i=0;i<[result count]; i++) { locStr=[locStr stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@",[result objectAtIndex:i]]; } [str setString:locStr]; [locStr release]; } I am calling the "appendString" method from "viewDidAppear"."str" is a NSMutable string declared in .h class.How should i release the "locStr" .Please help me out

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171  | Next Page >